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  • Question 1 - The blood-brain barrier is a membrane that separates the circulating blood from the...

    Correct

    • The blood-brain barrier is a membrane that separates the circulating blood from the brain extracellular fluid in the central nervous system (CNS). Which of the following statements regarding the blood– brain barrier is CORRECT?

      Your Answer: It breaks down in areas of brain that are infected

      Explanation:

      The blood–brain barrier is a membrane that controls the passage of substances from the blood into the central nervous system. It is a physical barrier between the local blood vessels and most parts of the central nervous system and stops many substances from travelling across it. During meningitis, the blood–brain barrier may be disrupted. This disruption may increase the penetration of various substances (including either toxins or antibiotics) into the brain. A few regions in the brain, including the circumventricular organs, do not have a blood–brain barrier.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      557.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - During thymectomy the surgeon accidentally nicks a vein that lies just posterior to...

    Correct

    • During thymectomy the surgeon accidentally nicks a vein that lies just posterior to the thymus. Which of the following vessels is likely to be injured?

      Your Answer: Left brachiocephalic vein

      Explanation:

      The thymus is located superficially in the anterior mediastinum. The left brachiocephalic vein courses through the mediastinum to join the right brachiocephalic vein and form the superior vena cava on the right side of the thorax. The left brachiocephalic vein, being superficial, courses just deep to the thymus so that it may be susceptible to compression by an adjacent tumour. The left pulmonary vein, left bronchial vein and right pulmonary artery are deep, and enter and exit the lung at its root, thus are not near the thymus. The right superior intercostal vein drains the 2nd to the 4th intercostal spaces and drains into the arch of the azygos vein. It is not, therefore, closely related with the thymus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 27 year-old male patient was admitted to the hospital due to recurrent...

    Correct

    • A 27 year-old male patient was admitted to the hospital due to recurrent fever for the past 2 weeks. The patient claimed that he is an intravenous drug user. Following work up, the patient was diagnosed with infective endocarditis. Which is the most likely organism responsible for this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Acute bacterial endocarditis is a fulminant illness lasting over days to weeks (<2weeks). It is most likely due to Staphylococcus aureus especially in intravenous drug abusers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
      38.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - The vascular structure found on the right side of the fifth lumbar vertebra...

    Incorrect

    • The vascular structure found on the right side of the fifth lumbar vertebra is?

      Your Answer: Right external iliac vein

      Correct Answer: Inferior vena cava

      Explanation:

      The most likely vascular structure is the inferior vena cava. The inferior vena cava is formed by the joining of the two common iliac arteries, the right and the left iliac artery, at the level of the fifth lumbar vertebra( L5). The inferior vena cava passes along the right side of the vertebral column. It enters the thoracic cavity into the underside of the heart through the caval opening of the diaphragm at the level of the eight thoracic vertebra (T8).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      22.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - The sciatic nerve does NOT supply which of the following muscles? ...

    Incorrect

    • The sciatic nerve does NOT supply which of the following muscles?

      Your Answer: Quadratus femoris

      Correct Answer: Obturator externus

      Explanation:

      The sciatic nerve supplies both gemellae, quadratus femoris, semitendinosus, semimembranosus, both heads of the biceps femoris, the hamstring half of abductor magnus and obturator internus. Obturator externus is supplied by the obturator nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      19.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Myoglobin is released as a result of rhabdomyolysis from damaged skeletal muscles. What...

    Correct

    • Myoglobin is released as a result of rhabdomyolysis from damaged skeletal muscles. What function do they perform in the muscle?

      Your Answer: Acts like haemoglobin and binds with O2

      Explanation:

      Myoglobin is a pigmented globular protein made up of 153 amino acids with a prosthetic group containing haem around which the apoprotein folds. It is the primary oxygen carrying protein of the muscles. The binding of oxygen to myoglobin is unaffected by the oxygen pressure as it has an instant tendency to bind given its hyperbolic oxygen curve. It releases oxygen at very low pO2 levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      26.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 26-year-old female patient had the following blood report: RBC count = 4....

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old female patient had the following blood report: RBC count = 4. 0 × 106/μl, haematocrit = 27% and haemoglobin = 11 g/dl, mean corpuscular volume (MCV) = 80–100 fl, mean corpuscular haemoglobin concentration (MCHC) = 31–37 g/dl. Which of the following is correct regarding this patient’s erythrocytes:

      Your Answer: Normal MCV

      Explanation:

      MCV is the mean corpuscular volume and it is calculated from the haematocrit and the RBC count. It is normally 90 fl. Mean corpuscular haemoglobin concentration (MCHC) [g/dl] = haemoglobin [g/dl]/haematocrit = 11/0.27 = 41 g/dl and is higher than normal range (32 to 36 g/dL).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      45.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - The otic ganglion receives its preganglionic sympathetic fibres from which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • The otic ganglion receives its preganglionic sympathetic fibres from which of the following nerves?

      Your Answer: Chorda tympani nerve

      Correct Answer: Glossopharyngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      The otic ganglion is a small (2–3 mm), oval shaped, flattened parasympathetic ganglion of a reddish-grey colour, located immediately below the foramen ovale in the infratemporal fossa and on the medial surface of the mandibular nerve. The preganglionic parasympathetic fibres originate in the inferior salivatory nucleus of the glossopharyngeal nerve. They leave the glossopharyngeal nerve by its tympanic branch and then pass via the tympanic plexus and the lesser petrosal nerve to the otic ganglion. Here, the fibres synapse, and the postganglionic fibres pass by communicating branches to the auriculotemporal nerve, which conveys them to the parotid gland. They produce vasodilator and secretomotor effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      28.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which organs would cause pain in a patient who complains of dull pain...

    Correct

    • Which organs would cause pain in a patient who complains of dull pain in her pelvis, along the midline starting from the pubic bone in the front to the sacrum at the back?

      Your Answer: Urinary bladder, uterus/cervix/vagina, rectum

      Explanation:

      The pain could have been caused by the urinary bladder, uterus/cervix/vagina or rectum as it involves the pelvic viscera.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      26.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - During a surgical operation, whilst dissecting the mediastinal lymph nodes for a bronchogenic...

    Incorrect

    • During a surgical operation, whilst dissecting the mediastinal lymph nodes for a bronchogenic carcinoma of the right upper lobe bronchus, a patient's right sympathetic trunk is accidentally severed above the level of spinal nerve T1. Which function would be left intact in the affected region?

      Your Answer: Arrector pili muscle activity

      Correct Answer: Voluntary muscle activity

      Explanation:

      The sympathetic nervous system regulates vascular tone, dilation of pupils, arrector pili muscles, sweat production and visceral reflexes. Neurones that supply the voluntary muscles originate from the ventral horn of the spinal cord. If these nerves were thus damaged, these functions would be impaired. The sympathetic nervous system is not responsible for voluntary muscle activity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      24.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - what is the cause of a prolonged PT(prothrombin time)? ...

    Correct

    • what is the cause of a prolonged PT(prothrombin time)?

      Your Answer: Liver disease

      Explanation:

      PT measure the intrinsic pathway of coagulation. It determines the measure of the warfarin dose regime, liver disease and vit K deficiency status along with the clotting tendency of blood. PT measured factors are II,V,VII,X and fibrinogen. It is used along with aPTT which measure the intrinsic pathway.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      3.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which of the following structures is affected or damaged when the 'anterior drawer...

    Correct

    • Which of the following structures is affected or damaged when the 'anterior drawer test' is positive?

      Your Answer: Anterior cruciate ligament

      Explanation:

      The anterior drawer test is an important orthopaedic test that is used to test weakness of the anterior cruciate ligament. The test is done by having the patient sit in a supine position with his/her knees flexed at 90 degrees. An examiner stabilises the patients feet and softly pulls or pushes on the proximal tibia. The test is positive if there is translational movement of the tibia in relation to the femur, indicating a weakened anterior cruciate ligament. The anterior cruciate ligament prevents the tibia from sliding out in front of the femur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A patient presents with loss of fine touch and sense of proprioception in...

    Incorrect

    • A patient presents with loss of fine touch and sense of proprioception in the lower part of the body (below T6). He is likely to have a lesion involving:

      Your Answer: Lateral spinothalamic tract

      Correct Answer: Gracile nucleus

      Explanation:

      The gracile nucleus is located in the medulla oblongata and is one of the dorsal column nuclei involved in the sensation of fine touch and proprioception. It contains second-order neurons of the dorsal column–medial lemniscus system, that receive inputs from sensory neurones of the dorsal root ganglia and send axons that synapse in the thalamus.

      The gracile nucleus and fasciculus carry epicritic, kinaesthetic and conscious proprioceptive information from the lower part of the body (below the level of T6 in the spinal cord). Similar information from the upper part of body (above T6, except for face and ear) is carried by the cuneate nucleus and fasciculus. The information from face and ear is carried by the primary sensory trigeminal nucleus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      24.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A teenager presents with pain and swelling in a limb which increases after...

    Correct

    • A teenager presents with pain and swelling in a limb which increases after activity. X-rays reveal an expansible, eccentric, lytic lesion in the metaphysis distally in the affected bone surrounded by new bone. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Aneurysmal bone cyst

      Explanation:

      Aneurysmal bone cysts tend to develop in patients younger than 20 years old. They usually occur in the metaphyseal region of long bones, and are cystic lesions composed of numerous blood filled channels that grow slowly. In X-rays, they show up as circumscribed lesions, sometimes surrounded by new bone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      • Pathology
      39.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 70-year-old man who was previously healthy develops a rapidly progressing neurological deficit....

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man who was previously healthy develops a rapidly progressing neurological deficit. A MRI reveals a large, poorly defined mass with central necrosis in his left temporal lobe. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Meningioma

      Correct Answer: Glioblastoma multiforme

      Explanation:

      Glioblastoma multiforme, or grade 4 astrocytoma, is the most common and aggressive primary brain tumour. They are formed by small areas of necrotising tissue surrounded by highly anaplastic cells. Most of them arise from the deep white matter of the brain and quickly infiltrate it, becoming very large before they are symptomatic. The most common symptom is progressive memory, personality or neurological deficit due to temporal and frontal lobe involvement. It is most common in men, and risk factors include: neurofibromatosis, tuberous sclerosis, Von Hippel-Lindau disease, Li-Fraumeni syndrome, and Turcot syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
      24
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which foramen contains the vertebral artery? ...

    Correct

    • Which foramen contains the vertebral artery?

      Your Answer: Foramen magnum

      Explanation:

      The foramen magnum is found in the most inferior part of the posterior cranial fossa. It is traversed by vital structures including the medulla oblongata. Its contents include the following: medulla oblongata, meninges, spinal root of the accessory nerve, vertebral arteries, anterior and posterior spinal arteries, tectorial membrane and alar ligaments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 37-year-old woman with a history of rheumatic heart disease presents with 10...

    Correct

    • A 37-year-old woman with a history of rheumatic heart disease presents with 10 days recurrent low fever. Patient underwent laboratory work up and was diagnosed with infective endocarditis. What is the most likely organism that caused the infective endocarditis in this patient?

      Your Answer: Streptococcus viridans

      Explanation:

      Subacute bacterial endocarditis  is often due to streptococci of low virulence, mainly streptococcus viridans. It is a mild to moderate illness which progresses slowly over weeks and months (>2weeks) and has low propensity to hematogenously seed to extracardiac sites.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
      24.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which is the CORRECT statement regarding the small intestine: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which is the CORRECT statement regarding the small intestine:

      Your Answer: The proximal jejunum has more arterial arcades than the distal ileum

      Correct Answer: The superior mesenteric artery courses between the body and uncinate process of the pancreas before the artery supplies the jejunum and ileum

      Explanation:

      The small intestine extends from the pylorus to the ileocecal valve where It ends in the large intestine. It is surrounded on the sides and above by the large intestine. It is related anteriorly with the greater omentum and abdominal wall. Is connected to the vertebral column by a fold of peritoneum or otherwise known as the mesentery. Is divided into three portions: the duodenum, jejunum and ileum. The jejunum and ileum are supplied by the superior mesenteric artery that courses between the body and uncinate process of the pancreas before it gives off intestinal branches.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      38.1
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A recognised side-effect of prefrontal leukotomy is: ...

    Correct

    • A recognised side-effect of prefrontal leukotomy is:

      Your Answer: Confusion

      Explanation:

      Used previously as a treatment for psychiatric disorders, prefrontal leucotomy severs the connection between the prefrontal cortical association area and the thalamus. This leads to functional isolation of the prefrontal and orbitofrontal association cortex. Thus, along with the desired reduction in anger and frustration, undesirable side effects included changes in mood and affect, as well as confusion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Gastrocnemius, semimembranosus and semitendinosus together with which other muscle form the boundaries of...

    Correct

    • Gastrocnemius, semimembranosus and semitendinosus together with which other muscle form the boundaries of the popliteal fossa?

      Your Answer: Biceps femoris

      Explanation:

      The popliteal fossa is located at the back of the knee. It is bounded laterally by the biceps femoris above and the plantaris and lateral head of the gastrocnemius below and medially by the semitendinosus and semimembranosus above and by the medial head of the gastrocnemius below.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which of the given options best describes the metabolic changes which occur following...

    Correct

    • Which of the given options best describes the metabolic changes which occur following a severe soft tissue injury sustained after a PVA?

      Your Answer: Mobilisation of fat stores

      Explanation:

      The following metabolic responses occur following trauma as part of a coping mechanism for the additional stress. These include acid base changes (metabolic acidosis or alkalosis), decrease urine output and osmolality, reduced basal metabolic rate (BMR), gluconeogenesis with amino acid breakdown and shunting, hyponatraemia as a result of impaired functioning of sodium pumps, hypoxic injury, coagulopathies, decreased immunity, increase extracellular fluid and hypovolemic shock, increase permeability leading to oedema, break down and mobilization of fat reserves, pyrexia and reduced circulating levels of albumin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing
      • Pathology
      32.5
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A surgeon performing a laparoscopic repair of an inguinal hernia visualizes a loop...

    Incorrect

    • A surgeon performing a laparoscopic repair of an inguinal hernia visualizes a loop of bowel protruding through the abdominal wall to form a direct inguinal hernia. When this is viewed from the side of the abdomen with a laparoscope, in which region would the hernial sac be?

      Your Answer: Deep inguinal ring

      Correct Answer: Medial inguinal fossa

      Explanation:

      In a direct inguinal hernia, visceral contents exit the abdomen through a weak point in the fascia in the medial inguinal fossa i.e. the area between the medial and lateral umbilical folds. Such a hernia doesn’t pass through the deep inguinal ring or the lateral inguinal fossa. Note that direct hernias can go through the superficial inguinal ring, although rarely. The supravesical fossa, between the median and medial umbilical folds, is formed by a peritoneal reflection from the anterior abdominal wall onto the bladder and the retrovesical fossa is the region behind the urinary bladder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      89.6
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which of the following substances brings about a dilatation of the gastrointestinal resistance...

    Correct

    • Which of the following substances brings about a dilatation of the gastrointestinal resistance vessels?

      Your Answer: Vasoactive intestinal peptide

      Explanation:

      Gastric vasoconstrictors include catecholamines, angiotensin II and vasopressin. Vasodilators include vasoactive intestinal peptide and the hormones; gastrin, cholecystokinin and glucagon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      24
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 34-year-old man is receiving chemotherapy for non-Hodgkin's lymphoma. Which of the following...

    Correct

    • A 34-year-old man is receiving chemotherapy for non-Hodgkin's lymphoma. Which of the following chemotherapy regimens would be used in this case?

      Your Answer: CHOP

      Explanation:

      CHOP is the acronym for a chemotherapy regimen used in the treatment of non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma, comprising cyclophosphamide, hydroxyrubicin (adriamycin), vincristine and prednisone. This regimen can also be combined with the monoclonal antibody rituximab if the lymphoma is of B cell origin; this combination is called R-CHOP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Pharmacology
      14.7
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a multidrug resistant pathogen that causes hospital-acquired infections. It is...

    Incorrect

    • Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a multidrug resistant pathogen that causes hospital-acquired infections. It is usually treated with piperacillin or another antibiotic. Which of the following is the other antibiotic?

      Your Answer: Erythromycin

      Correct Answer: Azlocillin

      Explanation:

      Azlocillin, like piperacillin, is an acylampicillin antibiotic with an extended spectrum of activity and greater in vitro potency than the carboxypenicillins. Azlocillin is similar to mezlocillin and piperacillin. It demonstrates antibacterial activity against a broad spectrum of bacteria, including Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Pharmacology
      14.3
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - What causes a reduction in pulmonary functional residual capacity? ...

    Correct

    • What causes a reduction in pulmonary functional residual capacity?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary fibrosis

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary functional residual capacity (FRC) is = volume of air present in the lungs at the end of passive expiration.

      Obstructive diseases (e.g. emphysema, chronic bronchitis, asthma) = an increase in FRC due to an increase in lung compliance and air trapping.

      Restrictive diseases (e.g. pulmonary fibrosis) result in stiffer, less compliant lungs and a reduction in FRC.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      20.4
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Dysarthria, nystagmus and a tremor worsening with directed movement are likely to be...

    Correct

    • Dysarthria, nystagmus and a tremor worsening with directed movement are likely to be seen in:

      Your Answer: Cerebellar disease

      Explanation:

      The given symptoms are seen in diseases affecting the cerebellum. A cerebellar tremor is a slow tremor that occurs at the end of a purposeful movement. It is seen in cerebellar disease, such as multiple sclerosis or some inherited degenerative disorders and chronic alcoholism. Classically, tremors are produced in the same side of the body as a one-sided lesion. Cerebellar disease can also result in a wing-beating’ type of tremor called rubral or Holmes’ tremor – a combination of rest, action and postural tremors. Other signs of cerebellar disease include dysarthria (speech problems), nystagmus (rapid, involuntary rolling of the eyes), gait problems and postural tremor of the trunk and neck.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A man had an injury to his right brachial plexus. After examination by...

    Correct

    • A man had an injury to his right brachial plexus. After examination by the doctor they found that the diaphragm and the scapula were unaffected however the patient could not abduct his arm. When helped with abducting his arm to 45 degrees he was able to continue the movement. This means that he was unable to initiate abduction. Where is the likely site of injury?

      Your Answer: Suprascapular nerve

      Explanation:

      The loss of ability to initiate abduction means paralysis of the supraspinatus muscle. This muscle is supplied by the supraclavicular nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      38.1
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which of the following will show decreased hearing when tested by air conduction...

    Correct

    • Which of the following will show decreased hearing when tested by air conduction but normal hearing when tested by bone conduction?

      Your Answer: Fibrosis causing fixation of the ossicles

      Explanation:

      As the cochlea is embedded into bone, the vibrations from the bone are transmitted directly to the fluid in the cochlea. Hence, any damage to the ossicles or tympanic membrane will not show an abnormal result on bone conduction test.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      83.7
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which of the following conditions is characterized by generalised oedema due to effusion...

    Correct

    • Which of the following conditions is characterized by generalised oedema due to effusion of fluid into the extracellular space?

      Your Answer: Anasarca

      Explanation:

      Anasarca (or ‘generalised oedema’) is a condition characterised by widespread swelling of the skin due to effusion of fluid into the extracellular space. It is usually caused by liver failure (cirrhosis of the liver), renal failure/disease, right-sided heart failure, as well as severe malnutrition/protein deficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      79
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - Choose the most correct answer regarding the obturator internus muscle. ...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the most correct answer regarding the obturator internus muscle.

      Your Answer: It emerges from the pelvis through the obturator foramen

      Correct Answer: It emerges from the pelvis through the lesser sciatic foramen

      Explanation:

      The obturator internus arises from the inner surface of the anterolateral wall of the pelvis and the pelvic surface of the obturator membrane. The fibres converge rapidly towards the lesser sciatic foramen and end in four or five tendinous bands and leave the pelvis through the lesser sciatic foramen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      29.5
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - A 55-year old lady underwent a major surgery for repair of an aortic...

    Correct

    • A 55-year old lady underwent a major surgery for repair of an aortic aneurysm. Her blood pressure was low throughout the intra-operative and the post-operative period, along with increasing serum creatinine and urea. Microscopic examination of her urine showed multiple granular and hyaline casts. What is the likely condition the patient is suffering from?

      Your Answer: Acute tubular necrosis

      Explanation:

      The most common predisposing factor leading to acute tubular necrosis is ischemia, typically seen in hospitalized patients with low blood pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Renal
      49.6
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - Which best describes the suprascapular nerve? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which best describes the suprascapular nerve?

      Your Answer: It courses superior to the suprascapular ligament enroute to the supraspinatus muscle

      Correct Answer: It contains nerve fibres from C5 and C6 spinal cord segments

      Explanation:

      The suprascapular nerve arises from the cervical spinal nerves 5 and 6 after coming together to form common trunk. This nerve supplies the supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles giving off branches to the shoulder joint.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - During cardiac catheterisation, if the blood sample from the catheter shows an oxygen...

    Correct

    • During cardiac catheterisation, if the blood sample from the catheter shows an oxygen saturation of 70%, and the pressure ranging from 12 to 24 mm Hg, it implies that the catheter tip is located in the:

      Your Answer: Pulmonary artery

      Explanation:

      Normal values for various parameters are as follows:

      Systolic arterial blood pressure (SBP): 90–140 mmHg.

      Diastolic arterial blood pressure: 60–90 mmHg.

      Mean arterial blood pressure (MAP): SBP + (2 × DBP)/3 (normal range: 70-105 mmHg).

      Right atrial pressure (RAP): 2–6 mmHg.

      Systolic right ventricular pressure (RVSP): 15–25 mmHg.

      Diastolic right ventricular pressure (RVDP): 0–8 mmHg.

      Pulmonary artery pressure (PAP): Systolic (PASP) is 15-25 mmHg and Diastolic (PADP) is 8–15 mmHg.

      Pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP): 6–12 mmHg.

      Left atrial pressure (LAP): 6–12 mmHg.

      Thus, the given value indicates that the position of catheter tip is likely to be in the pulmonary artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      43.6
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - Extracellular body fluid as compared with intracellular body fluid: ...

    Incorrect

    • Extracellular body fluid as compared with intracellular body fluid:

      Your Answer: Contains more amino acids

      Correct Answer: Is relatively rich in glucose

      Explanation:

      The percentages of body water contained in various fluid compartments add up to total body water (TBW). This water makes up a significant fraction of the human body, both by weight and by volume. Ensuring the right amount of body water is part of fluid balance, an aspect of homeostasis. The extracellular fluid (ECF) includes all fluids outside the cells. This fluid can be divided into three fluid departments: interstitial (in the tissue spaces) fluid, blood plasma and lymph, and specialised compartments called transcellular fluid. The extracellular fluid surrounds all the cells in the body and is in equilibrium with the intracellular fluid. So, its composition must remain fairly constant even though substances are passing into and out of the cells. The interstitial fluid, though called a fluid, is in a reality a gel-like composition made up of: water, proteoglycan molecules and collagen. The extracellular fluid constitutes 40% of total body water, with intracellular fluid making up the remaining 60%. It is relatively rich in glucose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      18.3
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - A 30 year old female suffered from mismatched transfusion induced haemolysis. Which substance...

    Incorrect

    • A 30 year old female suffered from mismatched transfusion induced haemolysis. Which substance will be raised in the plasma of this patient?

      Your Answer: Hemosiderin

      Correct Answer: Bilirubin

      Explanation:

      Bilirubin is a yellow pigment that is formed due to the break down of RBCs. Haemolysis results in haemoglobin that is broken down into a haem portion and globin which is converted into amino acids and used again. Haem is converted into unconjugated bilirubin in the macrophages and shunted to the liver. In the liver it is conjugated with glucuronic acid making it water soluble and thus excreted in the urine. Its normal levels are from 0.2-1 mg/dl. Increased bilirubin causes jaundice and yellowish discoloration of the skin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      16.8
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - A 76-year-old woman is diagnosed with diabetes mellitus after a urine test revealed...

    Correct

    • A 76-year-old woman is diagnosed with diabetes mellitus after a urine test revealed she has glucosuria. Glucosuria may occur due to inadequate glucose reabsorption at:

      Your Answer: Proximal convoluted tubule

      Explanation:

      Glucose is reabsorbed almost 100% via sodium–glucose transport proteins (apical) and GLUT (basolateral) in the proximal convoluted tubule. Glycosuria or glucosuria is a condition of osmotic diuresis typical in those suffering from diabetes mellitus. Due to a lack of insulin, plasma glucose levels are above normal. This leads to saturation of receptors in the kidneys and glycosuria usually at plasma glucose levels above 11 mmol/l. Rarely, glycosuria is due to an intrinsic problem with glucose reabsorption within the kidneys (such as Fanconi syndrome), producing a condition termed renal glycosuria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      176.2
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - Calculate the pulmonary vascular resistance in an adult male with the following parameters:...

    Correct

    • Calculate the pulmonary vascular resistance in an adult male with the following parameters:

      Heart rate 70 beats/min

      Arterial [O2] 0.24 ml O2/min

      Venous [O2] 0.16 ml O2/mi

      Whole body O2 consumption 500 ml/min

      Pulmonary diastolic pressure 15 mmHg

      Pulmonary systolic pressure 25 mmHg

      Wedge pressure 5 mmHg.

      Your Answer: 2.0 resistance units (mmHg/l per min)

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR) = (Mean pulmonary artery pressure – Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure) divided by Cardiac output. To get cardiac output, Fick’s principle needs to be applied which states that VO2 = (CO × CAO2) – (CO × CVO2) where VO2 = oxygen consumption, CO = cardiac output, CA = oxygen concentration of arterial blood and CVO2 = oxygen concentration of venous blood. Thus, CO = VO2/CAO2– CVO2, CO = 500/0.24–0.16, CO = 500/0.8, CO = 6.25 l/min. To calculate mean pulmonary artery pressure, we use the formula: Mean pulmonary artery pressure = Diastolic pressure + 1/3(Systolic pressure – Diastolic pressure). Thus, Mean pulmonary artery pressure = 15 + 1/3(25 – 15) = 15 + 3. 33 = 18.33. Substituting these values in the first formula, PVR = 18.3–5/6.25 = 13.5/5.25 = 2.0 resistance units (mmHg/l per min) approximately.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      99.4
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - The annular ligament in the forearm: ...

    Correct

    • The annular ligament in the forearm:

      Your Answer: Encircles the head of the radius

      Explanation:

      The annular ligament forms about four-fifths of the osseofibrous ring and is attached to the anterior and posterior margins of the radial notch. It is a strong band of fibres which encircles the head of the radius retaining it in contact with the radial notch of the ulna. When it comes to its upper border, it blends with the anterior and posterior ligament of the elbow.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - Which of these foramen is located at the base of the skull and...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these foramen is located at the base of the skull and transmits the accessory meningeal artery?

      Your Answer: Foramen spinosum

      Correct Answer: Foramen ovale

      Explanation:

      At the base of the skull the foramen ovale is one of the larger of the several holes that transmit nerves through the skull. The following structures pass through foramen ovale: mandibular nerve, motor root of the trigeminal nerve, accessory meningeal artery, lesser petrosal nerve, a branch of the glossopharyngeal nerve, emissary vein connecting the cavernous sinus with the pterygoid plexus of veins and occasionally the anterior trunk of the middle meningeal vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      25.5
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - A textbook of cardiac surgery explains that while doing a left pneumonectomy, a...

    Incorrect

    • A textbook of cardiac surgery explains that while doing a left pneumonectomy, a surgeon must be careful to avoid injury to a vital structure that leaves an impression on the mediastinal surface of the left lung. Which structure is it referring to?

      Your Answer: Right brachiocephalic vein

      Correct Answer: Aortic arch

      Explanation:

      Structures that leave an impression on the mediastinal surface of the left lung include: the oesophagus, subclavian artery, brachiocephalic vein, first rib, thymus, the heart, the diaphragm, descending aorta and arch of the aorta. The other structures form an impression on the mediastinal aspect of the right lung.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      78.3
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - The thyrocervical trunk branches into which artery that passes upward and in front...

    Incorrect

    • The thyrocervical trunk branches into which artery that passes upward and in front of the vertebral artery and longus colli muscle:

      Your Answer: Transverse cervical

      Correct Answer: Inferior thyroid

      Explanation:

      The inferior thyroid artery is an artery in the neck. It arises from the thyrocervical trunk and passes upward, in front of the vertebral artery and longus colli muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      31.5
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - During a radical mastectomy for advanced breast cancer, the surgeon injured the long...

    Correct

    • During a radical mastectomy for advanced breast cancer, the surgeon injured the long thoracic nerve. Which among the following muscles is likely to be affected?

      Your Answer: Serratus anterior

      Explanation:

      The long thoracic nerve innervates the serratus anterior muscle which holds the scapula forward and balances the rhomboids and the trapezius muscles which retract the scapula. Injury to this nerve results in a ‘winged scapula’ with a posterior protrusion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      25
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - In the adult heart, the sinus venosus gives rise to the: ...

    Incorrect

    • In the adult heart, the sinus venosus gives rise to the:

      Your Answer: Trabeculated portion of the right atrium

      Correct Answer: Coronary sinus

      Explanation:

      The sinus venosus is a large quadrangular cavity which precedes the atrium on the venous side of the chordate heart. It exists distinctly only in the embryonic heart (where it is found between the two venae cavae); however, the sinus venosus persists in the adult. In the adult, it is incorporated into the wall of the right atrium to form a smooth part called the sinus venarum, which is separated from the rest of the atrium by a ridge of fibres called the crista terminalis. The sinus venosus also forms the SA node and the coronary sinus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Embryology
      16.7
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - A 60 year old patient with a history of carcinoma of the head...

    Correct

    • A 60 year old patient with a history of carcinoma of the head of the pancreas, and obstructive jaundice presents with a spontaneous nose bleed and easy bruising. What is the most likely reason for this?

      Your Answer: Vitamin-K-dependent clotting factors deficiency

      Explanation:

      Vitamin K is a fat soluble vitamin requiring fat metabolism to function properly to allow for its absorption. People with obstructive jaundice develop vitamin k deficiency as fat digestion is impaired. Vit K causes carboxylation of glutamate residue and hence regulates blood coagulation including: prothrombin (factor II), factors VII, IX, X, protein C, protein S and protein Z.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      15.7
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - A 16 year old girl fractured a bone in her left foot. Upon...

    Correct

    • A 16 year old girl fractured a bone in her left foot. Upon examination the clinician discovered that the fracture affected the insertion of the peroneus brevis muscle. Which of the following bones was most likely affected?

      Your Answer: Base of the fifth metatarsal

      Explanation:

      The peroneus brevis muscle originates from the lower two-thirds of the lateral body of the fibula and has inserts at the base of the fifth metatarsal. Fractures to this bone are common and can be due to infection, trauma, overuse and repetitive use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      58.9
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - The middle meningeal artery is the largest among the arteries that supplies that...

    Correct

    • The middle meningeal artery is the largest among the arteries that supplies that dura mater of the brain. The middle meningeal artery is a branch of the?

      Your Answer: Maxillary artery

      Explanation:

      The middle meningeal artery is the largest of the three (paired) arteries that supply the meninges.

      The middle meningeal artery is a large arterial branch of the maxillary artery which is a terminal branch of the external carotid artery. Upon originating, the middle meningeal artery passes through the foramen spinosum. In the skull, it courses in the middle cranial fossa where it provides several branches.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      123.2
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - The oesophagus is an important part of the alimentary canal. It receives blood...

    Incorrect

    • The oesophagus is an important part of the alimentary canal. It receives blood from various arteries in the body. Which one of the following is an artery that will lead to some level of ischaemia to the oesophagus when ligated?

      Your Answer: Superior mesenteric

      Correct Answer: Left inferior phrenic

      Explanation:

      The oesophagus receives its blood supply from the following arteries: the inferior thyroid branch of the thyrocervical trunk, the descending thoracic aorta, the left gastric branch of the coeliac artery and the from the left inferior phrenic artery of the abdominal aorta. Hence ligation of the left inferior phrenic will lead to ischemia to some portions of the oesophagus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      136.6
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - A 7-year-old boys undergoes a testicular biopsy after a tumour is found in...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old boys undergoes a testicular biopsy after a tumour is found in his right testis. Elements similar to hair and teeth are found in it. What kind of tumour is this?

      Your Answer: Teratoma

      Explanation:

      A teratoma is a tumour containing tissue elements that are similar to normal derivatives of more than one germ layer. They usually contain skin, hair, teeth and bone tissue and are more common in children, behaving as a benign tumour. After puberty, they are regarded as malignant and can metastasise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Urology
      24.4
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - A 60-year-old male is suspected to have pancreatic cancer. What particular tumour marker...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old male is suspected to have pancreatic cancer. What particular tumour marker should be requested to aid in the confirmation of the diagnosis of pancreatic cancer?

      Your Answer: CA-125

      Correct Answer: Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)

      Explanation:

      Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is used as a tumour marker. CEA test measures the amount of this protein that may appear in the blood of some people who have certain types of cancers especially cancer of the colon and rectal cancer. It may also be present in the pancreas, breast, ovary or lung.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia
      • Pathology
      14.1
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Fluids & Electrolytes (2/3) 67%
Physiology (14/17) 82%
Anatomy (10/23) 43%
Thorax (1/3) 33%
Microbiology (2/2) 100%
Pathology (7/10) 70%
Abdomen (0/4) 0%
Lower Limb (3/5) 60%
General (4/5) 80%
Head & Neck (2/5) 40%
Pelvis (1/1) 100%
Neurology (3/5) 60%
Orthopaedics (1/1) 100%
Cell Injury & Wound Healing (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (1/2) 50%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Upper Limb (3/4) 75%
Renal (2/2) 100%
Cardiovascular (2/2) 100%
Embryology (0/1) 0%
Urology (1/1) 100%
Neoplasia (0/1) 0%
Passmed