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Question 1
Correct
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What is the acceptable level of estimated Glomerular Filtration Rate (eGFR) for TDF use in adults and adolescents?
Your Answer: > 50 mL/min/1.73m2
Explanation:The estimated Glomerular Filtration Rate (eGFR) is a measure of how well the kidneys are functioning. Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate (TDF) is a medication used to treat HIV and hepatitis B, but it can be harmful to the kidneys if they are not functioning properly. Therefore, it is important to monitor a patient’s eGFR before starting TDF therapy.
An eGFR using the Modification of Diet in Renal Disease (MDRD) equation of > 50 mL/min/1.73m2 is considered an acceptable level for TDF use in adults and adolescents. This level indicates that the kidneys are functioning well enough to safely metabolize and excrete the medication without causing harm.
The other options provided in the question, such as > 80 mL/min/1.73 m2, < 10 and < 16 years of age, < 85 μmol/L, and > 120 IU/L, are not directly related to the acceptable eGFR level for TDF use. It is important to follow the specific guidelines and recommendations for eGFR levels when considering TDF therapy to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 2
Correct
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Regarding PEP, what is the recommended regimen for pregnant healthcare workers in the first trimester who get a high-risk needle stick?
Your Answer: TLD
Explanation:Pregnant healthcare workers who experience a high-risk needle stick in the first trimester are recommended to be put on the TLD regimen for PEP. This regimen consists of tenofovir (TDF), lamivudine (3TC), and dolutegravir (DTG). This recommendation is based on the National Department of Health (NDOH), which suggests that this combination is safe and effective for pregnant women in their first trimester.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 3
Correct
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Which of the following immunological components is deficient in a 5-year-old HIV positive child who develops Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia?
Your Answer: T cells
Explanation:In this scenario, the 5-year-old HIV positive child who develops Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia is likely deficient in T cells. T cells, specifically CD4 lymphocytes or helper T cells, play a crucial role in the immune response against infections. In patients with HIV, the virus targets and destroys CD4 cells, leading to a weakened immune system and increased susceptibility to opportunistic infections like Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia.
The other immunological components listed in the question, such as B cells, complement, IgM, and IgA, are not directly associated with the increased risk of Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia in HIV positive individuals. While B cells produce antibodies and IgM and IgA are types of antibodies, the deficiency in T cells is the primary factor contributing to the development of opportunistic infections in HIV patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 10 day old infant present with signs of disseminated Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) infection. Her mother had her first episode of HSV three weeks prior to delivery. The infant was treated with antivirals upon clinical suspicion. What is the case fatality rate of infants who develop disseminated HSV despite treatment?
Your Answer: 10%
Correct Answer: 30%
Explanation:Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) infection in neonates can be a serious and life-threatening condition, especially when it presents as disseminated infection. In this case, the infant was treated with antivirals upon clinical suspicion, which is crucial in improving outcomes.
The case fatality rate of infants who develop disseminated HSV despite treatment is 0.3, or 30%. This means that even with treatment, there is still a significant risk of mortality for these infants. However, without treatment, the case fatality rate for disseminated HSV infection is much higher at 85%.
It is important for healthcare providers to be vigilant for signs of HSV infection in neonates, especially in cases where the mother has a history of HSV or had a recent outbreak before delivery. Early recognition and prompt treatment with antivirals can greatly improve the chances of survival for these infants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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What is the recommended duration of TB preventive therapy (TPT) for pregnant women?
Your Answer: 12 months
Correct Answer: 6 months
Explanation:TB preventive therapy (TPT) is recommended for pregnant women who are at high risk of developing active TB, as it can help prevent the disease from developing.
The recommended duration of TPT for pregnant women is 6 months. This duration is based on research and clinical trials that have shown that a 6-month course of TPT is effective in reducing the risk of developing active TB in pregnant women. Additionally, a 6-month course is generally well-tolerated and safe for both the mother and the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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For a patient newly diagnosed with HIV and a CD4 count below 50, presenting with both TBM and cryptococcal meningitis, in what order should treatment be initiated?
Your Answer: Treat TBM first.
Correct Answer: Treat both simultaneously and initiate ART after 6-8 weeks.
Explanation:When a patient is diagnosed with both TBM and cryptococcal meningitis, it is important to initiate treatment promptly to prevent further complications and improve outcomes. Both conditions are serious infections that require immediate attention.
In this scenario, the best approach would be to treat both conditions simultaneously. There is no specific guideline indicating which infection should be treated first, but it is common practice to start treatment for both infections at the same time. This approach ensures that both infections are addressed promptly and effectively.
After initiating treatment for TBM and cryptococcal meningitis, it is recommended to wait for 6-8 weeks before starting antiretroviral therapy (ART). This waiting period allows for the initial treatment of the infections to take effect and stabilize the patient before introducing ART. Starting ART too soon can potentially worsen the symptoms of the infections or lead to complications.
Overall, the priority should be to treat both TBM and cryptococcal meningitis simultaneously and then initiate ART after the initial treatment has had time to work. This approach can help improve the patient’s overall health and reduce the risk of complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Evaluation
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Question 7
Correct
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Which of the following is NOT a transmission route for HIV?
Your Answer: Casual contact
Explanation:HIV is a virus that is primarily transmitted through specific routes, including sexual contact, blood transfusion, sharing needles, and vertical transmission from mother to child. Casual contact, such as hugging, kissing, or sharing food or drinks, does not transmit HIV. This is because the virus is not spread through saliva, sweat, tears, or casual contact with an infected person. It is important to understand the transmission routes of HIV in order to prevent the spread of the virus and protect oneself and others from infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Evaluation
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Question 8
Correct
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What is the likely clinical diagnosis for the 30-year-old woman presenting with a 3-week history of a dry cough and fatigue, who is HIV positive with a CD4 count of 25 cells/ul and is not on ART?
Your Answer: Pneumocystis Pneumonia
Explanation:Pneumocystis Pneumonia is a common opportunistic infection in individuals with HIV, particularly those with low CD4 counts. The symptoms of Pneumocystis Pneumonia include a dry cough, shortness of breath, fatigue, and fever. The fact that the patient has a low CD4 count of 25 cells/ul indicates severe immunosuppression, putting her at high risk for opportunistic infections like Pneumocystis Pneumonia. Additionally, the 3-week history of symptoms is consistent with the typical progression of Pneumocystis Pneumonia in HIV-positive individuals.
It is important for this patient to be promptly diagnosed and treated for Pneumocystis Pneumonia, as it can be a life-threatening infection in individuals with compromised immune systems. Treatment typically involves antibiotics such as trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) and corticosteroids. Additionally, initiation of antiretroviral therapy (ART) is crucial to improve the patient’s immune function and prevent future opportunistic infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Evaluation
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Question 9
Correct
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A 19-year-old male newly diagnosed with HIV is initiated on highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART).
He was previously well and had no past medical or psychiatric history. A few days after starting the medication, he develops poor sleep and nightmares, with low mood and suicidal ideation.
Which antiretroviral agent is most probably responsible for the side effects mentioned?Your Answer: Efavirenz
Explanation:This question is testing the candidate’s knowledge of the side effects of different antiretroviral agents used in the treatment of HIV. In this case, the patient developed poor sleep, nightmares, low mood, and suicidal ideation shortly after starting HAART, indicating a possible psychiatric side effect of one of the medications.
The correct answer is Efavirenz, which is a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor known to cause neuropsychiatric side effects, such as insomnia, vivid dreams, depression, and suicidal ideation. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these potential side effects and monitor patients closely, especially those without a history of mental health issues.
The other options provided in the question (Emtricitabine, Lamivudine, Rilpivirine, and Tenofovir) are also commonly used antiretroviral agents but are not typically associated with the psychiatric side effects described in the case. Emtricitabine and Lamivudine are nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors, Rilpivirine is a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor, and Tenofovir is a nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor. Each of these medications has its own set of potential side effects, but in this case, the symptoms described are most likely due to Efavirenz.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 10
Correct
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Which of the following best describe N. Meningitidis?
Your Answer: Gram negative cocci
Explanation:Neisseria meningitidis is a gram negative bacterium that is commonly referred to as meningococcus. This bacterium is known for causing meningitis and other forms of meningococcal disease, such as meningococcaemia, which is a severe and life-threatening form of sepsis.
The bacterium is classified as a coccus because of its round shape, and more specifically, as a diplococcus because it tends to form pairs. This characteristic can be seen under a microscope when the bacteria are stained and observed.
Among the options provided, the best description for Neisseria meningitidis would be Gram negative cocci, as it accurately reflects the shape and staining characteristics of this bacterium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 53-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 4-day history of left-sided scrotal pain and swelling with associated dysuria and increased frequency. He has had unprotected sexual intercourse with his wife, who uses hormonal contraception and is his only partner. The patient has a past medical history of type 2 diabetes.
On examination, the left hemiscrotum is erythematosus and diffusely swollen. Elevating the testis alleviates the pain.
What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this patient, considering the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Arrange mid-stream urine sample for microscopy and culture
Explanation:Epididymo-orchitis is likely caused by enteric organisms, such as E. coli, in individuals with a low risk of sexually-transmitted infections (STIs), such as married men in their 50s with a single long-term partner. Therefore, the most appropriate next step would be to arrange a mid-stream urine sample for microscopy and culture to guide antibiotic treatment. This patient has subacute onset of testicular pain and swelling with associated dysuria, and his pain is relieved when elevating the testis (positive Prehn’s sign), making a diagnosis of testicular torsion less likely. A urethral swab sample for microscopy and culture is no longer the initial investigation of choice, and a urine sample for nucleic acid amplification tests (NAAT) is not appropriate in this case. Urgent referral for a same-day testicular ultrasound scan is also not necessary as testicular torsion is rare in patients over 35 years of age and does not present with dysuria.
Epididymo-orchitis is a condition where the epididymis and/or testes become infected, leading to pain and swelling. It is commonly caused by infections spreading from the genital tract or bladder, with Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae being the usual culprits in sexually active younger adults, while E. coli is more commonly seen in older adults with a low-risk sexual history. Symptoms include unilateral testicular pain and swelling, with urethral discharge sometimes present. Testicular torsion, which can cause ischaemia of the testicle, is an important differential diagnosis and needs to be excluded urgently, especially in younger patients with severe pain and an acute onset.
Investigations are guided by the patient’s age, with sexually transmitted infections being assessed in younger adults and a mid-stream urine (MSU) being sent for microscopy and culture in older adults with a low-risk sexual history. Management guidelines from the British Association for Sexual Health and HIV (BASHH) recommend ceftriaxone 500 mg intramuscularly as a single dose, plus doxycycline 100 mg orally twice daily for 10-14 days if the organism causing the infection is unknown. Further investigations are recommended after treatment to rule out any underlying structural abnormalities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 64-year-old woman with ankylosing spondylitis presents with cough, weight loss and tiredness. Her chest x-ray shows longstanding upper lobe fibrosis. Three sputum tests stain positive for acid fast bacilli (AFB) but are consistently negative for Mycobacterium tuberculosis on culture.
Which of the following is the most likely causative agent?Your Answer: Mycobacterium avium intracellulare complex
Explanation:The patient in this case is a 64-year-old woman with ankylosing spondylitis who presents with cough, weight loss, and tiredness. Her chest x-ray shows longstanding upper lobe fibrosis, and three sputum tests stain positive for acid fast bacilli (AFB) but are consistently negative for Mycobacterium tuberculosis on culture.
The most likely causative agent in this case is Mycobacterium avium intracellulare complex (MAC). Pulmonary MAC infection in immunocompetent hosts typically presents with symptoms such as cough, sputum production, weight loss, fever, lethargy, and night sweats. The onset of symptoms is usually insidious.
In patients suspected of having pulmonary MAC infection, diagnostic testing includes AFB staining and culture of sputum specimens. The ATS/IDSA guidelines provide criteria for establishing a diagnosis of nontuberculous mycobacterial lung disease, which includes clinical, radiographic, and bacteriologic criteria.
Clinical criteria for pulmonary MAC infection include pulmonary signs and symptoms such as cough, fatigue, weight loss, and dyspnea, as well as the appropriate exclusion of other diseases like carcinoma and tuberculosis. Sputum AFB stains are typically positive for MAC in patients with pulmonary MAC infection, and mycobacterial cultures can confirm the presence of MAC in about 1-2 weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old boy with fever and malaise for 2 days recently developed bloody diarrhoea. What is the most probable aetiology?
Your Answer: Giardiasis
Correct Answer: Escherichia coli 0157
Explanation:The most probable etiology for the 6-year-old boy’s symptoms of fever, malaise, and bloody diarrhea is Escherichia coli 0157. This particular strain of E. coli, known as enterohemorrhagic verotoxin-producing E. coli, is known to cause bloody diarrhea and can lead to complications such as hemolytic uremic syndrome.
Crohn’s disease is unlikely in this case as it typically presents with chronic symptoms rather than an acute onset. Polio and giardiasis are also less likely as they typically present with non-bloody diarrhea.
Overall, given the symptoms described, E. coli 0157 is the most probable cause of the boy’s illness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements about hepatitis C treatment in people living with HIV is true?
Your Answer: Clinical stabilization of HIV disease with ART is not necessary before starting treatment for hepatitis C.
Correct Answer: Newer all-oral direct-acting antiviral HCV regimens (DAAs) have fewer drug-drug interactions than earlier interferon-based regimens.
Explanation:Hepatitis C treatment in people living with HIV is a complex issue that requires careful consideration of various factors. One of the true statements about hepatitis C treatment in people living with HIV is that newer all-oral direct-acting antiviral HCV regimens (DAAs) have fewer drug-drug interactions than earlier interferon-based regimens. This is important because people living with HIV often take multiple medications, and minimizing drug interactions is crucial to avoid potential complications and ensure the effectiveness of treatment. By using newer DAAs, healthcare providers can more easily manage drug interactions and provide safer and more effective treatment for HIV/HCV coinfected patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 15
Correct
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What is the recommended management approach for a client on ART with a VL ≥ 1000 c/mL and adherence over 80% according to the 2023 ART Clinical Guidelines?
Your Answer: Focus on improved adherence before any regimen changes
Explanation:For clients on ART with a viral load (VL) ≥ 1000 c/mL and adherence over 80%, the guidelines recommend focusing on improved adherence before considering any changes to the regimen. The rationale is that resistance to Dolutegravir (DTG), a common component in ART regimens, is very uncommon, so addressing adherence issues is crucial for achieving viral suppression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Evaluation
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Why is monitoring weight and growth important for clients on ART?
Your Answer: To determine medication dosage adjustments
Correct Answer: To evaluate treatment response
Explanation:Monitoring weight and growth is important for clients on antiretroviral therapy (ART) for several reasons. Firstly, it helps assess adherence to treatment. Changes in weight can indicate whether a client is consistently taking their medication as prescribed.
Secondly, monitoring weight and growth can help detect drug toxicity. Some antiretroviral medications can have side effects that impact weight and growth, so regular monitoring can help identify any potential issues early on.
Additionally, monitoring weight and growth is crucial for evaluating treatment response. Changes in weight can indicate how well the ART is working to control the HIV infection and improve overall health.
Furthermore, monitoring weight and growth can help screen for opportunistic infections. Clients with HIV are at increased risk for infections, and changes in weight can be a sign of an underlying infection that needs to be addressed.
Lastly, monitoring weight and growth can help determine if medication dosage adjustments are needed. Changes in weight can impact how medications are metabolized in the body, so regular monitoring can help ensure clients are receiving the appropriate dosage of their ART.
In conclusion, monitoring weight and growth is a vital component of care for clients on ART as it helps assess adherence, detect toxicity, evaluate treatment response, screen for infections, and determine medication dosage adjustments.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Evaluation
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Question 17
Incorrect
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How is WHO clinical staging used in monitoring clients on ART?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: To evaluate treatment response and disease progression
Explanation:WHO clinical staging is a standardized system used to assess the clinical status of individuals living with HIV/AIDS. It categorizes patients into different stages based on the presence of specific signs and symptoms related to HIV infection. This staging system is important in monitoring clients on antiretroviral therapy (ART) as it helps healthcare providers evaluate treatment response and disease progression.
The stages in the WHO clinical staging system provide valuable information on the severity of the disease and help guide healthcare providers in making decisions regarding treatment. By regularly assessing clients using the WHO clinical staging system, healthcare providers can track changes in their clinical status over time and make adjustments to their treatment plan as needed.
In addition to evaluating treatment response and disease progression, WHO clinical staging can also be used to determine eligibility for ART initiation, guide ART regimen selection, and assess adherence to treatment. By incorporating WHO clinical staging into routine monitoring of clients on ART, healthcare providers can ensure that patients are receiving the appropriate care and support to effectively manage their HIV infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Evaluation
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Which antiretroviral therapy (ART) drugs are recommended for the treatment of chronic hepatitis B infection in people living with HIV?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: TDF with 3TC (or FTC)
Explanation:Chronic hepatitis B infection is a common co-infection in people living with HIV, as both viruses can be transmitted through similar routes. Antiretroviral therapy (ART) drugs that are effective against both HIV and hepatitis B are recommended for the treatment of individuals with this co-infection.
Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate (TDF) with either lamivudine (3TC) or emtricitabine (FTC) are recommended as first-line treatment for chronic hepatitis B infection in people living with HIV. These drugs have been shown to effectively suppress both viruses and are generally well-tolerated.
Other options for treatment include TDF with 3TC (or FTC) or TDF with 3TC (or FTC) in combination with other antiretroviral drugs. Zidovudine (AZT) with lamivudine (3TC) is not typically recommended for the treatment of chronic hepatitis B infection in people living with HIV, as it may not be as effective against hepatitis B as the other recommended drug combinations.
It is important for individuals with HIV and chronic hepatitis B infection to work closely with their healthcare provider to determine the best treatment regimen for their specific needs and to monitor their progress regularly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Which one of the following diseases is correctly matched with the animal reservoir:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Leptospirosis = Rats
Explanation:Creutzfeldt–Jakob disease = consuming beef or beef products.
Brucellosis = ingestion of unpasteurized milk or undercooked meat from infected animals.
Leptospirosis is transmitted by both wild and domestic animals. The most common animals that spread the disease are rodents.
Lyme disease is transmitted to humans by the bite of infected ticks of the Ixodes genus.
Leishmaniasis is a disease caused by protozoan parasites of the genus Leishmania and spread by the bite of certain types of sandflies. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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What is the recommended dose of Zidovudine (AZT) for infants aged birth to 6 weeks and weighing between 2.0 to 2.49 kg?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1.5 ml (15 mg) once daily
Explanation:Zidovudine (AZT) is a medication commonly used to prevent mother-to-child transmission of HIV. In infants aged birth to 6 weeks and weighing between 2.0 to 2.49 kg, the recommended dose of Zidovudine is 1.5 ml (15 mg) twice daily. This dosage is based on the weight of the infant and is important to ensure the medication is effective and safe for the child.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old male returning from an African country, presented with lower abdominal pain and haematuria. Bladder calcifications were detected on abdominal x-ray. Which of the following is the most probable cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Schistosoma haematobium
Explanation:The most probable cause of the bladder calcifications in this 40-year-old male returning from an African country with lower abdominal pain and hematuria is Schistosoma haematobium. This parasite is known to cause urinary tract disease, specifically affecting the bladder and urinary tract. The presence of bladder calcifications on abdominal x-ray is a common finding in individuals infected with Schistosoma haematobium.
Schistosoma mansoni, on the other hand, primarily affects the intestinal tract and liver, causing symptoms such as diarrhea, abdominal pain, and liver enlargement. Sarcoidosis is a systemic inflammatory disease that can affect multiple organs, but it does not typically cause bladder calcifications. Leishmaniasis is a parasitic disease transmitted by sandflies and primarily affects the skin, mucous membranes, and internal organs, but it does not cause bladder calcifications. TB (tuberculosis) is a bacterial infection that primarily affects the lungs, but it can also affect other organs such as the kidneys and bones, and it does not typically cause bladder calcifications.
Therefore, based on the presentation of lower abdominal pain, hematuria, and bladder calcifications on abdominal x-ray in a patient returning from an African country, the most probable cause is Schistosoma haematobium infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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What is the recommended duration of TB preventive therapy (TPT) in pregnant women with a CD4 count ≤ 350 cells/μL?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 12 months
Explanation:Pregnant women with a CD4 count ≤ 350 cells/μL are considered to be at higher risk for developing active tuberculosis (TB) due to their compromised immune system. Therefore, it is recommended that these women receive TB preventive therapy (TPT) to reduce their risk of developing TB during pregnancy.
The recommended duration of TPT for pregnant women with a CD4 count ≤ 350 cells/μL is 12 months. This duration is based on clinical studies and guidelines that have shown that a 12-month course of TPT is effective in reducing the risk of developing active TB in this population.
It is important for pregnant women with a CD4 count ≤ 350 cells/μL to adhere to the full 12-month course of TPT to ensure maximum protection against TB. Additionally, healthcare providers should closely monitor these women throughout their pregnancy to ensure that they are responding well to the TPT and to address any potential side effects or complications that may arise.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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What action should be taken if a client presents symptoms of cough, night sweats, fever, or recent weight loss during the TB symptom screen?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Investigate for TB before initiating ART
Explanation:When a client presents symptoms of cough, night sweats, fever, or recent weight loss during a TB symptom screen, it is important to investigate for TB before initiating ART (antiretroviral therapy). This is because TB can be a serious co-infection in individuals with HIV, and it is crucial to diagnose and treat TB before starting ART to prevent potential complications.
Initiating ART without addressing TB first can lead to worsening of TB symptoms, drug interactions between TB and HIV medications, and potential immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome (IRIS). Therefore, it is recommended to conduct further testing, such as a TB GeneXpert test, to confirm the presence of TB before starting ART.
By investigating for TB before initiating ART, healthcare providers can ensure that the client receives appropriate treatment for both HIV and TB, leading to better outcomes and improved overall health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Evaluation
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Question 24
Incorrect
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An 18-month-old girl with HIV returns to the clinic with her mother for ongoing care. She has no HIV-related symptoms, and the mother has regularly been giving her antiretroviral therapy medications. Her weight and height have been at roughly the 50th percentile since birth. The child has not had any HIV-related opportunistic illnesses. The physical examination is normal, and laboratory studies show a CD4 count of 652 cells/mm3, CD4 percentage of 25%, and an HIV RNA level below the limit of detection.
According to the 2014 HIV revised case definition, what would be the HIV classification for this 18-month-old girl?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stage 2
Explanation:The 2014 revised HIV surveillance case definition takes into account all age groups and classifies persons with HIV infection into one of five stages: 0, 1, 2, 3, or unknown. Stage 0 indicates early HIV infection based on a negative or indeterminate HIV test within 6 months of a confirmed positive HIV test result. For children, stages 1, 2, and 3 are determined by the age-specific CD4 cell count (Table 1) or the presence of a stage 3-defining opportunistic illness. Note the CD4 classification is based on the absolute CD4 count—the CD4 percentage is only considered if the absolute CD4 count is missing.
The immunologic classification for children under age 6 differs significantly from that used for adults, mainly because young children typically have CD4 counts that are much higher than those seen in adults. For example, among children younger than 12 months of age who do not have HIV infection, most will have a CD4 count of at least 1500 cells/mm3. The CD4 count normally declines during the first few years of life. It is conceptually very important to understand that children with HIV infection, especially very young children, can develop HIV-related opportunistic infections at higher CD4 counts than typically seen with adults. The HIV classification of this asymptomatic 18-month-old girl with an absolute CD4 cell count of 942 cells/mm3 and no history of an AIDS-defining opportunistic illness would be stage 2.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Evaluation
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Question 25
Incorrect
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What is the drug of choice for PrEP on-demand dosing specifically for MSM and transgender women?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: TDF/FTC 2-24 hours before sex.
Explanation:PrEP, or pre-exposure prophylaxis, is a medication taken by individuals who are at high risk of contracting HIV to prevent infection. On-demand dosing refers to taking PrEP only around the time of potential exposure to HIV, rather than taking it daily.
The drug of choice for on-demand dosing specifically for MSM (men who have sex with men) and transgender women is TDF/FTC (tenofovir disoproxil fumarate/emtricitabine) taken 2-24 hours before sex. This combination of drugs has been shown to be highly effective in preventing HIV transmission when taken in this manner.
The HIVCS 2020 update recommends a 2:1:1 strategy with TDF/FTC for MSM and transgender women, meaning that individuals should take two pills 2-24 hours before sex, and then continue with one pill daily for the next two days. This strategy has been found to be effective in reducing the risk of HIV transmission in these populations.
It is important for individuals considering on-demand PrEP dosing to consult with a healthcare provider to determine the best regimen for their specific needs and circumstances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Which intervention is NOT recommended to support adherence to ART and retention in care?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Encouraging clients to discontinue ART during periods of travel
Explanation:Adherence to antiretroviral therapy (ART) is crucial for the successful management of HIV/AIDS. Encouraging clients to discontinue ART during periods of travel is not recommended as it can lead to treatment interruptions and decreased viral suppression. This can result in the development of drug resistance and compromised immune function.
On the other hand, interventions such as mobile phone reminders, home-based care, community-based adherence clubs, and peer support groups have been shown to be effective in supporting adherence to ART and retention in care. Mobile phone reminders can help clients remember to take their medication on time, while home-based care can provide support and monitoring in a familiar environment. Community-based adherence clubs and peer support groups offer social support and a sense of belonging, which can motivate clients to stay on track with their treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Counselling
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Question 27
Incorrect
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What is the CD4 count threshold for an increased risk of opportunistic infections?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:The CD4 count is a measure of the number of CD4 T cells in a person’s blood, which are a type of white blood cell that plays a crucial role in the immune system. A CD4 count below 200/mcL is considered a significant threshold because it indicates severe immunosuppression and a weakened immune system.
When the CD4 count drops below 200/mcL, the risk of opportunistic infections significantly increases. Opportunistic infections are caused by pathogens that typically do not cause illness in individuals with a healthy immune system, but can take advantage of a weakened immune system to cause severe infections. These infections can be life-threatening in individuals with HIV/AIDS or other conditions that compromise the immune system.
Therefore, it is crucial for healthcare providers to closely monitor CD4 counts in individuals with HIV/AIDS and other immunocompromised conditions to assess the risk of opportunistic infections and provide appropriate treatment and preventive measures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman with a history of ulcerative colitis visits her General Practitioner (GP) complaining of a painful ulcer on her right shin that is rapidly increasing in size. The patient noticed a small blister in the area a few days ago, which has now broken down into an ulcer that is continuing to enlarge. The doctor suspects that the skin lesion may be pyoderma gangrenosum. What is the most commonly associated condition with pyoderma gangrenosum?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis
Explanation:Skin Conditions Associated with Various Diseases
Pyoderma gangrenosum is a skin condition characterized by a painful ulcer that rapidly enlarges. It is commonly associated with inflammatory bowel disease, hepatitis, rheumatoid arthritis, and certain types of leukemia. However, it is not commonly associated with HIV infection or coeliac disease. Dermatitis herpetiformis is a skin condition associated with coeliac disease, while patients with rheumatoid arthritis are at higher risk of developing pyoderma gangrenosum compared to those with osteoarthritis. Haematological malignancies commonly associated with pyoderma gangrenosum include acute myeloid leukemia and hairy cell leukemia, while cutaneous lesions in multiple myeloma are uncommon.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old male presented with a history of bloody and mucoid diarrhoea since that morning. He is also complaining of abdominal spasm and bloating. Which of the following investigations is the most suitable one in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stool culture and sensitivity
Explanation:In this case, the most suitable investigation would be a stool culture and sensitivity. This is because the patient is presenting with symptoms of bloody and mucoid diarrhea, which could be indicative of a bacterial or parasitic infection. A stool culture and sensitivity test would help identify the specific organism causing the infection and determine the most effective antibiotic treatment.
Colonoscopy and biopsy may be considered if the symptoms persist or if there are other concerning findings, but it is not the initial investigation of choice in this case. IgA against tissue transglutaminase is a test used to diagnose celiac disease, which does not typically present with bloody diarrhea. Barium meal and jejunal biopsy are not typically indicated for the symptoms described.
Therefore, in this case, a stool culture and sensitivity test would be the most appropriate investigation to determine the cause of the bloody and mucoid diarrhea and guide treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old Afro-Caribbean gentleman with a 5 year history of HIV infection presents with swollen ankles. He has been treated with highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) for 2 years, with partial response.
His plasma creatinine concentration is 358 μmol/l, albumin is 12 g/dl, CD4 count is 35/μl and 24 hour urine protein excretion rate is 6.8 g. Renal ultrasound shows echogenic kidneys 13.5 cm in length.
What would a renal biopsy show?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Microcystic tubular dilatation and collapsing FSGS
Explanation:HIV-associated nephropathy (HIVAN) is a common complication of HIV infection, particularly in individuals of African descent. It is characterized by renal dysfunction, proteinuria, and progressive renal failure.
A renal biopsy in a patient with HIVAN would typically show microcystic tubular dilatation and collapsing FSGS (focal segmental glomerulosclerosis). FSGS is a pattern of scarring in the kidney that can lead to proteinuria and eventually kidney failure. The collapsing variant of FSGS is particularly associated with HIVAN and is characterized by prominent podocytes and collapsing capillary loops.
Other possible findings on renal biopsy in HIVAN may include Kimmelstiel-Wilson lesions, which are characteristic of diabetic nephropathy, but can also be seen in HIVAN. Minimal-change disease, focal necrotizing crescentic nephritis, and membranous nephropathy are less likely to be seen in HIVAN.
In this case, the patient’s clinical presentation of swollen ankles, elevated plasma creatinine, significant proteinuria, and echogenic kidneys on ultrasound are all consistent with a diagnosis of HIVAN. A renal biopsy showing microcystic tubular dilatation and collapsing FSGS would confirm the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathology
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