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  • Question 1 - A 25-year -old man, presents with a suspected uretic colic and is placed...

    Correct

    • A 25-year -old man, presents with a suspected uretic colic and is placed on admission. An abdominal x-ray of the kidney, ureter and bladder (KUB) is ordered.

      Where is the stone most likely to be located on x-ray?

      Your Answer: The tips of the transverse processes between L2 and L5

      Explanation:

      The ureter runs anterior to the vertebrae at the level of L2 to L5, and stones are usually seen at these points on x-ray.

      They can also be seen at the level of the sacro-iliac joints.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      74.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following statements is true regarding oxytocin? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding oxytocin?

      Your Answer: Reduces the threshold for depolarisation of the uterine smooth muscle

      Explanation:

      Oxytocin is secreted by the posterior pituitary along with Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH). It increases the contraction of the upper segment (fundus and body) of the uterus whereas the lower segment is relaxed facilitating the expulsion of the foetus.

      Oxytocin acts through G protein-coupled receptor and phosphoinositide-calcium second messenger system to contract uterine smooth muscle.

      It has 0.5 to 1 % ADH activity introducing possibilities of water intoxication when used in high doses.

      The sensitivity of the uterus to oxytocin increases as the pregnancy progresses.

      It is used for induction of labour in post maturity and uterine inertia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      94.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 27-year-old woman is admitted to the emergency room with an ectopic pregnancy...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman is admitted to the emergency room with an ectopic pregnancy that has ruptured.

      The following is a description of the clinical examination:

      Anxious
      Capillary refill time of 3 seconds
      Cool peripheries
      Pulse 120 beats per minute
      Blood pressure 120/95 mmHg
      Respiratory rate 22 breaths per minute.

      Which of the following is the most likely explanation for these clinical findings?

      Your Answer: Reduction in blood volume of 0-15%

      Correct Answer: Reduction in blood volume of 15-30%

      Explanation:

      The following is the Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) classification of haemorrhagic shock:

      Class I haemorrhage:
      It has blood loss up to 15%. There is very less tachycardia, and no changes in blood pressure, RR or pulse pressure. Usually, fluid replacement is not required.

      Class II haemorrhage:
      It has 15-30% blood loss, equivalent to 750 – 1500 ml. There is tachycardia, tachypnoea and a decrease in pulse pressure. Patient may be frightened, hostile and anxious. It can be stabilised by crystalloid and blood transfusion.

      Class III haemorrhage:
      There is 30-40% blood loss. It portrays inadequate perfusion, marked tachycardia, tachypnoea, altered mental state and fall in systolic pressure. It requires blood transfusion.

      Class IV haemorrhage:
      There is > 40% blood volume loss. It is a preterminal event, and the patient will die in minutes. It portrays tachycardia, significant depression in systolic pressure and pulse pressure, altered mental state, and cold clammy skin. There is need for rapid transfusion and surgical intervention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      321.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 68-year-old man with nausea and vomiting is admitted to the hospital.

    For temporal...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man with nausea and vomiting is admitted to the hospital.

      For temporal arteritis, he takes 40 mg prednisolone orally in divided doses. His prescription chart will need to be adjusted to reflect his inability to take oral medications.

      What is the equivalent dose of intravenous hydrocortisone to 40 mg oral prednisolone?

      Your Answer: 160 mg

      Explanation:

      Prednisolone 5 mg is the same as 20 mg hydrocortisone.

      Prednisolone 40 mg is the same as 8 x 20 mg or 160 mg of prednisolone.

      Mineralocorticoid effects and variations in action duration are not taken into account in these comparisons.

      5 mg of prednisolone is the same as Dexamethasone 750 mcg, Hydrocortisone 20 mg, Methylprednisolone 4 mg, and Cortisone acetate 25 mg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      266.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Regarding the emergency oxygen flush, which is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the emergency oxygen flush, which is true?

      Your Answer: Delivers oxygen that has bypassed the vaporisers but not the flowmeters

      Correct Answer: May lead to awareness if used inappropriately

      Explanation:

      When the emergency oxygen flush is pressed, 100% oxygen is supplied from the common gas outlet. This gas bypasses BOTH flowmeters and vaporisers. The flow of oxygen is usually 45 l/min at a PRESSURE OF 400 kPa.

      There is an increased risk of pulmonary barotrauma when the emergency flush is pressed, especially when anaesthetising paediatric patients.

      The inappropriate use of the flush causes dilution of anaesthetic gases and this increases the possibility of anaesthetic awareness .

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      1866.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - The solutions that contains the most sodium is? ...

    Correct

    • The solutions that contains the most sodium is?

      Your Answer: 3500 mL 0.9% N saline

      Explanation:

      Sodium concentration for different fluids
      3% N saline 513 mmol/L
      5% N saline 856 mmol/L
      0.9% N saline 154 mmol/L
      Hartmann’s solution 131 mmol/L
      0.45% N saline with 5% glucose 77 mmol/L

      This means that:

      500 mL 5% N saline contains 428 mmol of sodium
      1000 mL 3% N saline contains 513 mmol of sodium
      3500 mL 0.9% N saline contains 539 mmol of sodium
      4000 mL Hartmann’s contains 524 mmol of sodium
      6000 mL 0.45% N saline with 5% glucose contains 462 mmol of sodium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      404.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - The child-Pugh scoring system can be used, if risk classifying a patient with...

    Correct

    • The child-Pugh scoring system can be used, if risk classifying a patient with chronic liver disorder earlier to anaesthesia.

      Which one is the best combination of clinical signs and examinations used within the Child-Pugh scoring system?

      Your Answer: Ascites, grade of encephalopathy, albumin, bilirubin and INR

      Explanation:

      In the Child-Pugh classification system, the following 5 components are determined or calculated in order:

      Ascites

      Grade of encephalopathy

      Serum bilirubin (?mol/L)

      Serum Albumin (g/L)

      Prothrombin time or INR

      Raised liver enzymes are not the component of the classification system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Physics
      287.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following statements is true regarding the relation to the liver?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding the relation to the liver?

      Your Answer: The caudate lobe is superior to the porta hepatis

      Explanation:

      Ligamentum venosum is an anterior relation of the liver: The ligamentum venosum, the fibrous remnant of the ductus venosus of the fetal circulation, lies posterior to the liver. It lies in the fossa for ductus venosus that separates the caudate lobe and the left lobe of the liver.

      The portal triad contains three important tubes: 1. Proper hepatic artery 2. Hepatic portal vein 3. Bile ductules It also contains lymphatic vessels and a branch of the vagus nerve.

      The bare area of the liver is a large triangular area that is devoid of any peritoneal covering. The bare area is attached directly to the diaphragm by loose connective tissue. This nonperitoneal area is created by a wide separation between the coronary ligaments.

      The porta hepatis is a fissure in the inferior surface of the liver. All the neurovascular structures (except the hepatic veins) and hepatic ducts enter or leave the liver via the porta hepatis. It contains the sympathetic branch to the liver and gallbladder and the parasympathetic, hepatic branch of the vagus nerve. The caudate lobe (segment I) lies in the lesser sac on the inferior surface of the liver between the IVC on the right, the ligamentum venosum on the left, and the porta hepatis in front

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      334.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Weight of all of your patients in the ICU is analysed, and shows...

    Correct

    • Weight of all of your patients in the ICU is analysed, and shows that your date set is skewed.

      Which of the following will correctly show the average weight of your patients?

      Your Answer: Median

      Explanation:

      The question mentions a quantitative, ratio scale data set. The use of mean would be ideal under normal circumstances, however, in this situation median is preferred as it is less sensitive to the skewness of data. The median is usually preferred to other measures of central tendency when your data set is skewed (i.e., forms a skewed distribution)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      57.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Regarding thyroid hormones, one of the following is true. ...

    Correct

    • Regarding thyroid hormones, one of the following is true.

      Your Answer: Thyroid binding globulin (TBG) is increased in pregnancy

      Explanation:

      T3 is produced by peripheral de-iodination of T4. It is more active than T4.

      TBG, like most binding proteins, is increased in pregnancy. Because of this, measurement of free thyroid hormone concentration is more important than total.

      T4 and T3 concentrations are decreased in Illness and starvation.

      L-T4 that is the active molecule while D-T4 is inactive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      142.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 30-year-old man has been diagnosed with a direct inguinal hernia.

    A direct...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man has been diagnosed with a direct inguinal hernia.

      A direct inguinal hernia passes through Hesselbach's triangle. What forms the medial edge of this triangle?

      Your Answer: Inferior epigastric artery

      Correct Answer: Rectus abdominis muscle

      Explanation:

      The inguinal triangle of Hesselbach’s is an important clinical landmark on the posterior wall of the inguinal canal. It has the following relations:
      Inferiorly – medial third of the inguinal ligament
      Medially – lower lateral border of the rectus abdominis
      Laterally – inferior epigastric vessels

      Direct inguinal hernia is when the bowel bulges directly through the abdominal wall. These hernias usually protrude through Hesselbach’s triangle

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - The prospects of setting up a health facility to help patients with ischaemic...

    Correct

    • The prospects of setting up a health facility to help patients with ischaemic heart disease in a remote area are under consideration and you have been asked to look into it.

      What's the crucial factor in finding out the amount of resources needed to go ahead with the idea?

      Your Answer: Prevalence

      Explanation:

      Both incidence and prevalence are indicators of the disease frequency. While incidence tells us about the number of cases reported per population in a provided time period, prevalence is the factor you should be vigilant about as it tells us about the total number of cases that have been reported in a population at a particular point of time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      25.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 64-year old male has shortness of breath on exertion and presented to...

    Incorrect

    • A 64-year old male has shortness of breath on exertion and presented to the cardiology clinic. He has a transthoracic echo performed to help in assessing the function of his heart.
      How can this echo aid in calculating cardiac output?

      Your Answer: (end diastolic LV volume - end systolic LV volume) / heart rate

      Correct Answer: (end diastolic LV volume - end systolic LV volume) x heart rate

      Explanation:

      Cardiac output = stroke volume x heart rate

      Left ventricular ejection fraction = (stroke volume / end diastolic LV volume ) x 100%

      Stroke volume = end diastolic LV volume – end systolic LV volume

      Pulse pressure = Systolic Pressure – Diastolic Pressure

      Systemic vascular resistance = mean arterial pressure / cardiac output
      Factors that increase pulse pressure include:
      -a less compliant aorta (this tends to occur with advancing age)
      -increased stroke volume

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      139.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 57-year old lady is admitted to the Emergency Department with signs of...

    Correct

    • A 57-year old lady is admitted to the Emergency Department with signs of a subarachnoid haemorrhage.

      On admission, her GCS was 7. She has been intubated, sedated and is being ventilated and is waiting for a CT scan. Her Blood pressure is 140/70mmHg.

      The arterial blood gas analysis shows the following:

      pH 7.2 (7.35 - 7.45)
      PaO2 70 mmHg (80-100)
      9.2 kPa (10.5-13.1)
      PaCO2 78 mmHg (35-45)
      10.2 kPa (4.6-6.0)
      BE -3 mEq/L (-3 +/-3)
      Standard bic 27 mmol/L (21-27)
      SaO2 94%

      The most likely cause of an increase in the patient's global cerebral blood flow (CBF) is which of the following?


      Your Answer: Hypercapnia

      Explanation:

      PaCO2 is one of the most important factors that regulate cerebral vascular tone. CO2 induces cerebral vasodilatation and as a result, it increases CBF. Between 20 mmHg (2.7 kPa) and 80 mmHg (10.7 kPa), there is a linear increase of PaCO2.

      Sometimes, there are areas where auto regulation has failed locally but not globally. Similarly, local vs. systemic acidosis will have similar effects. When the PaO2 falls below 50 mmHg (6.5 kPa), the CBF progressively increases.

      An increase in the cerebral metabolic rate for oxygen (CMRO2) and therefore CBF can be caused by hyperthermia.
      A late feature of cerebral injury is hyperthermia secondary to hypothalamic injury. Therefore this is not the most likely cause of an increased CBF in this scenario.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      96.6
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - The fluids with the highest osmolarity is? ...

    Correct

    • The fluids with the highest osmolarity is?

      Your Answer: 0.45% N. Saline with 5% glucose

      Explanation:

      The concentration of solute particles per litre (mosm/L) = the osmolarity of a solution. Changes in water content, ambient temperature, and pressure affects osmolarity. The osmolarity of any solution can be calculated by adding the concentration of key solutes in it.

      Individual manufacturers of crystalloids and colloids may have different absolute values but they are similar to these.

      0.45% N. Saline with 5% glucose:
      Tonicity – hypertonic
      Osmolarity – 405 mosm/L
      Kilocalories (kCal) – 107

      0.9% N. Saline:
      Tonicity – isotonic
      Osmolarity – 308 mosm/L
      Kilocalories (kCal) – 0

      5% Dextrose:
      Tonicity – isotonic
      Osmolarity – 253 mosm/L
      Kilocalories (kCal) – 170

      Gelofusine (154 mmol/L Na, 120 mmol/L Cl):
      Tonicity – isotonic
      Osmolarity – 274 mosm/L
      Kilocalories (kCal) – 0

      Hartmann’s solution:
      Tonicity – isotonic
      Osmolarity – 273 mosm/L
      Kilocalories (kCal) – 9

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      177.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - All of the following statements are false regarding insulin except: ...

    Correct

    • All of the following statements are false regarding insulin except:

      Your Answer: Can be detected in the lymph

      Explanation:

      Insulin is secreted from the ? cells of the pancreas. It consists of 51 amino acids arranged in two chains. It interacts with cell surface receptors (not the nuclear receptors and thus mechanism of action is not similar to steroids).
      Since insulin can pass from plasma to interstitium and lymphatics, it can be measured in lymph but the concentrations here can be up to 30% less than that of plasma.

      It decreases blood glucose by stimulating the entry of glucose in muscle and fat (by increasing the synthesis of Glucose transporters)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      160.4
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following statements about intra-arterial blood pressure monitoring is true? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements about intra-arterial blood pressure monitoring is true?

      Your Answer: Fluid-filled tubing conducts the intravascular pressure wave from the catheter tip to the transducer

      Explanation:

      Intra-arterial blood pressure monitoring is a common place procedure in the ICU. It is used to provide accurate beat-to-beat information using a pressure wave displayed on a monitor.

      It involves catheter insertion in a peripheral artery (most commonly the radial, brachial and dorsalis pedis arteries). Each subsequent contraction of cardiac muscles results in pressure wave which induces a mechanical motion of flow in the catheter. This mechanical motion is then passed on to a transducer through a rigid fluid-filled tubing. The transducer is the able to process this mechanical motion into electrical signals which are displayed as arterial waves and pressure represented numerically on the monitor.

      The transducer should be placed at the same level as the heart on the phlebostatic axis, and at the level of the atria (the 4th intercostal space, in the mid-axillary line).

      Air bubbles and catheter tubing with longer lengths result in wave dampening (rounding of the resulting pressure waves). This dampening causes a decrease in systolic pressure, and an increase in diastolic pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      59.2
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which structure has the greatest amount of musculi pectinati? ...

    Correct

    • Which structure has the greatest amount of musculi pectinati?

      Your Answer: Right atrium

      Explanation:

      The pectinate muscles (musculi pectinati) are parallel muscular ridges that extend anterolaterally on the right atrial walls. The most prominent pectinate muscle, which forms the bridge of the sulcus terminalis internally, is the taenia sagittalis (second crest or septum spurium).

      In the left atrium, the pectinate muscles are confined to the inner surface of its atrial appendage. They tend to be fewer and smaller than in the right atrium. This is due to the embryological origin of the auricles, which are the true atria.

      Pectinate muscles of the atria are different from the trabeculae carneae, which are found on the inner walls of both ventricles.

      The interior of the right atrium has five distinct features:
      1. Sinus venarum – smooth, thin-walled posterior part of the right atrium where the SVC, IVC, and coronary sinus open
      2. Musculi pectinati – a rough anterior wall of pectinate muscles
      3. Tricuspid valve orifice – the opening through which the right atrium empties blood into the right ventricle
      4. Crista terminalis – separates the rough (musculi pectinati) from the smooth (sinus venarum) internally
      5. Fossa ovalis – a thumbprint size depression in the interatrial septum, which is a remnant of the oval foramen and its valve in the foetus

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      68
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A study was concerned with finding out the normal reference range of IgE...

    Correct

    • A study was concerned with finding out the normal reference range of IgE levels in adults was conducted. Presuming that the curve follows a normal distribution, what is the percentage of individuals having IgE levels greater than 2 standard deviations from mean?

      Your Answer: 2.30%

      Explanation:

      Since the data is normally distributed, 95.4% of the values lie with in 2 standard deviations from mean. The rest of the 4.6% are distributed symmetrically outside of that range which means 2.3% of the values lie above 2 standard deviations of the mean.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      146.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Heights of 100 individuals(adults) who were administered steroids at any stage during childhood...

    Correct

    • Heights of 100 individuals(adults) who were administered steroids at any stage during childhood was studied. The mean height was found to be 169cm with the data having a standard deviation of 16cm. What will be the standard error associated with the mean?

      Your Answer: 1.6

      Explanation:

      Standard error can be calculated by the following formula:
      Standard Error= (Standard Deviation)/√(Sample Size)
      = (16) / √(100)
      = 16 / 10
      = 1.6

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      114.8
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - The external urethral sphincter arises from which nerve root? ...

    Correct

    • The external urethral sphincter arises from which nerve root?

      Your Answer: S2, S3, S4

      Explanation:

      The external urethral sphincter functions to provide voluntary control of urine flow from the bladder to the urethra.

      It receives its innervation from the branches of the pudendal nerve which originate from S2, S3 and S4.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      57.8
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - The renal glomerulus is able to filter 180 litres of blood per day,...

    Correct

    • The renal glomerulus is able to filter 180 litres of blood per day, as determined by the starling forces present in the glomerulus. Ninety-nine percent of which is reabsorbed thereafter.

      Water is reabsorbed in the highest proportion in which segment of the nephron?

      Your Answer: Proximal convoluted tubule

      Explanation:

      Sixty-seven percent of filtered water is reabsorbed in the proximal tubule. The driving force for water reabsorption is a transtubular osmotic gradient established by reabsorption of solutes (e.g., NaCl, Na+-glucose).

      Henle’s loop reabsorbs approximately 25% of filtered NaCl and 15% of filtered water. The thin ascending limb reabsorbs NaCl by a passive mechanism, and is impermeable to water. Reabsorption of water, but not NaCl, in the descending thin limb increases the concentration of NaCl in the tubule fluid entering the ascending thin limb. As the NaCl-rich fluid moves toward the cortex, NaCl diffuses out of the tubule lumen across the ascending thin limb and into the medullary interstitial fluid, down a concentration gradient as directed from the tubule fluid to the interstitium. This mechanism is known as the counter current multiplier.

      The distal tubule and collecting duct reabsorb approximately 8% of filtered NaCl, secrete variable amounts of K+ and H+, and reabsorb a variable amount of water (approximately 8%-17%).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      132.1
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - The passage of glucose into the brain is facilitated by which transport method?...

    Correct

    • The passage of glucose into the brain is facilitated by which transport method?

      Your Answer: Facilitated diffusion

      Explanation:

      Glucose transport is a highly regulated process accomplished mostly by facilitated diffusion using carrier proteins to cross cell membranes.

      There are many transporters, but the most important are known as glucose transporters (GLUTs).

      Stresses in various form of acute and chronic forms affect the activity of glucose transporters.
      They are responsive to many types of metabolic stress, including hypoxia, injury, hypoglycaemia, numerous metabolic inhibitors, stress hormones, and other influences such as growth factors.

      Numerous signalling pathways appear to be involved in transporter regulation.

      New evidence suggests that stresses regulating GLUTs are not only acute biological stresses. In addition, chronic low-grade inflammation, and their associated chronic diseases also lead to altered glucose transport. These include obesity, type 2 diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and the growth and spread of many tumours that are affected by altered glucose transporters. Some of these glucose transport effects are compensatory, while others are pathogenic.

      Ultimately, deliberate manipulation of GLUTs could be used as treatment for some of these chronic diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      41.5
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 23-year-old man who is currently on fluoxetine for depression was anaesthetized two...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old man who is currently on fluoxetine for depression was anaesthetized two hours ago for knee arthroscopy. He seems agitated, confused, with a heart rate of 120 beats per minute, a temperature of 38.2oC, and developed difficulty moving his limbs.

      He is on paracetamol and tramadol for analgesia. Which of the following is the most likely cause for his condition?

      Your Answer: Tramadol

      Explanation:

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      31.9
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - In the fetal circulation, the cerebral and coronary circulations are preferentially supplied by...

    Correct

    • In the fetal circulation, the cerebral and coronary circulations are preferentially supplied by oxygen-rich blood over other organs. This is possible because of which phenomenon?

      Your Answer: Well oxygenated blood from the inferior vena cava is preferentially streamed across the patent foramen ovale

      Explanation:

      During fetal development, blood oxygenated by the placenta flows to the foetus through the umbilical vein, bypasses the fetal liver through the ductus venosus, and returns to the fetal heart through the inferior vena cava.

      Blood returning from the inferior vena cava then enters the right atrium and is preferentially shunted to the left atrium through the patent foramen ovale. Blood in the left atrium is then pumped from the left ventricle to the aorta. The oxygenated blood ejected through the ascending aorta is preferentially directed to the fetal coronary and cerebral circulations.

      Deoxygenated blood returns from the superior vena cava to the right atrium and ventricle to be pumped into the pulmonary artery. Fetal pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR), however, is higher than fetal systemic vascular resistance (SVR); this forces deoxygenated blood to mostly bypass the fetal lungs. This poorly oxygenated blood enters the aorta through the patent ductus arteriosus and mixes with the well-oxygenated blood in the descending aorta. The mixed blood in the descending aorta then returns to the placenta for oxygenation through the two umbilical arteries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      82
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - During a fight, a 20-year-old male is stabbed in the thigh with a...

    Correct

    • During a fight, a 20-year-old male is stabbed in the thigh with a bottle. He is admitted for treatment.

      Which feature, if present, suggests an injury to the femoral nerve?

      Your Answer: Loss of knee reflex

      Explanation:

      Femoral nerve lesion (L2,L3 and L4) is characterised by weakness of the quadriceps femoris muscle. This results in weakness of extension of the knee, loss of sensation over the front of the thigh, and loss of the knee jerk reflex.

      The skin over the lateral aspect of the thigh and knee, and the lower lateral quadrant of the buttock is supplied by the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh (L1,2).

      The adductors of the hip are supplied by the obturator nerve (L2-4). This nerve also supplies sensation to the inner thigh.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      57.5
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A doctor has recorded the number of times the patient did not attend...

    Incorrect

    • A doctor has recorded the number of times the patient did not attend (DNA) the clinic for a study over a 10 month period.

      Number of DNAs in 10 Months Number of Patients
      1st Month 0
      2nd Month 3
      3rd Month 1
      4th Month 45
      5th Month 2
      6th Month 0
      7th Month 1
      8th Month 4
      9th Month 4
      10th Month 2

      Which among the following is the most apt way of summarizing mean value?

      Your Answer: Range

      Correct Answer: Median

      Explanation:

      Variance and standard deviation indicate the dispersion of the plot from mean value and thus are not really helpful in summarizing the mean.

      Range is the difference between maximum and minimum value that is 45 in this case.

      The mean in this case is 6.2 due to the presence of an outlier 45. In the presence of outlier mean can be misleading as it is quite sensitive to skewness in data.

      Mode is the most frequent value. In this case mode has 4 values: 0,1,2,4.

      In case of skewedness, median is the most apt representative of the mean as it is not affected by outliers. In this case since the data set has even values i.e. 10. Median is the average of the 5th & 6th entry after arranging the data in ascending order like that in case of the question (0,0,1,1,2,2,3,4,4,45). This turns out to be 2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - While administering a general anaesthetic to a 65-year-old man booked for a hip...

    Correct

    • While administering a general anaesthetic to a 65-year-old man booked for a hip hemiarthroplasty, with a weight 70 kg, and an ASA 1 score, you give 1 g of paracetamol IV but notice that he had received the same dose on the ward one hour prior.

      What is the most appropriate subsequent management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Do nothing and give the next doses of paracetamol at standard 6 hour intervals

      Explanation:

      After ingestion of more than 150 mg/kg paracetamol within 24 hours, hepatotoxicity can occur but can also develop rarely after ingestion of doses as low as 75 mg/kg within 24 hours. Hepatocellular damage will not occur in this patient and therefore no need to engage management pathway for paracetamol overdose. If his weight was <33 kg or he already had a history of impaired liver function, then the management would bde different. Subsequent post-operative doses will be a standard dose of 1 g 6 hourly. This is a drug administration error and should be reported as an incident even though the patient will not be harmed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      62.5
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which of the following molecules is closely related to the structure of Oxytocin?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following molecules is closely related to the structure of Oxytocin?

      Your Answer: ADH

      Explanation:

      Oxytocin is structurally similar to Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH) and thus oxytocin can cause water intoxication (due to an ADH like action)

      Oxytocin is secreted by the posterior pituitary along with ADH. It increases uterine contractions – the contraction of the upper segment (fundus and body) of the uterus whereas the lower segment is relaxed facilitating the expulsion of the foetus

      Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) also called vasopressin is released from the posterior pituitary in response to hypertonicity and increases fluid reabsorption from the kidney.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 30 - What vessel is NOT considered a major branch of the descending thoracic aorta?...

    Correct

    • What vessel is NOT considered a major branch of the descending thoracic aorta?

      Your Answer: Inferior thyroid artery

      Explanation:

      The descending thoracic aorta begins at the lower border of T4 near the midline as a continuation of the arch of the aorta. It descends and ends at the level of T12 at the aortic hiatus in the diaphragm, where it becomes the abdominal aorta.

      The aorta gives off the following branches: (descending order)

      1. Bronchial arteries
      2. Mediastinal arteries
      3. Oesophageal arteries
      4. Pericardial arteries
      5. Superior phrenic arteries

      The posterior intercostal arteries are branches that originate throughout the length of the posterior aspect of the descending thoracic aorta.

      The inferior thyroid artery is usually derived from the thyrocervical trunk, a branch of the subclavian artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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