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Question 1
Correct
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Concerning the anterior pituitary gland, one of following is true.
Your Answer: Produces glycoproteins
Explanation:The posterior pituitary and the hypothalamus are connected by the pituitary stalk. It contains in the pituitary sella and has the optic chiasm and hypothalamus as superior relations.
The anterior pituitary produces thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), luteinising hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) . These hormones are Glycoproteins and share a common alpha subunit with unique beta subunits.
The secretion of pituitary hormones are pulsatile. Examples are LH, adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) and growth hormone (GH).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A single intravenous dose of 100 mg phenytoin was administered to a 70 kg patient and plasma concentration monitored.
The concentration in plasma over time is recorded as follows:
Time (hours) 1 2 3 4 5
Concentration (mcg/mL) 100 71 50 35.5 25
From the data available, the drug is likely eliminated by?Your Answer: First-order kinetics with a half life of 3 hours
Correct Answer: First-order kinetics with a half-life of 2 hours
Explanation:Elimination of phenytoin from the body follows first-order kinetics. This means that the rate of elimination is proportional to plasma concentration.
The rate of elimination can be described by the equation:
C = C0·e-kt
Where:
C = drug concentration
C0 = drug concentration at time zero (extrapolated)
k = Rate constant
t = TimeEnzyme systems become saturated when phenytoin concentrations exceed the normal range and elimination of the drug becomes zero-order. At this point, the drug is metabolised at a fixed rate and metabolism is independent of plasma concentration.
Aspirin and ethyl alcohol are other drugs that behave this way.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 16-year-old female presented to the hospital with a chief complaint of headache, photophobia, fever, and confusion. She is treated empirically with antibiotics. Which of the following represents the correct mechanism of action of the most commonly used first-line antibiotic class?
Your Answer: Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
Explanation:Based on the presenting symptoms, this is the case of bacterial meningitis. The treatment of choice for bacterial meningitis is a cephalosporin. Cephalosporin acts by inhibiting bacterial cell wall synthesis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 74-year-old with a VVI pacemaker is undergoing a hip replacement.
Which of the following is most likely to predispose him to an electrical hazard?Your Answer: Use of bipolar diathermy
Correct Answer: Use of cutting unipolar diathermy
Explanation:A single chamber pacemaker was implanted in the patient. In VVI mode, a pacemaker paces and senses the ventricle while being inhibited by a perceived ventricular event. The most likely electrical hazard from diathermy is electromagnetic interference (EMI).
EMI has the potential to cause the following: Inhibition of pacing
Asynchronous pacing
Reset to backup mode
Myocardial burns, and
Trigger VF.Diathermy entails the implementation of high-frequency electrical currents to produce heat and either make incisions or induce coagulation. Monopolar cautery involves disposable cautery pencils and electrosurgical diathermy units. In typical monopolar cautery, an electrical plate is placed on the patient’s skin and acts as an electrode, while the current passes between the instrument and the plate. Monopolar diathermy can therefore interfere with implanted metal devices and pacemaker function.
Bipolar diathermy, where the current passes between the forceps tips and not through the patient and is less likely to generate EMI.
Whilst the presence of a CVP line may in theory predispose the patient to microshock, the use of prerequisite CF electrical equipment makes this very unlikely. The presence of a CVP line and pacemaker does not therefore unduly increase the risk of an electrical hazard.
Isolating transformers are used to protect secondary circuits and individuals from electrical shocks. There is no step-up or step-down voltage (i.e. there is a ratio of 1 to 1 between the primary and secondary windings).
A ground (or earth) wire is normally connected to the metal case of an operating table to protect patients from accidental electrocution. In the event that a fault allows a live wire to make contact with the metal table (broken cable, loose connection etc.) it becomes live. The earth will provide an immediate path for current to safely flow through and so the table remains safe to touch. Being a low resistance path, the earth lets a large current flow through it when the fault occurs ensuring that the fuse or RCD will quickly blow. Without an operating table earth, the patient is not at more risk of an electrical hazard because of the pacemaker.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man with a ventricular rate of 210 beats per minute is admitted to the emergency department with atrial fibrillation. The patient develops ventricular fibrillation shortly after receiving pharmacotherapy to treat his arrhythmia, from which he is successfully resuscitated.
He has a PR interval of 40 Ms, a prominent delta wave in lead I, and a QRS duration of 120 Ms, according to an ECG from a previous admission.
Which of the following drugs is most likely to be involved in this patient's development of ventricular fibrillation?Your Answer: Disopyramide
Correct Answer: Digoxin
Explanation:The Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome (WPWS) is linked to an additional electrical conduction pathway between the atria and ventricles. This accessory pathway (bundle of Kent), unlike the atrioventricular (AV) node, is incapable of slowing down a rapid rate of atrial depolarization. In other words, a short circuit bypasses the AV node. Patients with a rapid ventricular response or narrow complex AV re-entry tachycardia are more likely to develop atrial fibrillation or flutter.
Digoxin can promote impulse transmission through this accessory pathway if a patient with WPWS develops atrial fibrillation because it works by blocking the AV node. This can cause ventricular fibrillation and an extremely rapid ventricular rate. As a result, it’s not advised.
Adenosine, beta-blockers, and calcium channel blockers, among other drugs that interfere with AV nodal conduction, are also generally contraindicated.
The class III antiarrhythmic drugs amiodarone and ibutilide (K+ channel block) and procainamide (Na+ channel block) are the drugs of choice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 6
Correct
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With regards to this state of matter which has a volume but no definite shape, particles are not tightly packed together. These are incompressible although there is free movement within the volume.
This statement best describes which one of the following states of matter?Your Answer: Liquid
Explanation:The solid state of matter has a definite volume and shape and particles are packed closely together and are incompressible. Within this tight lattice, there is enough thermal energy to produce vibration of particles.
Liquids however have a volume but no definite shape. These particles are less tightly packed together. Although there is free movement within the volume, they are incompressible.
Gases, however, have no finite shape or volume and particles are free to move rapidly in a state of random motion. They are compressible and are completely shaped by the space in which they are held. Vapours exist as a gas phase in equilibrium with identical liquid or solid matter below its boiling point.
The most prevalent state of matter in the universe is plasma which is formed by heating atoms to very high temperatures to form ions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Physics
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Question 7
Correct
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A 28-year-old girl complained of severe abdominal pain and hematemesis and was rushed into the emergency department. She has an increased heart rate of 120 beats per minute and blood pressure of 90/65. She has a history of taking Naproxen for her Achilles tendinopathy. On urgent endoscopy, she is diagnosed with a bleeding peptic ulcer.
The immediate treatment is to permanently stop the bleeding by performing embolization of the left gastric artery via an angiogram.
What level of the vertebra will be used as a radiological marker for the origin of the artery that supplies the left gastric artery during the angiogram?Your Answer: T12
Explanation:The left gastric artery is the smallest branch that originates from the coeliac trunk—the coeliac trunk branches of the abdominal aorta at the vertebral level of T12.
The left gastric artery runs along the superior portion of the lesser curvature of the stomach. A peptic ulcer that is serious enough to erode through the stomach mucosa into a branch of the left gastric artery can cause massive blood loss in the stomach, leading to hematemesis. The patient also takes Naproxen, a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug that is a common cause for peptic ulcers in otherwise healthy patients.
The left gastric artery is responsible for 85% of upper GI bleeds. In cases refractory to initial treatment, angiography is sometimes needed to embolise the vessel at its origin and stop bleeding. During an angiogram, the radiologist will enter the aorta via the femoral artery, ascend to the level of the 12th vertebrae and then enter the left gastric artery via the coeliac trunk.
The important landmarks of vessels arising from the abdominal aorta at different levels of vertebrae are:
T12 – Coeliac trunk
L1 – Left renal artery
L2 – Testicular or ovarian arteries
L3 – Inferior mesenteric artery
L4 – Bifurcation of the abdominal aorta
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 8
Incorrect
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All of the following are causes of hypalbuminaemia except:
Your Answer: Renal failure
Correct Answer: Starvation
Explanation:Major surgery induces the systemic inflammatory response and this causes endothelial leakage and a low albumin level.
Albumin is a single polypeptide which is made but not stored in the liver. Therefore, levels are a reflection of synthetic activity. It is negatively charged and very soluble.
Only 40% of albumin is intravascular, and the rest in the in interstitial compartment.
If there was normal liver function during starvation, albumin will be maintained and proteolysis will occur elsewhere.
It is not catabolised during starvation.
Starvation and malnutrition may, however, present as part of other disease processes that are associated with hypalbuminaemia.Causes of low albumin are
1. Decreased production (hepatic dysfunction)
2. Increased loss (renal dysfunction)
3. Redistribution (endothelial leak/damage)
4. Increased catabolism (very rare) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Concerning the intercostal nerves, which one of the following is true?
Your Answer: The eleventh intercostal nerve is also known as the subcostal nerve
Correct Answer: Each is connected to a ganglion of the sympathetic trunk
Explanation:The intercostal nerves arise from the ventral rami of the first 11 thoracic spinal nerves. they course along the costal groove on the lower margin of the rib.
The twelfth intercoastal nerve is called the subcostal nerve. This is because it is below the 12th rib.
Each intercostal nerve is connected to a ganglion of the sympathetic trunk from which it carries preganglionic and postganglionic fibres that innervate blood vessels, sweat glands, and muscles.
The lateral and medial pectoral nerves innervates pectoralis major muscle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Modified rapid sequence induction with 1mg/kg rocuronium was done is a 42-year-old male for emergency appendicectomy. The patient weight was 70 kg and a failed intubation indicated immediate reversal of neuromuscular blockade.
Which of the following is the correct dose of sugammadex for this patient?Your Answer: 140 mg
Correct Answer: 1120 mg
Explanation:Sugammadex is used for immediate reversal of rocuronium-induced neuromuscular blockade.
It is used at a dose of 16 mg/kg.Since the patient in the question is 70 kg, the required dose of sugammadex can be calculated as:
16×70 = 1120 mg.Sugammadex selectively binds rocuronium or vecuronium, thereby reversing their neuromuscular blocking action. Due to its 1:1 binding of rocuronium or vecuronium, it can reverse any depth of neuromuscular block.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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