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Question 1
Incorrect
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The most common cause of abnormal vaginal discharge in a sexually active 19-year-old female is:
Your Answer: Trichomonas vaginalis
Correct Answer: Mixed vaginal flora
Explanation:Bacterial vaginosis is the most common cause of acute vaginitis, accounting for up to 50% of cases in some populations. It is usually caused by a shift in normal vaginal flora- Mixed vaginal flora is considerably more common as a cause of vaginal discharge than – albicans and T. vaginalis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 27-year-old pregnant woman visits to you at 17 weeks of gestation with complaint of eruption or rash, followed by a 2-day history of malaise, low grade fever and rhinorrhea. You suspect measles and order serology tests for her.
Serology report shows that lgM against measles is positive with a negative lgG.
Among the following which is the most appropriate next step in management of this case?Your Answer: Contact tracing
Explanation:The given case scenario describes a typical case of measles in a pregnant woman, which is confirmed by serologic studies. Positive lgM in serology is suggestive of acute infection, while a negative lgG confirms that the infection is in early phase without any seroconversion.
Conservative management of the symptoms and its potential complications is the only management plan therapeutically available after contracting measles. ‘Notification’ and contact tracing are the other very important issues to be considered.
Measles is a notifiable disease and healthcare professionals are mandated on reporting all the identified cases of measles to the authorized public health units. The main objective of this notification is to conduct a contact tracing.MMR vaccine is not useful once measles is contracted, as the vaccine is used for prevention of measles and as prophylaxis in post-exposure cases. For those with contact to a case of measles, MMR vaccine within 72 hours of contact may have a protective effect, but all measles-containing vaccines like MMR and MM RV are contraindicated throughout pregnancy even as prophylaxis.
As the circulating maternal antibodies will cross placenta and enters into the fetal circulation, a positive test does not confirm infection in the fetus. So serologic testing of the fetus is not useful.
NHIG is not useful in treating an established case of measles, as it is used as a post-measles exposure prophylactic for patients such as pregnant women, premature babies, etc who are contraindicated to MMR vaccine.
As both symptoms and lgM levels indicate measles infection, repeating measles-specific serologic test is not useful in this case. In general no test is indicated, unless its result has an impact on the further management of the case or any prognostic value.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 3
Incorrect
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You see a 23 year old women in clinic complaining of vaginal discharge. The lab phone to tell you microscopy and staining shows a gram negative diplococcus. Which organism is most likely to be responsible?
Your Answer: Gardnerella vaginalis
Correct Answer: Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Explanation:The most common gram negative diplococci include Neisseria, haemophilus and Moraxella.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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You're delivering contraception counselling to a young couple. They chose the 'rhythm approach' after hearing about several methods (calendar calculation).
Menstrual periods last between 26 and 29 days for the woman. Which of the following abstinence durations is the most appropriate?Your Answer: From day 8 to day 19
Correct Answer: From day 6 to day 17
Explanation:Luteal phase is always fixed to 14 days. In this patient, ovulation will occur between days 12-15. Sexual encounter must be ceased until 24-36 hours before day 15 (day 17). The start date of abstinence, calculated by decreasing 6 days (life span of the sperm) from the earliest possible day of ovulation (12-6=6). Hence from day 6-17, sexual encounter must be avoided.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 5
Correct
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When the presenting part of the foetus is at the level of ischial spines, this level is known as?
Your Answer: Station 0
Explanation:Station 0 – This is when the baby’s head is even with the ischial spines. The baby is said to be engaged when the largest part of the head has entered the pelvis.
If the presenting part lies above the ischial spines, the station is reported as a negative number from -1 to -5. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 6
Incorrect
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In threatened abortion, which one of the following items is TRUE?
Your Answer: Does not necessitate giving Anti-D for Rh-negative mother
Correct Answer: More than 50% will abort
Explanation:Threatened abortion:
– Vaginal bleeding with closed cervical os during the first 20 weeks of pregnancy
– Occurs in 25% of 1st-trimester pregnancies
– 50% survival
More than half of threatened abortions will abort. The risk of spontaneous abortion, in a patient with a threatened abortion, is less if fetal cardiac activity is present. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 7
Correct
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Which of the following drugs is associated with reduced milk production whilst breastfeeding?
Your Answer: Cabergoline
Explanation:Domperidone and metoclopramide are D2 dopamine receptor antagonists. They are primarily used to promote gastric motility. They are also known as galactagogues and they promote the production of milk. Cabergoline and bromocriptine are prolactin inhibitors and they reduce milk production.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 30 year old female with type I diabetes for 13 years, came for pre-pregnancy counselling. Which of the following is the most suitable advise for her?
Your Answer: The risks are highest for women who have a recent diagnosis of diabetes
Correct Answer:
Explanation:According to NICE guidelines women with type I diabetes, who are expecting a child should aim to keep their HbA1c level[1] below 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) without causing problematic hypoglycaemia. Women with diabetes whose HbA1c level is above 86 mmol/mol (10%) should be strongly advised not to get pregnant because of the associated risks. The risks are higher with chronic diabetes. There is an increased risk to the foetus or mother due to diabetes in pregnancy. Women who are waiting to become pregnant should take folic acid (5 mg/day) until 12 weeks of gestation to reduce the risk of having a baby with a neural tube defect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 24 year old female patient undergoes an STI screen due to development of dysuria 5 days earlier. The results are positive for chlamydia infection. With regard to contact tracing what is the recommended action regarding tracing and informing sexual partners in this case?
Your Answer: All sexual partners past 6 weeks
Correct Answer: All sexual partners past 6 months
Explanation:In case a person tests positive for chlamydia, all sexual partners over the period of 6 months should to contacted and started on appropriate antibiotics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 10
Incorrect
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What is the typical volume increase of a non-pregnant uterus to term uterus?
Your Answer: 100ml to 500ml
Correct Answer: 10ml to 5000ml
Explanation:Uterine blood flow increases 40-fold to approximately 700 mL/min at term. The uterus is 50–60 g with a volume of approximately 10ml prior to pregnancy and 1000 – 1200 g with a volume of 5000ml by term.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 11
Correct
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In normal pregnancy, the value of β-hCG doubles every:
Your Answer: 2 days
Explanation:During early pregnancy, hCG can be detected in the maternal serum as early as 6 to 8 days after fertilization. hCG levels are dynamically increased and doubled every 48 h in most normal pregnancies, and this pattern is similar in both in vivo or in vitro (IVF) conceptions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 12
Correct
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Which of the following factors is fetal nutrition dependant on?
Your Answer: All of the options given
Explanation:Fetal nutrition is dependant upon multiple factors such as maternal nutritional state, quality of maternal diet, malnutrition, anorexia nervosa, metabolic rate of the mother or whether they suffer from malabsorption syndrome or other related conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 24 year old lady is rushed to the emergency department complaining of vaginal spotting and abdominal cramping. Her 6 week pregnancy was confirmed by ultrasound scan last week. On speculum examination, the cervical os is open with blood noted around it.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Inevitable Miscarriage
Explanation:A miscarriage is defined as the spontaneous loss of a pregnancy before the age of viability at 24 weeks in the UK. An inevitable miscarriage occurs with the usual symptoms of a miscarriage such as menstrual-like cramping, vaginal bleeding and a dilated cervix. The gestational sac has ruptured but products of conception have not been passed. The products of conception will eventually pass.
A missed miscarriage is described as a loss of pregnancy without vaginal bleeding, loss of tissue, cervical changes or abdominal pain. During a scan, a fetal heartbeat is not observed, and the gestational sac may be small.
A threatened miscarriage is when the cervix dilates and uterine bleeding is seen; the pregnancy could still be viable.
A complete miscarriage occurs when all the products of conception are expelled from the uterus, bleeding has stopped, and the cervix has closed up after dilation. Recurrent miscarriages are described as spontaneous pregnancy loss of more than 2 to 3 consecutive times.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 33-year -old G2Pl woman who is at 10 weeks gestation presented to the medical clinic for antenatal visit. It was revealed that she has a twin pregnancy. She was known to have had a complicated previous pregnancy with placental abruption at 34 weeks.
Which of the following is considered the next step in best managing the patient in addition to routine antenatal care?Your Answer: Hospital admission after 34 weeks
Correct Answer: Increased iron and folic acid supplementation
Explanation:Twin pregnancies are at risk for iron deficiency due to significant maternal, fetal, and placental demands. Recommendations regarding the optimal iron dose in twin pregnancies are based on clinical expert opinions, advocating doubling the dose of iron from 30 mg of elemental iron to 60 mg routinely during the second and third trimester, regardless of maternal iron stores.
If pregnant with twins, patient should take the same prenatal vitamins she would take for any pregnancy, but a recommendation of extra folic acid and iron will be made. The additional folic acid and extra iron will help ward off iron-deficiency anaemia, which is more common when patient is pregnant with multiples.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Following parturition uterine contractions called Afterpains may typically continue for how long?
Your Answer: 7-14 days
Correct Answer: None of the above
Explanation:Afterpains may continue for 2-3 days (so none of the above). Breastfeeding may intensify pain due to stimulation of Oxytocin which causes uterine contractions
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Question 18
Incorrect
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At what week in pregnancy is testing for gestational diabetes (GD) advised
Your Answer: 16-18 weeks of pregnancy if no history of GD
Correct Answer: As soon as possible after booking if past history of GD
Explanation:Gestational diabetes (GDM) occurs in 2–9 per cent of all pregnancies. Screening for diabetes in pregnancy can be justified to diagnose previously unrecognized cases of pre-existing diabetes and to identify a group of women who are at risk of developing NIDDM later in life. No single screening test has been shown to be perfect in terms of high sensitivity and specificity for gestational diabetes. Urinary glucose is unreliable, and most screening tests now rely on blood glucose estimation, with an oral glucose tolerance test commonly used. The aim of glucose control is to keep fasting levels between 3.5 and 5.5 mmol/L and postprandial levels 7.1 mmol/L, with insulin treatment usually indicated outside these ranges. The women should be tested as soon as possible after booking if there is a history of GD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 19
Correct
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What percentage of pregnancies will be uncomplicated following a single episode of reduced fetal movements?
Your Answer: 70%
Explanation:Reduced fetal movements can be the first indication of possible fetal abnormalities. Movements are first perceived by the mother from about 18-20 weeks gestation, increase in size and frequency until 32 weeks gestation when they plateau at about 31 movements per hour. Investigations for reduced fetal heart rate include auscultation of the fetal heart rate using a handheld doppler device, and a cardiotocograph or ultrasound if the foetus is above 28 weeks gestation. About 70% of women who experience one episode of reduced fetal movement have uncomplicated pregnancies. They are advised to report to a maternal unit if another episode occurs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman complains of a hard, irregular lump in her right breast that presented after a car accident 2 weeks ago. Which is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Phyllodes tumour
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Since the car crash happened two weeks prior, breast trauma is suggested and thus fat necrosis is the most probable diagnosis. Phyllodes tumours are typically a firm, palpable mass. These tumours are very fast-growing, and can increase in size in just a few weeks. Occurrence is most common between the ages of 40 and 50, prior to menopause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 21
Correct
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Regarding female urinary tract infections, which organism is the most common causative agent?
Your Answer: Escherichia Coli
Explanation:The most common causative agent found in female urinary tract infections is Escherichia Coli. E. Coli is a bacteria found in the environment and the human gastrointestinal system. Other common causes of UTI include Klebsiella sp, Proteus sp and various Enterococci.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Which of the following cell types act as professional antigen presenter cells (APCs)
Your Answer: Mast cells
Correct Answer: Macrophages
Explanation:Macrophages are the antigen presenting cells, they phagocytose the pathogen and after breaking them down present their protein structure to the B and T cells for a specific immune reaction to take place.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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After 2 years of marriage, a 36-year-old morbidly obese lady with a BMI of 41 has been unable to conceive. Her husband's sperm analysis is normal, and he has no additional abnormalities. The fallopian tube looks to be blocked.
What is the best course of action for her management?Your Answer: In-vitro fertilization
Correct Answer: Suggest her to lose weight
Explanation:This patient has been unable to conceive for over a year, and her fallopian tubes are blocked. Her body mass index is 42.
Because she has obstructed Fallopian tubes, in-vitro fertilisation (IVF) is an alternative to getting pregnant for this patient.
A woman with a BMI over 35, on the other hand, will need twice as many IVF rounds to conceive as a woman of normal weight.
As a result, the greatest advise for successful IVF would be to decrease weight as the first step in management.
Obese (BMI less than 40) patients’ IVF success chances are reduced by 25% and 50%, respectively. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 24
Correct
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A sexually active young woman comes in with frothy, foul-smelling vaginal discharge. Dysuria and dyspareunia are also present. The genital region seems to be quite reddish.
What is the potential danger associated with this presentation?Your Answer: Increased risk of cervical cancer
Explanation:TV infection is associated with both LR and HR-HPV infection of the cervix, as well as with ASC-US and HSIL. The signs and symptoms of trichomoniasis are present in this patient. Trichomonas vaginalis is the reason.
Increased vaginal discharge that is frothy, yellowish, and has an unpleasant odour are among the symptoms. It’s frequently linked to dyspareunia and dysuria. Normally, the genital area is red and painful.In both men and women, trichomoniasis can cause preterm labour and raise the risk of infertility. Both the patient and the partner must be treated at the same time.
The active infection can be treated with a single oral dose of metronidazole 2 g taken with food.
To avoid disulfiram-like symptoms, alcohol should be avoided during the first 24-48 hours after treatment. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old lady is two weeks postpartum and in good health. She has painful defecation that is accompanied by some new blood on the toilet paper. Which of the following diagnoses is the most likely?
Your Answer: First-degree haemorrhoids.
Correct Answer: Acute anal fissure.
Explanation:The history of acutely painful defecation associated with spotting of bright blood is very suggestive of an acute anal fissure. Typically, the patient reports severe pain during a bowel movement, with the pain lasting several minutes to hours afterward. The pain recurs with every bowel movement, and the patient commonly becomes afraid or unwilling to have a bowel movement, leading to a cycle of worsening constipation, harder stools, and more anal pain. Approximately 70% of patients note bright-red blood on the toilet paper or stool. Occasionally, a few drops may fall in the toilet bowl, but significant bleeding does not usually occur with an anal fissure.. After gently spreading the buttocks, a close check of the anal verge can typically confirm the diagnosis.
Rectal inspection is excruciatingly painful and opposed by sphincter spasm; however, if the fissure can be seen, it is not necessary to make the diagnosis at first.A perianal abscess, which presents as a sore indurated area lateral to the anus, or local trauma linked with anal intercourse or a foreign body, are two more painful anorectal disorders to rule out.
Anal fistulae do not appear in this way, but rather with perianal discharge, and the diagnosis is based on determining the external orifice of the fistula.
Although first-degree haemorrhoids bleed, they do not cause defecation to be unpleasant.
Although carcinoma of the anus or rectum can cause painful defecation, it would be exceptional in this situation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old female patient, gravida 1 para 1, visits the clinic to have her contraception method evaluated. The patient has had unpredictable bleeding for the past 8 months since receiving a subdermal progestin implant and begs that it be removed. She used to use combined oral contraceptives and would like to go back to it. The patient has primary hypertension, which she was diagnosed with last year and is effectively controlled on hydrochlorothiazide. She does not take any other medications or have any allergies. Her father and brother both suffer from type 2 diabetes. The patient does not smoke, drink, or use illegal drugs.
24 kg/m2 is her BMI. Blood pressure is 130/75 millimetres of mercury. Physical examinations are all normal. Which of the following is increased by using combination oral contraceptives?Your Answer: Breast fibroadenoma
Correct Answer: Worsening hypertension
Explanation:Overt hypertension, developing in about 5% of Pill users, and increases in blood pressure (but within normal limits) in many more is believed to be the result of changes in the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, particularly a consistent and marked increase in the plasma renin substrate concentrations. The mechanisms for the hypertensive response are unclear since normal women may demonstrate marked changes in the renin system. A failure of the kidneys to fully suppress renal renin secretion could thus be an important predisposing factor. These observations provide guidelines for the prescription of oral contraceptives. A baseline blood pressure measurement should be obtained, and blood pressure and weight should be followed at 2- or 3-month intervals during treatment. Oral contraceptive therapy should be contraindicated for individuals with a history of hypertension, renal disease, toxaemia, or fluid retention. A positive family history of hypertension, women for whom long-term therapy is indicated, and groups such as blacks, especially prone to hypertensive phenomena, are all relative contraindications for the Pill.
COCs do not increase the risk of developing breast and endometrial cancer, Type 2 DM or breast fibroadenoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old primigravida woman presented to the clinic for her first antenatal check-up. Upon interview, it was noted that she was taking folic acid along with some other nutritional supplements as medication.
All of the following are considered correct regarding neural tube defects and folate before and during pregnancy, except:Your Answer: Most women need 0.5 mg folate daily before and during pregnancy
Correct Answer: Prevalence of neural tube defects among non-indigenous population is almost double than that in Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander babies
Explanation:Neural tube defects (NTDs) are common complex congenital malformations resulting from failure of the neural tube closure during embryogenesis. It is established that folic acid supplementation decreases the prevalence of NTDs, which has led to national public health policies regarding folic acid.
Neural tube defects (NTD) were 43% more common in Indigenous than in non-Indigenous infants in Western Australia in the 1980s, and there has been a fall in NTD overall in Western Australia since promotion of folate and voluntary fortification of food has occurred.
Women should take 5 mg/d of folic acid for the 2 months before conception and during the first trimester.
Women planning pregnancy might be exposed to medications with known antifolate activities affecting different parts of the folic acid metabolic cascade. A relatively large number of epidemiologic studies have shown an increased risk of NTDs among babies exposed in early gestation to antiepileptic drugs (carbamazepine, valproate, barbiturates), sulphonamides, or methotrexate. Hence, whenever women use these medications, or have used them near conception, they should take 5 mg/d of folic acid until the end of the first trimester of pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 28
Correct
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Question 29
Correct
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Renal cell carcinoma is associated with which type of metastasis?
Your Answer: Haematogenous
Explanation:Most carcinomas spread primarily via lymphatic invasion. Renal cell is the exception spreading via the bloodstream.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 46-year-old woman presents to your clinic with a complaint of irregular heavy menstruation. She had normal menstrual pattern 6 months back. Physical examination revealed no abnormality with a negative cervical smear. Laboratory investigation reveals a haemoglobin of 105g/L (Normal 115-165g/L). The most common cause of such menorrhagia is?
Your Answer: Adenomyosis.
Correct Answer: Anovulatory cycles.
Explanation:Menorrhagia in a 45-year-old woman is most likely caused by an ovulation issue, most likely anovulatory cycles, particularly if the periods have grown irregular.
Endometrial carcinoma is a rare cause of menorrhagia that usually occurs after menopause.
Menorrhagia can be caused by fibroids, endometrial polyps, and adenomyosis, although the cycles are normally regular, and a dramatic change from normal cycles six months prior would be exceptional.
If fibroids or adenomyosis are the source of the menorrhagia, the uterus is usually enlarged. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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