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Question 1
Correct
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Which muscles are attached to the tibial tuberosity?
Your Answer: Vastus intermedius
Explanation:The tuberosity of the tibia is the site of attachment to the ligamentum patella (the tendon of the quadriceps femoris muscle which include four heads: rectus femoris, vastus medialis, intermedius and lateralis).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old woman presented to the doctor complaining of spine pain, fatigue and oliguria. She is diagnosed with chronic renal failure. Dipstick testing shows no protein, glucose, nitrite or ketones but a semi-quantitative sulphosalicylic acid test for urine protein is positive. Which of the following is the most probable cause of chronic renal failure in this patient.
Your Answer: Membranous glomerulonephritis
Correct Answer: Multiple myeloma
Explanation:Dipstick results are negative because the proteins found in the urine of this patient are not albumin but Bence Jones proteins. A Bence Jones protein is a monoclonal globulin protein commonly detected in patients affected by multiple myeloma. Multiple myeloma is a malignancy of plasma cells characterised by the production of monoclonal immunoglobulin. Symptoms include bone pain, bone fractures, bleeding, neurologic symptoms, fatigue, frequent infections and weight loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathology
- Renal
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Question 3
Correct
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The midgut loop, also called the primary intestinal loop in a developing embryo, is formed when the midgut bends around which of the following arteries?
Your Answer: Superior mesenteric
Explanation:In a developing foetus, the midgut develops to form most of the intestines. During this development process, the midgut usually bends around the superior mesenteric artery and forms what is referred to as the midgut loop.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 65-year old gentleman presents to the clinic with chronic back pain and weight loss. His blood count shows a white blood cell count of 10 × 109/l, with a differential count of 66 polymorphonuclear leukocytes, 7 bands, 3 metamyelocytes, 3 myelocytes, 14 lymphocytes, 7 monocytes, and 5 nucleated red blood cells. The haemoglobin is 13 g/dl with a haematocrit of 38.1%, a mean corpuscular volume of 82 fl, and a platelet count of 126 × 109/l. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
Correct Answer: Metastatic carcinoma
Explanation:The peripheral blood findings suggest a leucoerythroblastic picture, the common causes of which in a 65-year old gentleman includes prostatic or lung malignancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
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Question 5
Correct
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Electrophoresis is used to detect antibodies (immunoglobulins) in a blood sample from the umbilical artery of a new born. Which antibodies have the highest percentage in a new-born?
Your Answer: IgG
Explanation:IgG is a monomeric immunoglobulin. It is formed by two heavy chains and two light chains and has two binding sites. Its is the most abundant antibody that is equally distributed in the blood and the tissues. It is the only antibody that can pass through the placenta and thus the only antibody present in the baby after it is born. There are four subclasses: IgG1 (66%), IgG2 (23%), IgG3 (7%) and IgG4 (4%). IgG1, IgG3 and IgG4 cross the placenta easily
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General
- Physiology
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Question 6
Correct
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An abnormal opening of the urethra on the under surface of the penis (ventral surface) is known as:
Your Answer: Hypospadias
Explanation:Hypospadias is the condition where the urethra opens along the underside or ventral aspect of penile shaft. First-degree hypospadias is seen in 50-75% cases, where the urethra open on the glans penis. Second-degree hypospadias is seen in 20% cases where the urethra opens on the shaft, and third-degree in 30% cases with the urethra opening on the perineum. The severe cases are usually associated with undescended testis (cryptorchidism) or chordee, where the penis is tethered downwards and not completely separated from the perineum.
It is a common male genital birth defect but varying incidences are noted in different countries. There is no obvious inheritance pattern noted. No exact cause has been determined, however several hypotheses include poor response to androgen, or interference by environmental factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathology
- Urology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A neonate is diagnosed with cryptorchidism of the right side (undescended testis). Which is the LEAST likely place to find the testis?
Your Answer: Somewhere in the inguinal canal
Correct Answer: Perineum
Explanation:Embryologically the testes are retroperitoneal structures in the posterior abdominal wall, attached to the anterolateral abdominal wall by the gubernaculum. The gubernaculum ‘pulls’ the testes through the deep inguinal ring, inguinal canal and superficial inguinal ring and over the pelvic brim. The gubernaculum is preceded by the processus vaginalis that is derived from the peritoneum anterior to the testes. The processus vaginalis pushes the muscle and fascial layers. These eventually make up the canal and the spermatic cord, into the scrotum. The gubernaculum persists as the scrotal ligament while part of the processus vaginalis remains as a bursa-like sac i.e. the tunica vaginalis testes. The testes therefore could be caught in any one of these places along its path of descending. The testes are never in the perineum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 8
Correct
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What is the normal duration of PR interval on an electrocardiogram of a healthy individual?
Your Answer: 0.12–0.20 s
Explanation:PR interval extends from the beginning of the P-wave until the beginning of the QRS complex. The normal duration of the PR interval is 0.12-0.20 s. It can be prolonged in first degree heart block, and reduced in Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 50 year old woman presented with excessive bleeding after an inguinal hernia repair. Labs are suggestive of a primary haemostasis defect. Deficiency of which of the following is most likely to cause it?
Your Answer: Factor IX
Correct Answer: Platelets
Explanation:Primary haemostatic control means the first line of defence against immediate bleeding. This is carried out by the platelets. They immediately form a haemostatic plug at the site of injury. Coagulation starts within 20s after an injury to the blood vessel which damage the endothelial cells. Secondary haemostasis follows which includes activation of the coagulation factors to form fibrin strands which mesh together forming the platelet plug. Platelets interact with platelet collagen receptor, glycoprotein Ia/IIa and to collagen fibres in the vascular endothelium. This adhesion is mediated by von Willebrand factor (vWF), which forms links between the platelet glycoprotein Ib/IX/V and collagen fibrils. The platelets are then activated and release the contents of their granules into the plasma, in turn activating other platelets and white blood cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General
- Physiology
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Question 10
Correct
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Which of the following structures is affected or damaged when the 'anterior drawer test' is positive?
Your Answer: Anterior cruciate ligament
Explanation:The anterior drawer test is an important orthopaedic test that is used to test weakness of the anterior cruciate ligament. The test is done by having the patient sit in a supine position with his/her knees flexed at 90 degrees. An examiner stabilises the patients feet and softly pulls or pushes on the proximal tibia. The test is positive if there is translational movement of the tibia in relation to the femur, indicating a weakened anterior cruciate ligament. The anterior cruciate ligament prevents the tibia from sliding out in front of the femur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A patient presents with loss of fine touch and sense of proprioception in the lower part of the body (below T6). He is likely to have a lesion involving:
Your Answer: Lateral spinothalamic tract
Correct Answer: Gracile nucleus
Explanation:The gracile nucleus is located in the medulla oblongata and is one of the dorsal column nuclei involved in the sensation of fine touch and proprioception. It contains second-order neurons of the dorsal column–medial lemniscus system, that receive inputs from sensory neurones of the dorsal root ganglia and send axons that synapse in the thalamus.
The gracile nucleus and fasciculus carry epicritic, kinaesthetic and conscious proprioceptive information from the lower part of the body (below the level of T6 in the spinal cord). Similar information from the upper part of body (above T6, except for face and ear) is carried by the cuneate nucleus and fasciculus. The information from face and ear is carried by the primary sensory trigeminal nucleus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 55 year old man presented with a 4 day history of cough and fever. His sputum culture showed the presence of Strep pneumoniae. Which of the following substances produced by the inflammatory cells will result in effective clearance of this organism from the lung parenchyma?
Your Answer: Leukotriene
Correct Answer: Hydrogen peroxide
Explanation:Hydrogen peroxide is produced by myeloperoxidase to form a potent oxidant that eliminates bacteria, but is not effective in chronic granulomatous diseases.
Platelet activating factor will lead to the activation, adhesion and aggregation of platelets but will not directly kill bacteria.
Prostaglandins cause vasodilation but do not activate neutrophils.
Kallikrein promotes formation of bradykinin that leads to vasodilation.
Leukreines increase vascular permeability.
Cytokines are communicating molecules between immune cells but directly will not kill bacteria.
Interleukins will regulate the immune response.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Inflammation & Immunology; Respiratory
- Pathology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A blood sample of a 58 year old male patient, who underwent an abdominal aortic aneurysm repair, was sent to the laboratory. The laboratory technician said that the patient’s blood agglutinates with antisera anti-A and anti-D, while the patient’s serum agglutinates cells of blood group B. What is the blood group of this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A positive
Explanation:Group A – has only the A antigen on red cells (and B antibody in the plasma)
Group B – has only the B antigen on red cells (and A antibody in the plasma)
Group AB – has both A and B antigens on red cells (but neither A nor B antibody in the plasma)
Group O – has neither A nor B antigens on red cells (but both A and B antibody are in the plasma). Many people also have a so-called Rh factor on the red blood cell’s surface. This is also an antigen and those who have it are called Rh+. A person with Rh– blood does not have Rh antibodies naturally in the blood plasma (as one can have A or B antibodies, for instance) but they can develop Rh antibodies in the blood plasma if they receive blood from a person with Rh+ blood, whose Rh antigens can trigger the production of Rh antibodies. A person with Rh+ blood can receive blood from a person with Rh– blood without any problems. In this scenario the person has blood group A+ as he has A antigen, anti B antibody and Rh antigen
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General
- Physiology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 5 year-old-child with fever complains of sore throat . She was brought to her paediatrician for consult because she has also developed a rash and has swollen lymph nodes. Upon physical examination she cried when her liver was palpated and the tip of her spleen is slightly palpable. Full blood count shows haemoglobin 13 g/dL, Haematocrit 40%, white blood cell count 13x109/L with a WBC differential count of 45 neutrophils, 4 bands, 26 lymphocytes, 15 atypical lymphocytesm, 10 monocytes and 1 eosinophil. Whick is the most likely infectious agent that is responsible for the patient's condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Epstein–Barr virus
Explanation:Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), also known as human herpes virus 4,is a member of the herpes virus family. EBV spreads most commonly through bodily fluids, primarily saliva. EBV can cause infectious mononucleosis. Symptoms of EBV can include fatigue, fever, inflamed throat, swollen lymph nodes in the neck, enlarged spleen, swollen liver and rash.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Pathology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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During a car accident, the side mirror shattered and a broken piece of glass severed the posterolateral aspect of the driver's neck. A physical examination reveals that the driver is unable to elevate the tip of his shoulder on the side that was injured. Which nerve was injured?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Accessory
Explanation:The tip of the shoulder is formed by the acromion of the scapula. This part is moved by the trapezius muscle which is innervated by the accessory nerve. Damage to this nerve therefore will prevent the patient from lifting the tip of the shoulder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 45 year old women has a 4 cm non tender mass in her right breast which is fixed to the chest wall. Another 2cm non-tender mass is palpable in the left axilla. Chest x ray reveals multiple nodules ranging from 0.5 - 0.2 cm in both the lungs. What is the stage of her disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: T4 N1 M1
Explanation:This woman has an invasive primary tumour mass with axillary node and lung metastases, making this stage T4 N1 M1. Looking at the other stems, T1 N1 M0 signifies a small primary cancer with nodal metastases but no distant metastases; T1 N0 M1 signifies a small primary cancer with no lymph node metastases but with distant metastases; T2 N1 M0 signifies a larger primary cancer with nodal metastases but no distant metastases; and T3 N0 M0 indicates a larger primary cancer with no metastases to either lymph nodes or to distant sites.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neoplasia; Female Health
- Pathology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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The absence of which of the following components characterizes the grey platelet syndrome (GPS)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alpha granules
Explanation:Grey platelet syndrome (GPS) is a rare inherited bleeding disorder associated with an almost total absence of α-granules and their contents. The syndrome is characterised by thrombocytopenia, enlarged platelets that have a grey appearance, myelofibrosis, and splenomegaly. Alpha granules store proteins and growth factors that promote platelet adhesiveness and wound healing. Patients with GPS develop symptoms and signs such as easy bruising, prolonged bleeding, and nose bleeds.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Which of the following can lead to haemolytic anaemia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Presence of haemoglobin S
Explanation:Haemoglobin S is an abnormal type of haemoglobin seen in sickle cell anaemia. This allows for the haemoglobin to crystalize within the RBC upon exposure to low partial pressures of oxygen. This results in rupture of the RBCs as they pass through microcirculation, especially in the spleen. This can cause blockage of the vessel down stream and ischaemic death of tissues, accompanied by severe pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General
- Physiology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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During an exploratory laparotomy a herniation of bowel is identified between the lateral edge of the rectus abdominis, the inguinal ligament and the inferior epigastric vessels. These boundaries define the hernia as being a:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Direct inguinal hernia
Explanation:The boundaries given define the inguinal triangle which is the site for direct inguinal hernias. Indirect inguinal hernias occur lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels.
Femoral hernias protrude through the femoral ring, into the femoral canal.
Umbilical hernias protrude through a defect in the umbilical area.
Obturator hernias, occur through the obturator foramen. These are very rare.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A patient presented with continuous bleeding several hours after dental extraction. Which of the following findings is most often associated with clinical bleeding?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Factor IX deficiency
Explanation:Factor IX deficiency, also called Haemophilia B or Christmas disease, is a disorder caused by missing or defective clotting factor IX. Deficiency of the factor IX causes irregular bleeding that can happen spontaneously or after mild trauma, surgery and dental extractions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Which is the most common benign germ-cell tumour that could occur in a premenopausal woman?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dermoid cyst
Explanation:A dermoid cyst is a teratoma of a cystic nature that contains an array of developmentally mature and solid tissues. Dermoid cysts grow slowly and this type of cystic teratoma is nearly always benign.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neoplasia
- Pathology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 40-year old lady presented to the hospital with fever and mental confusion for 1 week. On examination, she was found to have multiple petechiae all over her skin and mucosal surfaces. Blood investigations revealed low platelet count and raised urea and creatinine. A platelet transfusion was carried out, following which she succumbed to death. Autopsy revealed pink hyaline thrombi in myocardial arteries. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
Explanation:Hyaline thrombi are typically associated with thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP), which is caused by non-immunological destruction of platelets. Platelet transfusion is contraindicated in TTP. Platelets and red blood cells also get damaged by loose strands of fibrin deposited in small vessels. Multiple organs start developing platelet-fibrin thrombi (bland thrombi with no vasculitis) typically at arteriocapillary junctions. This is known as ‘thrombotic microangiopathy’. Treatment consists of plasma exchange.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 31 -year-old female patient had a blood gas done on presentation to the emergency department. She was found to have a metabolic acidosis and decreased anion gap. The most likely cause of these findings in this patient would be?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypoalbuminemia
Explanation:A low anion gap might be caused by alterations in serum protein levels, primarily albumin (hypoalbuminemia), increased levels of calcium (hypercalcaemia) and magnesium (hypermagnesemia) or bromide and lithium intoxication. However, the commonest cause is hypoalbuminemia, thus if the albumin concentration falls, the anion gap will also be lower. The anion gap should be corrected upwards by 2.5 mmol/l for every 10g/l fall in the serum albumin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Fluids & Electrolytes
- Pathology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Both the arytenoid muscles and the lateral cricoarytenoid muscles perform this action on the glottis:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Adduction
Explanation:Both the arytenoid and the cricoartenoid muscles close the glottis. The lateral cricoarytenoid muscles extend from the lateral cricoid cartilage to the muscular process of the arytenoid cartilage. By rotating the arytenoid cartilages medially, these muscles adduct the vocal cords and thereby close the rima glottidis. The arytenoid muscle adducts or approximates the arytenoid cartilages, and thus closes the aperture of the glottis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 14 year old girl suffers from haemophilia A and chronic knee pain with progressive swelling and deformity over the last 4 years. Test results reveal a significantly reduced factor VIII activity. Which of the following is seen in the knee joint space after an acute painful episode?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cholesterol crystals
Explanation:Due to breakdown of the red blood cell membrane in haemophilic patients, cholesterol crystals are formed by the lipids. On the other hand lipofuscin deposition does not occur in haemolysis or haemorrhage. Neutrophil accumulation suggests acute inflammation. Anthracotic pigment is an exogenous carbon pigment that deposits in the lung from dust. Russell bodies are intracellular accumulations of immunoglobins in plasma cells. Curschmann’s spirals and Charcot Leyden crystals are pathognomonic of asthma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Injury & Wound Healing; Haematology
- Pathology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Following an accident, a man was unable to extend the wrist and metacarpophalangeal joints, despite sensation being intact. Which nerve was likely damaged?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Posterior interosseous nerve
Explanation:The posterior interosseous nerve which causes, what is known as the posterior interosseous nerve syndrome. The nerve is compressed before it bifurcates to form the medial and lateral branches. The compression is beyond the origin of the branches to the radial wrist extensors and the radial sensory nerve. The result of such a case is paralysis of the digital extensors and the extensor carpi ulnaris, resulting in dorsoradial deviation of the wrist.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 27
Incorrect
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The dura mater is a thick membrane that is the outermost of the three layers of the meninges. Which of the following foramen transmits the dura mater?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Foramen magnum
Explanation:The foramen magnum is found in the most inferior part of the posterior cranial fossa . It is traversed by vital structures including the medulla oblongata . Its contents include the following: medulla oblongata, meninges (arachnoid, dura and pia mater), spinal root of the accessory nerve, vertebral arteries, anterior and posterior spinal arteries, tectorial membrane and alar ligaments .
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Which of the following malignancies is likely to have the best prognosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Papillary carcinoma of the thyroid
Explanation:Papillary carcinoma accounts for 70-80% of all thyroid cancers and is seen commonly in people aged 30-60 years. It is more aggressive in elderly patients. 10-20% cases may have recurrence or persistent disease. More common in females with a female to male ratio of 3:1. Papillary carcinomas can also contain follicular carcinomas. The common route of spread is through lymphatics to regional nodes in one-third cases and pulmonary metastasis can also occur. Papillary carcinomas of the thyroid have the best prognosis, especially in patients less than 45 years of age with small tumours confined to the thyroid gland.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine
- Pathology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 33-year old lady presented to the gynaecology clinic with amenorrhoea for 6 months and a recent-onset of milk discharge from her breasts. She was not pregnant or on any medication. On enquiry, she admitted to having frequent headaches the last 4 months. Which of the following findings would you expect to see in her condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hyperprolactinaemia
Explanation:Excessively high levels of prolactin in the blood is called hyperprolactinaemia. Normally, prolactin levels are less than 580 mIU/l in females and less than 450 mIU/l in men. The biologically inactive macroprolactin can lead to a false high reading. However, the patient remains asymptomatic. Dopamine down-regulates prolactin whereas oestrogen upregulates it. Hyperprolactinaemia can be caused due to lack of inhibition (compression of pituitary stalk or low dopamine levels), or increased production due to a pituitary adenoma (prolactinoma). Either of these causes can lead to a prolactin level of 1000-5000 mIU/l. However, levels more than 5000mIU/l are usually associated due to an adenoma and >100,000 mIU/l are seen in macroadenomas (tumours < 1cm in diameter). Increased prolactin causes increased dopamine release from the arcuate nucleus of hypothalamus. This increased dopamine in turn, inhibits the GnRH (Gonadotrophin Releasing Hormone) thus blocking gonadal steroidogenesis resulting in the symptoms of hyperprolactinaemia. In women, it includes hypoestrogenism, anovulatory infertility, decreased or irregular menstruation or complete amenorrhoea. It can even cause production of breast milk, loss of libido, vaginal dryness and osteoporosis. In men, the symptoms include impotence, decreased libido, erectile dysfunction and infertility. In men, treatment can be delayed due to late diagnosis as they have no reliable indicator such as menstruation that might indicate a problem. Most of the male patients seek help only when headaches and visual defects start to surface.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine
- Pathology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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What is the nerve supply to the muscles of the lateral compartment of the leg ?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Superficial peroneal nerve
Explanation:The peroneus longus and peroneus brevis in the lateral compartment of the leg take nerve supply from the superficial peroneal nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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