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  • Question 1 - A patient with a known history of asymptomatic ventriculoseptal defect (VSD) is to...

    Incorrect

    • A patient with a known history of asymptomatic ventriculoseptal defect (VSD) is to undergo an orthopaedic surgery under general anaesthesia. The rest of the patient's medical history, such as allergies and previous operations, are unremarkable.

      What is the best antibiotic prophylaxis prior to surgery?

      Your Answer: A dose of cefuroxime IV and metronidazole IV as antibiotic prophylaxis against infective endocarditis

      Correct Answer: No antibiotic prophylaxis required as the defect is repaired and no evidence of benefit from routine prophylaxis

      Explanation:

      According to the 2015 National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) Guidelines, antibiotic prophylaxis against infective endocarditis (IE) is not recommended routinely for people with any cardiac defect (corrected or uncorrected) due to lack of sufficient evidence regarding its benefits. Instead, antibiotic prophylaxis is recommended for those who are at risk of developing IE, such as those with acquired valvular heart disease with stenosis or regurgitation; hypertrophic cardiomyopathy; valve replacement; and previous IE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      71.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Of the stated laws, which is correct? ...

    Correct

    • Of the stated laws, which is correct?

      Your Answer: Boyle's law states that at constant temperature the volume of a given mass of gas varies inversely with absolute pressure.

      Explanation:

      Boyle’s law is correctly stated as it states that the volume of a gas of known mass is inversely proportional with absolute pressure, at a constant temperature.

      Beer’s law states that radiation absorption by a solution of known thickness and concentration is identical to that of a solution of double thickness and half concentration.

      Bougner’s (or Lambert’s) law states that every layer with the same thickness will absorb the same amount of radiation as it passes through.

      Graham’s law states that the diffusion rate of a gas is inversely related to the square root of its molecular weight.

      Raoult’s law states that the reduction of a solvent’s vapour pressure is directly proportional to the solute’s molar concentration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      190.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following statements is true regarding oxytocin? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding oxytocin?

      Your Answer: Causes relaxation of myoepithelial cells in mammary glands

      Correct Answer: Reduces the threshold for depolarisation of the uterine smooth muscle

      Explanation:

      Oxytocin is secreted by the posterior pituitary along with Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH). It increases the contraction of the upper segment (fundus and body) of the uterus whereas the lower segment is relaxed facilitating the expulsion of the foetus.

      Oxytocin acts through G protein-coupled receptor and phosphoinositide-calcium second messenger system to contract uterine smooth muscle.

      It has 0.5 to 1 % ADH activity introducing possibilities of water intoxication when used in high doses.

      The sensitivity of the uterus to oxytocin increases as the pregnancy progresses.

      It is used for induction of labour in post maturity and uterine inertia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      60
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - All the following statements are false regarding nitrous oxide except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All the following statements are false regarding nitrous oxide except:

      Your Answer: Is an NMDA agonist

      Correct Answer: Maintains carbon dioxide reactivity

      Explanation:

      Nitrous oxide increases cerebral blood flow by direct cerebral stimulation and tends to elevate intracranial pressure (ICP)

      It increases the cerebral metabolic rate of oxygen consumption (CMRO2)

      It is not an NMDA agonist as it antagonizes NMDA receptors.

      Cerebral autoregulation is impaired with the use of nitrous oxide but when used with propofol, it is maintained.

      Carbon dioxide reactivity is not affected by it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      25.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Out of the following, which therapy for acute severe asthma or life-threatening asthma...

    Incorrect

    • Out of the following, which therapy for acute severe asthma or life-threatening asthma has been NOT been approved in recent guidelines?

      Your Answer: Aminophylline

      Correct Answer: Heliox

      Explanation:

      Recommendations from the British Thoracic Society for acute severe asthma or life-threatening asthma are:

      1. Give controlled supplementary oxygen to all hypoxemic patients with acute severe asthma titrated to maintain a SpO₂ level of 94 98%.
      2. Use high-dose inhaled ?₂ agonists as first-line agents in patients with acute asthma and administer them as early as possible. Reserve
      intravenous ?₂ agonists for those patients in whom inhaled therapy cannot be used reliably.
      3. Give steroids in adequate doses to all patients with an acute asthma attack.
      4. Add nebulized ipratropium bromide (0.5 mg 4–6 hourly) to ?₂ agonist treatment for acute severe or life-threatening asthma or those with a poor initial response to ?₂ agonist therapy.
      5. Consider aminophylline for children with severe or life-threatening asthma unresponsive to maximal doses of bronchodilators and steroids.

      A review (including 12 case reports, three RCTs, and five other observational studies) of ketamine use in adults and children in status asthmaticus reported that ketamine is a potential bronchodilator. Still, prospective trials are needed before conclusions about effectiveness can be drawn.

      Heliox has no place in the current guidelines issued by the British Thoracic Society.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      27.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following vertebral levels is the site where the aorta perforates...

    Correct

    • Which of the following vertebral levels is the site where the aorta perforates the diaphragm?

      Your Answer: T12

      Explanation:

      The diaphragm divides the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity. Structures penetrate the diaphragm at different vertebral levels through openings in the diaphragm to communicate between the two cavities. The diaphragm has openings at three vertebral levels:

      T8: vena cava, terminal branches of the right phrenic nerve
      T10: oesophagus, vagal trunks, left anterior phrenic vessels, oesophageal branches of the left gastric vessels
      T12: descending aorta, thoracic duct, azygous and hemi-azygous vein

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      16.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - An 80-year old female was taken to the emergency room for chest pain....

    Correct

    • An 80-year old female was taken to the emergency room for chest pain. She has a medical history of coronary artery disease and previous episodes of atrial fibrillation. She was immediately attached to the cardiac monitor, which showed tachycardia at 148 beats per minute. The 12-lead ECG revealed atrial fibrillation.

      Digoxin was given as an anti-arrhythmic at 500 micrograms, which is higher than the maintenance dose routinely given. Why is this so?

      Your Answer: It has a high volume of distribution

      Explanation:

      When the loading dose of Digoxin is given, the primary thing to consider is the volume of distribution. The volume of distribution is the proportionality factor that relates the total amount of drug in the body to the concentration. LD is computed as:

      LD = Volume of distribution X (desired plasma concentration/bioavailability)

      Digoxin is an anti-arrhythmic drug with a large volume of distribution and high bioavailability, and only a small percentage of Digoxin is bound to plasma proteins (,20%).

      In the case, since the arrhythmia is not life-threatening, there is no need for the medication to work rapidly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      503.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Drug X, a new intravenous induction drug, is being administered as a bolus...

    Correct

    • Drug X, a new intravenous induction drug, is being administered as a bolus at regular time intervals, and the following data were observed:

      Time following injection (hours) vs Plasma concentration of drug X (mcg/mL)
      2 / 400
      6 / 100
      10 / 25
      14 / 6.25

      Which of the following values estimate the plasma half-life (T½) of drug X?

      Your Answer: 2 hours

      Explanation:

      Half life (T½) is the time required to change the amount of drug in the body by one-half (or 50%) during elimination. The time course of a drug in the body will depend on both the volume of distribution and the clearance.

      Extrapolating the values from the plasma concentration vs time:

      Plasma concentration at 0 hours = 800 mcg/mL
      Plasma concentration at 2 hours = 400 mcg/mL
      Plasma concentration at 4 hours = 200 mcg/mL
      Plasma concentration at 6 hours = 100 mcg/mL
      Plasma concentration at 8 hours = 50 mcg/mL
      Plasma concentration at 10 hours = 25 mcg/mL
      Plasma concentration at 12 hours = 12.5 mcg/mL
      Plasma concentration at 14 hours = 6.25 mcg/mL

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      17.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Activation of which of the following GABA A receptor subunit leads to anxiolytic...

    Incorrect

    • Activation of which of the following GABA A receptor subunit leads to anxiolytic effects of Benzodiazepines?

      Your Answer: Beta

      Correct Answer: Alpha

      Explanation:

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - These proprietary preparations of local anaesthetic are available in your hospital:

    Solution A contains...

    Incorrect

    • These proprietary preparations of local anaesthetic are available in your hospital:

      Solution A contains 10 mL 0.5% bupivacaine (plain), and
      Solution B contains 10 mL 0.5% bupivacaine with adrenaline 1 in 200,000.

      What is the pharmacokinetic difference between the two solutions?

      Your Answer: The pKa of solution A is more than solution B

      Correct Answer: The onset of action of solution A is quicker than solution B

      Explanation:

      The reasons for adding adrenaline to a local anaesthetic solution are:

      1. To Increase the duration of block
      2. To reduce absorption of the local anaesthetic into the circulation
      3. To Increase the upper safe limit of local anaesthetic (2.5 mg/kg instead of 2 mg/kg, in this case).

      The addition of adrenaline to bupivacaine does not affect its potency, lipid solubility, protein binding, or pKa(8.1 with or without adrenaline).

      The pH of bupivacaine is between 5-7. Premixed with adrenaline, it is 3.3-5.5.
      The onset of a local anaesthetic and its ability to penetrate membranes depends upon degree of ionisation. Compared with the ionised fraction, unionised local anaesthetic readily penetrates tissue membranes to site of action. The onset of action of solution B is slower. this is because the relationship between pKa(8.1) and pH(3.3-5.5) of the solution results in a greater proportion of ionised local anaesthetic molecules compared with solution A.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      74.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Rocuronium is substituted for succinylcholine during induction of anaesthesia for a caesarean section...

    Incorrect

    • Rocuronium is substituted for succinylcholine during induction of anaesthesia for a caesarean section delivery.

      Which of the following feature of rocuronium ensures the neonate shows no clinical signs of muscle relaxation?

      Your Answer: A large molecule

      Correct Answer: Highly ionised

      Explanation:

      Drugs cross the placenta by Simple, Ion channel and Facilitated diffusion; Exocytosis and Endocytosis, Osmosis, and Active transport (primary and secondary)

      The following factors influence rate of diffusion across the placenta:

      Protein binding
      Degree of ionisation
      Placental blood flow
      Maternal and foetal blood pH
      Materno-foetal concentration gradient.
      Thickness of placental membrane
      Molecular weight of drug <600 Daltons cross by diffusion
      Lipid solubility (lipid soluble molecules readily diffuse across the placenta)

      Rocuronium has a F/M ratios of 0.16, a 30% plasma protein binding, low lipid solubility, a low volume of distribution (0.25L/kg), and a high molecular weight (530Da).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      166.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - An arterial pressure transducer is supposedly in direct correlation to change, thus it...

    Correct

    • An arterial pressure transducer is supposedly in direct correlation to change, thus it is dependent on zero gradient drift and zero offset. Which of the following values will best compensate for the gradient drift?

      Your Answer: 0 mmHg and 200 mmHg

      Explanation:

      Since an arterial pressure transducer, and every other measuring apparatus, is prone to errors due to offset and gradient drifts, regular calibration is required to maintain accuracy of the instrument. The two-point calibration pressure values of 0 mmHg and 200 mmHg are within the physiologic range and can best compensate for the gradient drift.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      31.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A controlled retrospective study's level of evidence is? ...

    Correct

    • A controlled retrospective study's level of evidence is?

      Your Answer: Level 3

      Explanation:

      Level 1 – High-quality randomised controlled trial with statistically significant difference or no statistically significant difference but narrow confidence intervals (prospective controlled)

      Level 2 – Prospective comparative study (prospective uncontrolled)

      Level 3 – Case-control study, retrospective comparative study (retrospective controlled)

      Level 4 – Case series (retrospective uncontrolled)

      Level 5 – Expert opinion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - The pharmacologically inactive precursor of barbiturates is Barbituric acid. Because the molecule is...

    Incorrect

    • The pharmacologically inactive precursor of barbiturates is Barbituric acid. Because the molecule is heterocyclic, small structural changes can alter its pharmacological activity (structure function relationship).

      Which of the following modifications to the molecule has the greatest impact on the effectiveness of the barbiturate derivative?

      Your Answer: Methyl group at N1

      Correct Answer: Sulphur at C2

      Explanation:

      Barbituric acid is the barbiturates’ pharmacologically inactive precursor. A pyrimidine heterocyclic nucleus is formed by the condensation of urea and malonic acid. Its pharmacological activity can be influenced by minor structural changes (structure function relationship).

      The duration of action and potency as a sedative are influenced by the length of the side chains at C5. Barbiturates with three carbon atoms in their chain last longer than those with two. Anticonvulsant properties are enhanced by branched chains.

      The addition of a methyl group at N1 causes a faster onset/offset of action, but it also causes excitatory phenomena (twitching/lower convulsive threshold).

      The addition of oxygen and sulphur to C2 increases the molecule’s lipid solubility and thus its potency. Thiopentone (thiobarbiturate) has sulphur groups at C2, making it 20-200 times more lipid soluble than oxybarbiturates.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      73.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 28-year male patient presents to the GP with a 2-day history of...

    Correct

    • A 28-year male patient presents to the GP with a 2-day history of abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea. He reports that he was completely fine until one week ago when headache and general tiredness appeared. After further questioning, he revealed eating at a dodgy takeaway 3 days before the start of his symptoms.

      Which of the following diagnosis is most likely?

      Your Answer: Campylobacter

      Explanation:

      Giardiasis is known to have a longer incubation time and doesn’t cause bloody diarrhoea.

      Cholera usually doesn’t cause bloody diarrhoea.

      Generally, most of the E.coli strains do not cause bloody diarrhoea.

      Diverticulitis can be a cause of bloody stool but the history here points out to an infectious cause.

      Campylobacter infection is the most probable cause as it is characterized by a prodrome, abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      15.5
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 70-year-old man will have a PICC line inserted as he requires long-term...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man will have a PICC line inserted as he requires long-term parenteral nutrition. To gain venous access, the line is inserted into the basilic vein at the elbow region.

      As the catheter tip advances into the basilic vein, which venous structure will it first encounter?

      Your Answer: Axillary vein

      Explanation:

      A peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) line is a long, thin tube inserted into the vein of a patient’s arm to gain access to the large central veins near the heart. PICC line is indicated for parenteral nutrition or to deliver medications. They can be used for medium-term venous access, defined as anywhere between several weeks to 6 months.

      The veins of choice for PICC are:
      1. Basilic
      2. Brachial
      3. Cephalic
      4. Medial cubital vein

      The vein of choice is the right basilic vein as it has a large circumference and is located superficially. It has the most straight route to the final destination of PICC (SVC or Right atrium). It courses through the axillary vein, then the subclavian, and finally settles into the SVC. It also has the least number of valves and a shallow angle of insertion when compared to the other veins.

      The basilic vein drains the medial end of the dorsal arch of the upper limb, passes along the medial aspect of the forearm, and pierces the deep fascia at the elbow. The basilic vein joins the venae comitantes of the brachial artery to form the axillary vein at the elbow.
      The posterior circumflex humeral vein is encountered before the axillary vein. However, a PICC line is unlikely to enter this structure because of its entry angle into the basilic vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      20.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 50-year-old woman's blood pressure readings in the clinic are 170/109 mmHg, 162/100...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman's blood pressure readings in the clinic are 170/109 mmHg, 162/100 mmHg and 175/107 mmHg and her routine haematology, biochemistry, and 12-lead ECG are normal.

      She is assessed on the day of surgery prior to laparoscopic inguinal hernia repair and is found to be normally fit and well. Documentation of previous blood pressure measurements from her general practitioner in the primary healthcare setting are not available.

      What is your next course of action?

      Your Answer: Proceed with scheduled surgery without treatment

      Explanation:

      The AAGBI and the British Hypertension Society has published guidelines for the measurement of adult blood pressure and management of hypertension before elective surgery.

      The objective is to ensure that patients admitted for elective surgery have a known systolic blood pressure below 160 mmHg and diastolic blood pressures below 100 mmHg. The primary health care teams, if possible, should ensure that this is the case and provide evidence to the pre-assessment clinic staff or on admission.

      Avoiding cancellation on the day of surgery because of white coat hypertension is a secondary objective.

      Patients with blood pressures below 180 mmHg systolic and 110 mmHg diastolic (measured in the preop assessment clinic), who present to pre-operative assessment clinics without documented evidence of primary care blood pressures should proceed to elective surgery.

      In this question, the history/assessment does not appear to point to obvious end-organ damage so there is no indication for further investigation for secondary causes of hypertension or an echocardiogram at this point. Further review and treatment at this point is not required.

      However, you should write to the patient’s GP and encourage serial blood pressure measurements in the primary health care setting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      43.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Regarding gas laws, which one best explains the ability of a Bourdon gauge...

    Correct

    • Regarding gas laws, which one best explains the ability of a Bourdon gauge to measure temperature?

      Your Answer: Charles's law

      Explanation:

      Charles’ Law states that there is a direct correlation between temperature and volume, where pressure and amount gas are constant. As temperature increases, volume also increases.

      Boyle’s Law states that Pressure is inversely proportional to volume, assuming that temperature and amount of gas are constant. As volume increases, pressure decreases. In Dalton’s law of partial pressure, the total pressure exerted by a mixture of gases is equal to the sum of the partial pressure of the gases in mixture.

      According to Henry’s Law for concentration of dissolved gases, at a constant temperature, the amount of a given gas that dissolves in a given type and volume of liquid is directly proportional to the partial pressure of that gas in equilibrium with that liquid. An equivalent way of stating the law is that the solubility of a gas in a liquid is directly proportional to the partial pressure of the gas above the liquid.

      Gay-Lussac’s Law states that the pressure of a given mass of gas varies directly with the absolute temperature of the gas, when the volume is kept constant. This law is very similar to Charles’ Law, with the only difference being the type of container. Whereas the container in a Charles’ Law experiment is flexible, it is rigid in a Gay-Lussac’s Law experiment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Physics
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - The tip of a pulmonary artery flotation catheter becomes wedged when threaded through...

    Correct

    • The tip of a pulmonary artery flotation catheter becomes wedged when threaded through the chambers of the heart and the pulmonary artery.

      Which of the following options best describes the sequence of pressures measured at the catheter's tip during its passage through a normal patient's pulmonary artery?

      Your Answer: 0-12 mmHg, 2-25 mmHg, 12-25 mmHg and 8-12 mmHg

      Explanation:

      The tricuspid valve allows the tip of a pulmonary artery catheter to pass through the right atrium and into the right ventricle.

      The balloon will be inflated before crossing the pulmonary valve and entering the pulmonary artery, where it will eventually wedge or occlude the artery, providing an indirect measure of left atrial pressure.

      0-12 mmHg in the right atrium
      2-25 mmHg in the right ventricle
      12-25 mmHg in the pulmonary artery
      8-12 mmHg is the occlusion pressure

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which one of the following lies above the cephalic vein? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following lies above the cephalic vein?

      Your Answer: Bicipital aponeurosis

      Correct Answer: None of the above

      Explanation:

      The cephalic vein is one of the primary superficial veins of the upper limb. It overlies most of the fascial planes as it is located in the superficial fascia along the anterolateral surface of the biceps.

      It originates in the anatomical snuffbox from the radial side of the superficial venous network of the dorsum of the hand. It travels laterally up the arm to join the basilic vein via the median cubital vein at the elbow.

      Near the shoulder, it passes between the deltoid and pectoralis major muscles. It pierces the coracoid membrane (continuation of the clavipectoral fascia) to terminate in the axillary vein’s first part.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      19.5
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Pharmacology (1/8) 13%
Statistical Methods (3/3) 100%
Anatomy (2/4) 50%
Clinical Measurement (1/1) 100%
Physiology And Biochemistry (2/2) 100%
Pathophysiology (1/1) 100%
Basic Physics (1/1) 100%
Passmed