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  • Question 1 - A 20-year old cyclist falls off a speeding bike and fractures a structure...

    Correct

    • A 20-year old cyclist falls off a speeding bike and fractures a structure that articulates with the tubercle of the 7th rib. Which structure is fractured?

      Your Answer: Transverse process of vertebra T7

      Explanation:

      A rib tubercle is a projection that is postero-inferior and lateral to the neck of a rib which articulates with the transverse process of the corresponding vertebra i.e. of the same number. Therefore, the tubercle of rib 7 articulates with the transverse process of T7 vertebra. The head of the rib 7, on the other hand, articulates with the 6th vertebra superiorly and the 7th vertebra inferiorly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      3107.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - During a surgical operation, whilst dissecting the mediastinal lymph nodes for a bronchogenic...

    Correct

    • During a surgical operation, whilst dissecting the mediastinal lymph nodes for a bronchogenic carcinoma of the right upper lobe bronchus, a patient's right sympathetic trunk is accidentally severed above the level of spinal nerve T1. Which function would be left intact in the affected region?

      Your Answer: Voluntary muscle activity

      Explanation:

      The sympathetic nervous system regulates vascular tone, dilation of pupils, arrector pili muscles, sweat production and visceral reflexes. Neurones that supply the voluntary muscles originate from the ventral horn of the spinal cord. If these nerves were thus damaged, these functions would be impaired. The sympathetic nervous system is not responsible for voluntary muscle activity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      59.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What is expected from complete transection of the inferior gluteal nerve when it...

    Incorrect

    • What is expected from complete transection of the inferior gluteal nerve when it emerges from the greater sciatic foramen?

      Your Answer: Muscles in the posterior compartment of the leg would be paralysed

      Correct Answer: Extension of the thigh would be the action most affected

      Explanation:

      As the inferior gluteal nerve emerges from the greater sciatic foramen below the piriformis muscle, it divides into branches and enters the gluteus maximus muscle which extends the femur and bends the thigh in line with the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      42.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - During strenuous exercise, what else occurs besides tachycardia? ...

    Correct

    • During strenuous exercise, what else occurs besides tachycardia?

      Your Answer: Increased stroke volume

      Explanation:

      During strenuous exercise there is an increase in:

      – Heart rate, stroke volume and therefore cardiac output. (CO = HR x SV)

      – Respiratory rate (hyperventilation) which will lead to a reduction in Paco2.

      – Oxygen demand of skeletal muscle, therefore leading to a reduction in mixed venous blood oxygen concentration.

      Renal blood flow is autoregulated, so renal blood flow is preserved and will tend to remain the same. Mean arterial blood pressure is a function of cardiac output and total peripheral resistance and will increase with exercise, mainly as a result of the increase in cardiac output that occurs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      28.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 45-year old farmer was referred to the surgical clinic with complaints of...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year old farmer was referred to the surgical clinic with complaints of pain in his right hypochondrium. Investigations confirmed the diagnosis of hepatocellular carcinoma with malignant ascites. According to you, what is the most likely cause of HCC in this patient?

      Your Answer: Aromatic amines

      Correct Answer: Aflatoxin

      Explanation:

      Aflatoxins are naturally occurring toxins produced by the Aspergillus fungus (most often, A. flavus and A. parasiticus). These organisms are common and their native habitat is soil, decaying vegetation and grains. They can contaminate the grain before harvest or after storage, more likely in high-humidity (at least 7%) or high temperature environment of after stressful conditions like drought. Aflatoxins are mycotoxins and also carcinogenic. They get metabolized in the liver to an epoxide, aflatoxin M1. High exposure can lead to acute necrosis, cirrhosis or liver carcinoma. These substances can cause haemorrhage, acute liver damage, oedema, and alteration in digestion, absorption and/or metabolism of nutrients. Although humans are susceptible to these toxins like all other animals, they have a high tolerance level and hence, rarely develop acute aflatoxicosis. However, children are particularly susceptible to exposure leading to growth impairment and delayed development. Chronic exposure carries a high risk of hepatic cancer, due to intercalation of its metabolite aflatoxin M1 into the DNA and alkylation of the bases because of its epoxide moiety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal; Hepatobiliary
      • Pathology
      49.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 14 year-old girl is found to have haemophilia B. What pathological problem...

    Incorrect

    • A 14 year-old girl is found to have haemophilia B. What pathological problem does she have?

      Your Answer: Deficiency of platelets

      Correct Answer: Deficiency of factor IX

      Explanation:

      Haemophilia B (also known as Christmas disease) is due to a deficiency in factor IX. Haemophilia A is due to a deficiency in factor VIII.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      24.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Calculate the total peripheral resistance for a patient with a blood pressure of...

    Incorrect

    • Calculate the total peripheral resistance for a patient with a blood pressure of 130/70 mm HG and cardiac output of 5 litres / min?

      Your Answer: 16 mmHg × min/l

      Correct Answer: 18 mmHg × min/l

      Explanation:

      Total peripheral resistance = Mean arterial pressure/Cardiac output. And the mean arterial pressure = Diastolic pressure + 1/3 (Systolic pressure – Diastolic pressure), i.e., 70 + 1/3 (130-70) = 90 mmHg. Therefore, total peripheral resistance = 90 mmHg/5 l per min = 18 mmHg × min/l.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      3103
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - What is the action of the muscle of the orbit that originates on...

    Incorrect

    • What is the action of the muscle of the orbit that originates on the lesser wing of the sphenoid bone, just above the optic foramen?

      Your Answer: Temporal rotation of the eyeball

      Correct Answer: Elevation of the upper eyelid

      Explanation:

      The levator palpebrae superioris is the muscle in the orbit that elevates the superior (upper) eyelid. The levator palpebrae superioris originates on the lesser wing of the sphenoid bone, just above the optic foramen and receives somatic motor input from the ipsilateral superior division of the oculomotor nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      27.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 38 year-old man falls on an outstretched hand. X-rays indicate an anterior...

    Incorrect

    • A 38 year-old man falls on an outstretched hand. X-rays indicate an anterior dislocation of one of the carpal bones. Which carpal bone is most commonly dislocated?

      Your Answer: Capitate

      Correct Answer: Lunate

      Explanation:

      The scaphoid bone is the most commonly fractured carpal bone and has an increased risk of avascular necrosis.

      The lunate is the most commonly dislocated carpal bone. The displaced bone may compress the median nerve in the carpal tunnel.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      22
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following is an anion? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is an anion?

      Your Answer: Calcium

      Correct Answer: Phosphate

      Explanation:

      Cations: sodium, magnesium, calcium and potassium

      Anions: chloride, phosphate, bicarbonate, lactate, sulphate and albumin

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      75.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which of the following foramen provides passage of the facial nerve? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following foramen provides passage of the facial nerve?

      Your Answer: Foramen spinosum

      Correct Answer: Internal acoustic meatus

      Explanation:

      The internal auditory meatus provides a passage through which the vestibulocochlear nerve, the facial nerve, and the labyrinthine artery (an internal auditory branch of the basilar artery) can pass from inside the skull to structures of the inner ear and face.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      109.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 50 year old female patient with an history of chronic headache was...

    Incorrect

    • A 50 year old female patient with an history of chronic headache was scheduled for CT scan. If the CT scan revealed a tumour at the horn of the lateral ventricle, which of the following structures is most likely to be compressed by this tumour?

      Your Answer: Ependyma

      Correct Answer: Fibres of the corpus callosum

      Explanation:

      The ventricular system of the brain is made up of four ventricles namely; two lateral and a third and forth ventricle. The ventricles are the site of the development of the cerebrospinal fluid. The left and right lateral ventricles are located in each of the brain’s hemispheres. The roof of the lateral ventricles are made up of the fibres of the corpus callosum. This is the structure that would be compressed by the a tumour on the roof of the lateral ventricles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      25.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - What is the most likely cause of bilateral gynaecomastia in a 55-year old...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most likely cause of bilateral gynaecomastia in a 55-year old male?

      Your Answer: History of antidepressant drug therapy

      Correct Answer: Hepatic failure

      Explanation:

      Hypertrophy of breast tissue in males is known as gynaecomastia. It is normally due to proliferation of stroma and not of mammary ducts. Physiological gynaecomastia can occur during puberty and is often transient, bilateral, symmetrical and possibly tender. Gynaecomastia can occur during old age too, but is usually unilateral. Other causes include hepatic or renal failure, endocrinological disorders, drugs (anabolic steroids, antineoplastic drugs, calcium channel blockers, cimetidine, digitalis, oestrogens, isoniazid, ketoconazole, methadone, metronidazole, reserpine, spironolactone, theophylline), and marijuana. It should not be confused with malignancy which is often hard, asymmetric and fixed to the dermis or fascia. Treatment if indicated, includes withdrawal of the causative factor or treatment of the underlying disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Women's Health
      161
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of the following is true about myasthenia gravis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true about myasthenia gravis?

      Your Answer: A large dose of physostigmine is likely to improve the symptoms

      Correct Answer: Response of skeletal muscle to nerve stimulation is weakened

      Explanation:

      An autoimmune disorder, myasthenia gravis leads to progressive muscle weakness. It occurs due to formation of antibodies against the nicotinic acetylcholine (ACh) receptor of the motor endplate, which leads to impaired neuromuscular transmission. Thus, nerve stimulation will lead to a weakened muscle response, but direct electrical stimulation will bring about a normal response. Diagnostic test includes improvement of muscle weakness by small doses of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (physostigmine or edrophonium). However, a large dose of physostigmine worsens the weakness due to desensitisation of the endplate to persistent Ach. One of the investigative tools includes radiolabelled snake venom α-bungarotoxin. It is an in vitro study performed on muscle biopsy specimens and used to quantify the number of ACh receptors at the motor endplate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - If a catheter is placed in the main pulmonary artery of a healthy...

    Incorrect

    • If a catheter is placed in the main pulmonary artery of a healthy 30-year-old woman, which of the following will be its mean pulmonary arterial pressure?

      Your Answer: 95 mm Hg

      Correct Answer: 15 mmHg

      Explanation:

      The pulmonary artery pressure (PA pressure) is a measure of the blood pressure found in the main pulmonary artery. The hydrostatic pressure of the pulmonary circulation refers to the actual pressure inside pulmonary vessels relative to atmospheric pressure. Hydrostatic (blood pressure) in the pulmonary vascular bed is low compared with that of similar systemic vessels. The mean pulmonary arterial pressure is about 15 mmHg (ranging from about 13 to 19 mmHg) and is much lower than the average systemic arterial pressure of 90 mmHg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A glycogen storage disorder is characterised by increased liver glycogen with a normal...

    Incorrect

    • A glycogen storage disorder is characterised by increased liver glycogen with a normal structure and no increase in serum glucose after oral intake of a protein-rich diet. Deficiency of which of the following enzymes is responsible for this disorder?

      Your Answer: Phosphoglucomutase

      Correct Answer: Glucose-6-phosphatase

      Explanation:

      The most common glycogen storage disorder is von Gierke’s disease or glycogen storage disease type I. It results from a deficiency of enzyme glucose-6-phosphatase which affects the ability of liver to produce free glucose from glycogen and gluconeogenesis; leading to severe hypoglycaemia. There is also increased glycogen storage in the liver and kidneys causing enlargement and various problems in their functioning. The disease also causes lactic acidosis and hyperlipidaemia. The main treatment includes frequent or continuous feedings of corn-starch or other carbohydrates.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 4-year-old child was brought to a paediatrician for consult due to a...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old child was brought to a paediatrician for consult due to a palpable mass in his abdomen. The child has poor appetite and regularly complains of abdominal pain. The child was worked up and diagnosed with a tumour. What is the most likely diagnosis ?

      Your Answer: Pleomorphic adenoma

      Correct Answer: Nephroblastoma

      Explanation:

      Nephroblastoma is also known as Wilms’ tumour. It is a cancer of the kidneys that typically occurs in children. The median age of diagnose is approximately 3.5 years. With the current treatment, approximately 80-90% of children with Wilms’ tumour survive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia
      • Pathology
      21.8
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which of the following is a fact worth noting about the development of...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is a fact worth noting about the development of the spleen?

      Your Answer: It develops in the dorsal mesogastrium

      Explanation:

      The spleen in the human embryo arises in week 5 of intrauterine life. It appears as a proliferating mesenchyme above the pancreas. The spleen is one the organs that develops in the dorsal mesogastrium. When the stomach changes its position during development, the spleen is made to move behind the stomach and stays in contact with the left kidney. The spleen is found within the peritoneum of the abdominal cavity thus it is an intraperitoneal organ.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      946.8
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A tumour growing in the posterior mediastinum is found in a 40-year-old man...

    Correct

    • A tumour growing in the posterior mediastinum is found in a 40-year-old man who presented to the out patient clinic with chest pain. Such a tumour is likely to compress the following structure:

      Your Answer: Oesophagus

      Explanation:

      The boundaries of the posterior mediastinum are: the superiorly through the sternal angle and T4/5, inferiorly, the diaphragm, anteriorly, by the middle mediastinal structures and posteriorly by the spinal cord. Structures in the posterior mediastinum include the descending thoracic aorta, the azygos system, oesophagus, thoracic duct and lymph nodes. The great vessels and structures at the root of the lung are part of the middle mediastinum. The oesophagus is the only structure in the posterior mediastinum among the choices.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Pain in the epigastric region occurring typically 2-3 hours after meals and causing...

    Incorrect

    • Pain in the epigastric region occurring typically 2-3 hours after meals and causing the patient to wake up at night is characteristic of which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer: Zollinger–Ellison syndrome

      Correct Answer: Duodenal ulcer

      Explanation:

      The description is typical for duodenal ulcers. There is no pain upon waking in the morning however it appears around mid-morning and is relieved by ingestion of food. The pain also often causes the patient to wake up at night.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal; Hepatobiliary
      • Pathology
      3.4
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which muscle in the neck divides the neck into two large triangles? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which muscle in the neck divides the neck into two large triangles?

      Your Answer: Anterior scalene

      Correct Answer: Sternocleidomastoid

      Explanation:

      The sternocleidomastoid muscle is an important landmark in the neck as it divides the neck into two; anterior and posterior triangles. These triangles help in the location of the structures of the neck including the carotid artery, head and neck lymph nodes, accessory nerve and the brachial plexus. It originates from the manubrium and medial portion of the clavicle and inserts on the mastoid process of the temporal bone, superior nuchal line. The sternocleidomastoid receives blood supply from the occipital artery and the superior thyroid artery. It is innervated by the accessory nerve (motor) and cervical plexus (sensory).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      16.9
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 5-year-old child is rushed to the emergency department because of fever, erythema...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old child is rushed to the emergency department because of fever, erythema and neck stiffness. The child is also hypotensive upon physical examination. Which is the most likely toxin responsible for this child's condition?

      Your Answer: Erythrotoxin

      Correct Answer: Endotoxin

      Explanation:

       An endotoxin is part of the bacterial outer membrane, and it is not released until the bacterium is killed by the immune system. The body’s response to an endotoxin can involve severe inflammation. In general, the inflammation process is usually considered beneficial to the infected host, but if the reaction is severe enough, it can lead to sepsis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
      32.3
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A man had noticed weakness in his left arm causing flexion of the...

    Correct

    • A man had noticed weakness in his left arm causing flexion of the elbow and supination of the forearm. Which nerve in this case was injured?

      Your Answer: Musculocutaneous

      Explanation:

      The musculocutaneous nerve supplies the biceps brachii and the brachialis muscles. The first one flexes the elbow and the shoulder. It is also involved in supination. The brachialis muscle flexes the forearm. The injury to the musculocutaneous nerve results in paralysis of these muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      17.7
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A CT-scan report of a patient with gastric carcinoma shows that the lymph...

    Correct

    • A CT-scan report of a patient with gastric carcinoma shows that the lymph nodes around the coeliac trunk are enlarged. The coeliac trunk:

      Your Answer: Gives rise to the splenic, left gastric and common hepatic arteries

      Explanation:

      The coeliac trunk is a branch of the aorta arising just below the aortic hiatus of the diaphragm to pass nearly horizontally forward to divide into 3 large branches i.e. the left gastric, the hepatic and the splenic arteries. Occasionally it may give off one of the inferior phrenic arteries. It is covered by the lesser omentum and on the right side bordered by the right coeliac ganglion and the cardiac end of the stomach. Inferiorly it is bordered by the upper border of the pancreas and splenic vein. The embryonic midgut is supplied by the superior mesenteric artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      23.7
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - The bronchial circulation is a part of the circulatory system that supplies nutrients and oxygen to the pulmonary...

    Correct

    • The bronchial circulation is a part of the circulatory system that supplies nutrients and oxygen to the pulmonary parenchyma. What percentage of cardiac output is received by bronchial circulation?

      Your Answer: 2%

      Explanation:

      The bronchial circulation is part of the systemic circulation and receives about 2% of the cardiac output from the left heart. Bronchial arteries arise from branches of the aorta, intercostal, subclavian or internal mammary arteries. The bronchial arteries supply the tracheobronchial tree with both nutrients and O2. It is complementary to the pulmonary circulation that brings deoxygenated blood to the lungs and carries oxygenated blood away from them in order to oxygenate the rest of the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      18.9
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which of the following muscle divide the posterior triangle of the neck into...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following muscle divide the posterior triangle of the neck into the occipital and the subclavian triangle?

      Your Answer: Posterior belly of the digastric

      Correct Answer: Inferior belly of the omohyoid

      Explanation:

      The posterior triangle (or lateral cervical region) is a region of the neck bounded in front by the sternocleidomastoid; behind, by the anterior margin of the trapezius; inferiorly by the middle third of the clavicle and superiorly by the occipital bone. The posterior triangle is crossed, about 2.5 cm above the clavicle, by the inferior belly of the omohyoid muscle, which divides the space into two triangles: an upper or occipital triangle and a lower or subclavian triangle (or supraclavicular triangle).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      101.4
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A patient sustained an iatrogenic injury to one of the structures passing through...

    Incorrect

    • A patient sustained an iatrogenic injury to one of the structures passing through the deep inguinal ring. This was during an operation to repair an inguinal hernia. Which structure is most likely to be injured?

      Your Answer: Ilioinguinal nerve

      Correct Answer: Round ligament of the uterus

      Explanation:

      The deep inguinal ring transmits the spermatic cord in the man and the round ligament of the uterus in the female. It is bound below and medially by the inferior epigastric vessels (so these don’t go through it).

      The ilioinguinal nerve, although it courses through the inguinal canal, does not pass through it.

      The iliohypogastric nerves run between the internal oblique and transversus abdominis in the abdominal wall, piercing the internal oblique at the anterior superior iliac spine to travel just deep to the external oblique.

      The inferior epigastric artery runs between the transversus abdominis and the peritoneum forming the lateral umbilical fold.

      The medial umbilical ligament is the obliterated umbilical artery that it lies within the medial umbilical fold of peritoneum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      84.3
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 65-year-old female is taking different medications for various medical conditions. Which medication...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old female is taking different medications for various medical conditions. Which medication would most likely predispose the patient to develop hyperkalaemia?

      Your Answer: Theophylline

      Correct Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      The most important potential side effect of spironolactone is hyperkalaemia (high potassium levels), which, in severe cases, can be life-threatening. Hyperkalaemia in these patients can present as a non anion-gap metabolic acidosis. 

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Pathology
      41.1
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 68-year-old man underwent sigmoid resection with diverting colostomy for a ruptured sigmoid...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man underwent sigmoid resection with diverting colostomy for a ruptured sigmoid diverticulum 10 days ago. He received gentamicin and ampicillin post-op. 2 days after he was discharged from the hospital, he was readmitted because of high grade fever and chills. His blood culture grew Gram-negative bacilli. Which organism is most likely responsible for the patient's infection?

      Your Answer: Escherichia coli

      Correct Answer: Bacteroides fragilis

      Explanation:

      Bacteroides fragilis is an anaerobic, Gram-negative, rod-shaped bacterium. It is part of the normal flora of the human colon and is generally a commensal, but can cause infection if displaced into the bloodstream or surrounding tissue following surgery, disease, or trauma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
      45.1
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Most of the coagulation factors are serine proteases. Which of the following is...

    Incorrect

    • Most of the coagulation factors are serine proteases. Which of the following is not one of them?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Factor XIII

      Explanation:

      Serine protease coagulation factors include: thrombin, plasmin, Factors X, XI and XII. Factor VIII and factor V are glycoproteins and factor XIII is a transglutaminase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (7/14) 50%
Thorax (2/3) 67%
Lower Limb (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
Physiology (4/7) 57%
Gastrointestinal; Hepatobiliary (1/2) 50%
Pathology (4/8) 50%
Haematology (0/1) 0%
Head & Neck (3/5) 60%
Upper Limb (1/2) 50%
Fluids & Electrolytes (1/2) 50%
Women's Health (1/1) 100%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Respiratory (1/2) 50%
Gastroenterology (1/1) 100%
Neoplasia (1/1) 100%
Abdomen (1/3) 33%
Microbiology (0/2) 0%
General (0/1) 0%
Passmed