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  • Question 1 - Regarding shingles, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding shingles, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: You can catch chickenpox from a patient with shingles.

      Explanation:

      After primary infection, VZV remains latent in sensory ganglia and in about 20% of patients will reactivate resulting in shingles, a painful vesicular rash in the related dermatome. Shingles usually affects older people and the immunocompromised. Shingles lesions are infectious to non-immune individuals who are at risk of developing chickenpox. Shingles can not be contracted directly from chickenpox, or from other cases of shingles. Shingles is treated with systemic antiviral treatment to reduce the severity and duration of pain, reduce complications, and reduce viral shedding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      15.8
      Seconds

  • Question 2 - You suspected a fungal nail infection in a 50-year-old man who presented with...

    Incorrect

    • You suspected a fungal nail infection in a 50-year-old man who presented with an itchy, scaly rash between his toes and a thicker, discoloured nail on his big toe that has been there for almost one month already. Which of the following tests is most likely to confirm your suspected diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Skin biopsy

      Correct Answer: Nail clippings for microscopy and culture

      Explanation:

      Nail clippings for microscopy and culture are a diagnostic test for fungal infection. Because some fungi are restricted to the lower parts of the nail, clippings should be taken from the discoloured or brittle parts and cut back as far as possible from the free edge.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      18.3
      Seconds

  • Question 3 - The first line drug for oral candidiasis is: ...

    Correct

    • The first line drug for oral candidiasis is:

      Your Answer: Nystatin

      Explanation:

      Treatment for oral candidiasis is with nystatin mouthwash. In unresponsive cases, oral fluconazole is used

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      8.7
      Seconds

  • Question 4 - Streptococcus pneumoniae is commonly implicated in all of the following infectious diseases EXCEPT...

    Correct

    • Streptococcus pneumoniae is commonly implicated in all of the following infectious diseases EXCEPT for:

      Your Answer: Impetigo

      Explanation:

      Impetigo is a highly contagious infection of the superficial epidermis that most commonly affects young children but can occur in any age group. In children it is the most common bacterial skin infection and it is the third most common skin disease overall, behind dermatitis and viral warts.
      The commonest causative organism is Staphylococcus aureus. Streptococcus pyogenesis the second commonest and causes fewer cases, either alone or in combination withS. aureus.The streptococcal form tends to be commoner in warmer, more humid climates. (Hirschmann JV. Impetigo: etiology and therapy. Curr Clin Top Infect Dis. 2002;22:42–51.)
      Impetigo is most commonly spread by direct person-to-person contact, and can spread rapidly through families and school classes. It can also, less commonly, be spread by indirect contact.
      There are two main forms of impetigo:
      Non-bullous impetigo – lesions usually start as tiny pustules or vesicles that evolve rapidly into honey-crusted plaques that tend to be under 2 cm in diameter. These can be itchy but are rarely painful.
      Bullous impetigo – lesions have a thin roof and tend to rupture spontaneously. This type is more likely to be painful and may be associated with systemic upset.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      9.5
      Seconds

  • Question 5 - In the emergency room, a patient was diagnosed with acute bacterial tonsillitis. Which...

    Correct

    • In the emergency room, a patient was diagnosed with acute bacterial tonsillitis. Which of the following postinfectious complications is most commonly linked to Streptococcus pyogenes:

      Your Answer: Glomerulonephritis

      Explanation:

      Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis (PSGN) is caused by prior infection with specific nephritogenic strains of group A beta-haemolytic streptococcus. The clinical presentation of PSGN varies from asymptomatic, microscopic haematuria to the full-blown acute nephritic syndrome, characterized by red to brown urine, proteinuria (which can reach the nephrotic range), oedema, hypertension, and acute kidney injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      1283
      Seconds

  • Question 6 - Infection with Campylobacter jejuni is one of the most common risk factors for...

    Incorrect

    • Infection with Campylobacter jejuni is one of the most common risk factors for which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer: Haemolytic uraemic syndrome

      Correct Answer: Guillain-Barre syndrome

      Explanation:

      One of the most common risk factors for GBS is infection with Campylobacter jejuni, which causes diarrhoea.

      Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS) is a rare autoimmune disorder in which the body’s immune system attacks the nerves, resulting in muscle weakness and paralysis.

      Infection with Streptococcus pyogenes can cause acute glomerulonephritis and rheumatic fever.

      Haemolytic uraemic syndrome is commonly linked to E. coli infection.

      Following measles infection, subacute sclerosing panencephalitis develops.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      6.4
      Seconds

  • Question 7 - About what percentage of patients with hepatitis A develop chronic infection: ...

    Incorrect

    • About what percentage of patients with hepatitis A develop chronic infection:

      Your Answer: 0.05

      Correct Answer: None

      Explanation:

      Chronic hepatitis and carrier state does not occur in hepatitis A infection and complete immunity is attained after infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      10.4
      Seconds

  • Question 8 - Regarding Clostridium tetani, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding Clostridium tetani, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Tetanolysin impairs release of GABA at the presynaptic membrane.

      Correct Answer: Metronidazole is usually the antibiotic of choice for tetanus infection.

      Explanation:

      Clostridium tetani infection is predominantly derived from animal faeces and soil.  Clostridium tetani has exotoxin-mediated effects, predominantly by tetanospasmin which inhibits the release of GABA at the presynaptic membrane throughout the central and peripheral nervous system. Metronidazole has overtaken penicillin as the antibiotic of choice for treatment of tetanus (together with surgical debridement, tetanus toxoid immunisation, and human tetanus immunoglobulin).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      15.5
      Seconds

  • Question 9 - When a child has mumps, how long should he or she be off...

    Correct

    • When a child has mumps, how long should he or she be off from school?

      Your Answer: 5 days from onset of swelling

      Explanation:

      To avoid the spread of infection, infected patients should be isolated. Patients should avoid going to school, childcare, or job for five days after the swelling has occurred.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      13.6
      Seconds

  • Question 10 - A 5 day old, full term neonate is with a unilateral purulent...

    Incorrect

    • A 5 day old, full term neonate is with a unilateral purulent eye discharge noticed earlier that day is brought in. On gram stain of the exudate, no bacteria are seen.

      What is the most likely causative pathogen?

      Your Answer: Neisseria gonorrhoea

      Correct Answer: Chlamydia trachomatis

      Explanation:

      Conjunctivitis occurring in the first 28 days of life (Ophthalmia neonatorum) is most commonly caused by Chlamydia trachomatis in the UK.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      8.2
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Microbiology (5/10) 50%
Pathogens (5/10) 50%
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