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  • Question 1 - A patient with testicular seminoma has the following tumour markers: LDH 1.3 times...

    Incorrect

    • A patient with testicular seminoma has the following tumour markers: LDH 1.3 times the reference levels, β-hCG 4500 mIU/ml and AFP 875 ng/ml. What's the serum tumour marker stage in this case?

      Your Answer: S3

      Correct Answer: S1

      Explanation:

      According to AJCC guidelines, the serum tumour marker staging is the following:

      S0: marker studies within normal limits

      S1: lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) less than 1.5 times the reference range, beta-human chorionic gonadotrophin (β-hCG) <5000 mIU/ml, and alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) <1000 ng/ml S2: LDH 1.5–10 times the reference range, β-hCG 5000–50,000 mIU/ml or AFP 1000–10,000 ng/ml S3: LDH greater than 10 times the reference range, β-hCG >50,000 mIU/ml or AFP >10,000 ng/ml.

      According to this, the patient’s tumour belongs to the S1 stage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Urology
      25.9
      Seconds

  • Question 2 - During an operation for a sigmoid colectomy the surgeon ligates the sigmoid arteries....

    Correct

    • During an operation for a sigmoid colectomy the surgeon ligates the sigmoid arteries. From which artery do the sigmoid arteries branch?

      Your Answer: Inferior mesenteric artery

      Explanation:

      Sigmoid arteries are branches of the inferior mesenteric artery (IMA). Sigmoid artery gives off branches that supply the lower descending colon, the iliac colon and the sigmoid colon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      736.2
      Seconds

  • Question 3 - Medulloblastoma usually occurs in children between 5 to 9 years old. Where does...

    Correct

    • Medulloblastoma usually occurs in children between 5 to 9 years old. Where does medulloblastoma commonly originate from?

      Your Answer: Cerebellar vermis

      Explanation:

      Medulloblastoma is the most common malignant brain tumour in children, accounting for 10-20% of primary CNS neoplasms. Most of the tumours originate in the cerebellar vermis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia
      • Pathology
      1114.8
      Seconds

  • Question 4 - Which of the following veins empties into the left renal vein? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following veins empties into the left renal vein?

      Your Answer: Right renal

      Correct Answer: Left suprarenal

      Explanation:

      The left suprarenal vein empties into the left renal vein which crosses the vertebral column to reach the inferior vena cava. The left renal vein also receives the left gonadal vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      38.5
      Seconds

  • Question 5 - The gynaecologist suspects that her patient has a cervical cancer. What particular test...

    Correct

    • The gynaecologist suspects that her patient has a cervical cancer. What particular test should be done on this patient to screen for cervical cancer?

      Your Answer: Pap smear

      Explanation:

      Worldwide, approximately 500,000 new cases of cervical cancer and 274,000 deaths are attributable to cervical cancer yearly. This makes cervical cancer the second most common cause of death from cancer in women. The mainstay of cervical cancer screening has been the Papanicolaou test (Pap smear).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia
      • Pathology
      16.9
      Seconds

  • Question 6 - A 70-year old man who is suspected to have a perforated colonic diverticulum...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year old man who is suspected to have a perforated colonic diverticulum is explored in theatre through a midline incision. This incision will be through the:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Linea alba

      Explanation:

      The linea alba is the point where this incision was made. It is a tendinous raphe in the midline of the abdomen extending between the xiphoid process and the symphysis pubis. It is placed between the medial borders of the recti and is formed by the blending of the aponeuroses of the external and internal obliques and transversi.

      The linea aspera is a vertical ridge on the posterior surface of the femur.

      The arcuate line is the inferior border of the posterior rectus sheath behind the rectus abdominis muscle.

      The semilunar line is the lateral margin of the rectus abdominis.

      The iliopectineal line is a line on the pelvic bones formed by the arcuate line of the ilium and the pectineal line of the pubis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 7 - A 66-year-old man complains of constant headaches. On physical examination, the only relevant...

    Incorrect

    • A 66-year-old man complains of constant headaches. On physical examination, the only relevant sign is a dark brown mole located on left his arm which has grown in size over the years and is itchy and painful. A MRI of the brain revealed a solitary lesion at the grey-white junction in the right frontal lobe, without ring enhancement. This lesion is most likely to be:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metastatic carcinoma

      Explanation:

      The location of the mass at the grey–white junction is typical of a metastasis. The most frequent types of metastatic brain tumours originate in the lung, skin, kidney, breast and colon. These tumour cells reach the brain via the bloodstream. This patient is likely to have skin cancer, which caused the metastatic brain tumour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 8 - A 20-year old cyclist falls off a speeding bike and fractures a structure...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year old cyclist falls off a speeding bike and fractures a structure that articulates with the tubercle of the 7th rib. Which structure is fractured?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transverse process of vertebra T7

      Explanation:

      A rib tubercle is a projection that is postero-inferior and lateral to the neck of a rib which articulates with the transverse process of the corresponding vertebra i.e. of the same number. Therefore, the tubercle of rib 7 articulates with the transverse process of T7 vertebra. The head of the rib 7, on the other hand, articulates with the 6th vertebra superiorly and the 7th vertebra inferiorly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 9 - The pudendal nerve is derived from? ...

    Incorrect

    • The pudendal nerve is derived from?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: S2, S3, S4

      Explanation:

      The pudendal nerve derives it’s fibres from the ventral branches of the second, third and fourth sacral nerves (S2,3,4)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 10 - During a procedure in the mediastinum, the surgeon accidentally injured a key structure...

    Incorrect

    • During a procedure in the mediastinum, the surgeon accidentally injured a key structure that lies immediately anterior to the thoracic duct. Which structure is likely to be injured?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oesophagus

      Explanation:

      In the mid-thorax, the azygos vein, thoracic duct and aorta (in this order from right to the left) are all located posterior to the oesophagus. The superior vena cava, left internal jugular vein and trachea are not found in the mid thorax.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 11 - What is a major source of fuel being oxidised by the skeletal muscles...

    Incorrect

    • What is a major source of fuel being oxidised by the skeletal muscles of a man who has undergone starvation for 7 days?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serum fatty acids

      Explanation:

      Starvation is the most extreme form of malnutrition. Prolonged starvation can lead to permanent organ damage and can be fatal. Starved individuals eventually lose significant fat and muscle mass as the body uses these for energy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 12 - What is the normal duration of the ST segment? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the normal duration of the ST segment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0.08 s

      Explanation:

      The ST segment lies between the QRS complex and the T-wave. The normal duration of the ST segment is 0.08 s. ST-segment elevation or depression may indicate myocardial ischaemia or infarction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 13 - A 25 year old male patient who had sustained a stab wound in...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year old male patient who had sustained a stab wound in the middle of the posterior aspect of the left thigh, was discharged from hospital after dressing and antibiotic prophylaxis. Later on the patient developed bleeding through the wound and upon review, the source was discovered to be an artery that is the direct source of the medial and lateral circumflex arteries. Which is this artery that was injured?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Profunda femoris artery

      Explanation:

      The medial and lateral circumflex arteries are direct branches of the Profunda femoris artery otherwise also known as the deep artery of the thigh. The Profunda femoris artery arises from the femoral artery just below the inguinal ligament (approximately 2-5cm below it).

      The following are the branches of the deep artery of the thigh:

      Lateral circumflex femoral artery

      Medial circumflex femoral artery

      Perforating arteries

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 14 - The glossopharyngeal nerve provides the parasympathetic innervation of the: ...

    Incorrect

    • The glossopharyngeal nerve provides the parasympathetic innervation of the:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Parotid salivary gland

      Explanation:

      The glossopharyngeal nerve provides parasympathetic innervation for the parotid salivary gland via the auriculotemporal nerve. The facial nerve supplies the parasympathetic innervation of the lacrimal, nasal, sublingual and submandibular glands.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck; Neurology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 15 - A 15 month old boy has a history of repeated bacterial pneumonia, failure...

    Incorrect

    • A 15 month old boy has a history of repeated bacterial pneumonia, failure to thrive and a sputum culture positive for H.influenzea and S.pneumoniae. There is no history of congenital anomalies. He is most likely suffering from?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: X-linked agammaglobulinemia

      Explanation:

      Recurrent bacterial infections may be due to lack of B-cell function, consequently resulting in a lack of gamma globulins production. Once the maternal antibodies have depleted, the disease manifests with greater severity and is called x-linked agammaglobulinemia also known as ‘X-linked hypogammaglobulinemia’, ‘XLA’ or ‘Bruton-type agammaglobulinemia. it is a rare x linked genetic disorder that compromises the bodies ability to fight infections.

      Acute leukaemia causes immunodeficiency but not so specific.

      DiGeorge syndrome is due to lack of T cell function.

      Aplastic anaemia and EBV infection does not cause immunodeficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology; Respiratory
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 16 - The primary motor cortex is located in the: ...

    Incorrect

    • The primary motor cortex is located in the:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Precentral gyrus

      Explanation:

      The primary motor cortex is located in the dorsal part of the precentral gyrus and the anterior bank of the central sulcus. The precentral gyrus lies anterior to the postcentral gyrus and is separated from it by a central sulcus. Its anterior border is the precentral sulcus, while inferiorly it borders to the lateral fissure (Sylvian fissure).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 17 - Which of these structures does NOT pass posterior to the medial malleolus? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these structures does NOT pass posterior to the medial malleolus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Saphenous vein

      Explanation:

      The saphenous vein passes anterior to the medial malleolus. The structures passing posterior, from nearest to furthest include: tibial, posterior tendon, flexor digitorum longus tendon, posterior tibial artery, posterior tibial vein, posterior tibial nerve and the flexor hallucis longus tendon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 18 - A 20-year old boy presented with low grade fever, night sweats and weakness...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year old boy presented with low grade fever, night sweats and weakness over two months. On examination, he had multiple, non-tender, cervical, supraclavicular and axillary adenopathy. Microscopy of lymph node biopsy showed the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells. He is likely suffering from:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hodgkin’s lymphoma

      Explanation:

      Hodgkin’s lymphoma is a disease characterized by malignant proliferation of cells of the lymphoreticular system. It can be localized or disseminated, and can involve the nodes, spleen, liver and marrow. Symptoms of the disease include non-tender lymphadenopathy, fever, night sweats, weight loss, itching and hepatosplenomegaly. Histologically, the involved nodes show the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells, which are large, binucleated cells, in a heterogenous cellular infiltrate of histiocytes, lymphocytes, monocytes, plasma cells and eosinophils.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 19 - A biopsy taken from the respiratory passage of a 37 year old male,...

    Incorrect

    • A biopsy taken from the respiratory passage of a 37 year old male, chronic smoker will mostly likely show which cellular adaptation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stratified squamous metaplasia

      Explanation:

      Metaplasia is a change in the cell type caused in part due to an extrinsic stress on the organ. It involves a change in the surface epithelium from one cell type to the another, most commonly squamous to columnar. This is a reversible process, and removal of the stress should theoretically reverse the surface epithelium back to normal morphology. Respiratory tract metaplasia is a classic example, in which the normal pseudostratified columnar epithelium is replaced by stratified squamous epithelium to better cope with the stress. Under continuous stress metaplasia can progress to dysplasia which is a disordered growth of cells eventually leading to the development of carcinoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing; Respiratory
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 20 - A 7-month-old abandoned baby with congenital non-communicating hydrocephalus is hosted by a clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-month-old abandoned baby with congenital non-communicating hydrocephalus is hosted by a clinic at its new-born hostel. A CT scan of the baby's brain reveals what might be a blockage of the ventricular system between the third and the fourth ventricles. Which of the following is the most likely blocked structure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cerebral aqueduct

      Explanation:

      The drainage of cerebral spinal fluid from the third ventricle to the fourth ventricle is carried out by the cerebral aqueduct. The cerebral aqueduct is the narrowest passageway in the entire ventricular system and thus forms the most common site of blockage of flow of cerebrospinal fluid. The interventricular foramen allows passage of CSF to the third ventricle. The foramen of Luschka and Magendie are located on the fourth ventricle and allow passage of CSF to the subarachnoid space from the ventricular system. The pontine cistern is a space located on the ventral aspect of the pons. The cisterna magna is an opening on the subarachnoid space between the pia matter and the arachnoid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 21 - What is the primary function of the Kupffer cells found in the liver?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the primary function of the Kupffer cells found in the liver?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Recycling of old red blood cells

      Explanation:

      Kupffer cells found in the liver are part of the monocyte-reticular system. They are specialised macrophages and primarily function to recycle old and damaged RBCs. The RBCs are phagocytosed and the haemoglobin is broken down into haem and globin. The haem is further broken down into iron that is recycled and bilirubin that is conjugated with glucuronic acid and excreted in the bile.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology; Hepatobiliary
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 22 - A 26-year-old female sought consultation due to excessive vaginal discharge. Vaginal smear showed...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old female sought consultation due to excessive vaginal discharge. Vaginal smear showed numerous bacilli under the microscope. The organism was non-pathogenic. What is the most likely organism:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lactobacillus species

      Explanation:

      Lactobacillus is a Gram-positive facultative bacteria. It is commonly present in the vagina and the gastrointestinal tract. Colonization of Lactobacillus is usually benign and it makes up a small portion of the gastrointestinal flora.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 23 - A histopathological analysis of a specimen showed loss of individual cell structure with...

    Incorrect

    • A histopathological analysis of a specimen showed loss of individual cell structure with karyorrhexis and fragmentation. The overall integrity of the tissue structure is preserved. This is typical of which of the following pathologies?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Viral hepatitis

      Explanation:

      Viral infections will cause necrosis of the hepatocytes with characteristic changes of karyorrhexis and cell fragmentation.

      Brown atrophy of the heart is due to accumulation of lipofuscin in the myocardium.

      Tissue destruction associated with transplant rejection leads to widespread loss of structural integrity.

      Single cell necrosis is not characteristically seen in chronic alcoholic liver.

      Barbiturate overdose will result in hypertrophy of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum.

      Carcinoma insitu will cause dysplastic cells without the overall structural integrity being disrupted.

      Atrophy is due to apoptosis with ordered cellular fragmentation and phagocytosis and will not induce an inflammatory process unlike necrosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 24 - The chest X-ray of a 72 year old patient reveals the presence of...

    Incorrect

    • The chest X-ray of a 72 year old patient reveals the presence of a round lesion containing an air-fluid level in the left lung. These findings are most probably suggestive of:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lung abscess

      Explanation:

      Lung abscesses are collections of pus within the lung that arise most commonly as a complication of aspiration pneumonia caused by oral anaerobes. Older patients are more at risk due to poor oral hygiene, gingivitis an inability to handle their oral secretions due to other diseases. Chest X-ray most commonly reveals the appearance of an irregularly shaped cavity with an air-fluid level.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 25 - The vagus nerve passes through which of the following foramen? ...

    Incorrect

    • The vagus nerve passes through which of the following foramen?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Jugular foramen

      Explanation:

      The jugular foramen is a large foramen in the base of the skull. It is located behind the carotid canal and is formed in front by the petrous portion of the temporal bone, and behind by the occipital bone. Cranial nerves IX, X, and XI and the internal jugular vein pass through the jugular foramen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 26 - Which of the following structure forms the floor of the posterior triangle of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following structure forms the floor of the posterior triangle of the neck:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prevertebral fascia

      Explanation:

      The posterior triangle (or lateral cervical region) is a region of the neck which has the following boundaries:
      Apex: Union of the sternocleidomastoid and the trapezius muscles at the superior nuchal line of the occipital bone
      Anterior: Posterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle
      Posterior: Anterior border of the trapezius
      Base: Middle one third of the clavicle
      Roof: Investing layer of the deep cervical fascia
      Floor: The anterolateral portion of prevertebral fascia

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 27 - Which of the following is NOT a Gram-negative rod? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT a Gram-negative rod?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clostridium tetani

      Explanation:

      Gram-positive rods include Clostridia, Listeria and diphtheroids.

      Gram-negative rods include Escherichia coli, Klebsiella, Yersinia, Haemohilus, Pseudomonas, Shigella, Legionella, proteus and Salmonella

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 28 - Which of the following is the most abundant WBC seen in a smear...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the most abundant WBC seen in a smear from a healthy person.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Neutrophils

      Explanation:

      neutrophils are the most abundant cell type of the WBC. These phagocytes are found normally in the blood and increase in number are seen during an acute inflammation. These the percentages of WBC in blood Neutrophils: 40 to 60%

      Lymphocytes: 20 to 40%

      Monocytes: 2 to 8%

      Eosinophils: 1 to 4%

      Basophils: 0.5 to 1%

      Band (young neutrophil): 0 to 3%. eosinophils, basophils, neutrophils are known as granulocytes and monocytes and lymphocytes as agranulocytes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 29 - An anatomy instructor is giving a demonstration of the right lung. Which of...

    Incorrect

    • An anatomy instructor is giving a demonstration of the right lung. Which of the statements about the right lung made by the demonstrator is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Its upper lobar bronchus lies behind and above the right pulmonary artery

      Explanation:

      The root of the lungs on both sides are similar in that the pulmonary veins are anterior and inferior while the bronchus is posterior. However, on the right side, the pulmonary arteries are anterior to the bronchus while on the left side the pulmonary arteries are superior to the bronchus. The lingual is only found on the left lung. The mediastinum is the space in the thorax between the two pleural sacs and does not contain any lung. The right lung, having three lobes, is slightly larger than the left lung. On both sides, the phrenic nerves passes in front of the root of the lung.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 30 - Following a posterolateral thoracotomy, a surgeon may wish to infiltrate local anaesthetic above...

    Incorrect

    • Following a posterolateral thoracotomy, a surgeon may wish to infiltrate local anaesthetic above and below the incision to block the nerves supplying the thoracic wall. This wall is innervated by?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intercostal nerves

      Explanation:

      Intercostal nerves are the ventral primary rami of spinal nerves T1–T11. They give branches which supply the thoracic wall.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Pathology (2/3) 67%
Urology (0/1) 0%
Abdomen (1/2) 50%
Anatomy (1/2) 50%
Neoplasia (2/2) 100%
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