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  • Question 1 - Which statement is correct about the Mapleson anaesthetic breathing circuits? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement is correct about the Mapleson anaesthetic breathing circuits?

      Your Answer: The Jackson-Rees modification consists of closed ended reservoir bag

      Correct Answer: Mapleson A is most efficient for spontaneous ventilation

      Explanation:

      Mapleson breathing system (or circuit) analysed five different arrangements of components of the breathing system:
      Mapleson A – It is the most efficient for spontaneous respiration. The flow of fresh gas required is 70-85 ml/kg/min, i.e., approximately 5-6 lit./min fresh gas flow for an average adult.
      Mapleson B and C – inefficient for both SV and PPV; requires gas flow of two to three times minute volume (100 ml/kg/min). Not commonly used but category C may be used for emergency resuscitation.
      Mapleson D – efficient for PPV at gas flow equivalent to patient’s minute volume; the Bain’s circuit is a coaxial version of the Mapleson D
      Mapleson E and F – for paediatric use; requires gas flow at two to three times the patient’s minute volume. The Mapleson F consists of an open-ended reservoir bag (Jackson-Rees modification).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      234.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following can be measured directly using spirometry? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following can be measured directly using spirometry?

      Your Answer: Functional residual capacity

      Correct Answer: Vital capacity

      Explanation:

      Spirometry measures the total volume of air that can be forced out in one maximum breath, that is the total lung capacity (TLC), to maximal expiration, that is the residual volume (RV).

      It is conducted using a spirometer which is capable of measuring lung volumes using techniques of dilution.

      During spirometry, the following measurements can be determined:
      Forced vital capacity (FVC)/vital capacity (VC): The maximum volume of air exhaled in one single forced breathe.
      Forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1)
      FEV1/FVC ratio
      Peak expiratory flow (PEF): the maximum amount of air flow exhaled in one blow.
      Forced expiratory flow (mid expiratory flow): the flow at 25%, 50% and 75% of FVC
      Inspiratory vital capacity (IVC): The maximum volume of air inhaled after a full total expiration.

      Anatomical dead space is measured using a single breath nitrogen washout called the Fowler’s method.

      Residual volume and total lung capacity are both measured using the body plethysmograph or helium dilution

      The functional residual capacity is usually measured using a nitrogen washout or the helium dilution technique.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      15.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - The incidence and prevalence of a diabetes in a locality are being measured...

    Correct

    • The incidence and prevalence of a diabetes in a locality are being measured by a health care professional. This is what he found:


      Year People with Diabetes New Cases
      2017 150,000 2000
      2018 150,000 4000


      What can be stated regarding the incidence and prevalence of the disease in that area?

      Your Answer: Incidence increasing, prevalence equal

      Explanation:

      Incidence tells us about the number of new cases that have been reported while prevalence gives us the idea of existing cases.

      In this particular instance, the parameter of the study i.e. the total number of cases has not changed thus the prevalence of the disease remains same. Although, more cases have been reported in the second instance as a result of which incidence has increased.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      44.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - What does therapeutic index in humans mean? ...

    Incorrect

    • What does therapeutic index in humans mean?

      Your Answer: The ED50 divided by the lethal dose50 (LD50)

      Correct Answer: The TD50 divided by the ED50

      Explanation:

      Therapeutic index is a measure which relates the dose of a drug required to produce a desired effect to that which produces an undesired effect.

      In humans, it is usually defined as the ratio of the toxic dose for 50% of the population (TD50) to the minimum effective dose for 50% of the population (ED50) for some therapeutically relevant effect. In animal studies, the therapeutic index can be defined as the ratio of the median lethal dose (LD50) to the ED50.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      73.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - The following are the pharmacodynamic properties of a neuromuscular blocking agent:

    Effective dose 95...

    Incorrect

    • The following are the pharmacodynamic properties of a neuromuscular blocking agent:

      Effective dose 95 (ED95) - 0.3 mg/kg
      Time to 95% depression of first twitch of train of four (ToF) - 75 seconds
      Time to 25% recovery of first twitch of train of four (ToF) - 33 minutes.

      Which of the following statements about this neuromuscular blocking agent is the most accurate?

      Your Answer: Is less lipophilic than vecuronium

      Correct Answer: Can be reversed by a modified gamma-cyclodextrin

      Explanation:

      The aminosteroid rocuronium is the neuromuscular blocking agent in question.

      0.3 mg/kg is the effective dose 95 (ED95) (the dose required to depress the twitch height by 95 percent )
      The dose for intubation is 0.6 mg/kg.
      75 seconds is the time it takes to reach 95 percent depression of the first twitch of the train of four (ToF) or the onset time.
      The clinical duration or time to 25% recovery of the first twitch of the train of four (ToF) is 33 minutes.

      A modified cyclodextrin can quickly reverse both rocuronium and vecuronium (sugammadex).

      It is more fat-soluble than vecuronium, with the liver absorbing the majority of the drug and excreting it in the bile. The only metabolite found in the blood (17-desacetylrocuronium) is 20 times less potent than the parent drug and is unlikely to cause neuromuscular block.

      Despite its quick onset of action (60-90 seconds), suxamethonium arguably is still the neuromuscular blocker of choice for a quick sequence induction. Rocuronium is becoming increasingly popular for this purpose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      76.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - It is safe to perform a central neuraxial block without an increased risk...

    Correct

    • It is safe to perform a central neuraxial block without an increased risk of developing a vertebral canal haematoma in?

      Your Answer: A patient on clopidogrel 7 days after last dose

      Explanation:

      The incidence of vertebral canal haematoma following neuraxial blockade was reported (third National Audit Project (NAP3)) as 0.85 per 100 000 (95% CI 0-1.8 per 100 000). The incidence following neuraxial blockade in coagulopathic patients is likely to be higher hence coagulopathy remains a relative contraindication for conducting a spinal or epidural. When indicate, risk and benefits are weighed, and it is only performed by experienced personnel in this case.

      Acceptable time to perform a block after the last dose of rivaroxaban in a patient with a creatinine clearance of greater than 30mL/minute is 18 hours.

      Acceptable time to perform a block after the last dose of subcutaneous LMWH as prophylaxis is 12 hours.

      Acceptable time to perform a block after the last dose of subcutaneous UFH as prophylaxis is 4 hours.

      Acceptable time to perform a block after the last dose of thrombolytic therapy (streptokinase or alteplase) is 10 days.

      Clopidogrel should be stopped 7 days prior to surgery, particularly if a central neuraxial procedure is considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      70.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - With regards to the repolarisation phase of the myocardial action potential, which of...

    Correct

    • With regards to the repolarisation phase of the myocardial action potential, which of the following is responsible?

      Your Answer: Efflux of potassium

      Explanation:

      Cardiac conduction

      Phase 0 – Rapid depolarization. Opening of fast sodium channels with large influx of sodium

      Phase 1 – Rapid partial depolarization. Opening of potassium channels and efflux of potassium ions. Sodium channels close and influx of sodium ions stop

      Phase 2 – Plateau phase with large influx of calcium ions. Offsets action of potassium channels. The absolute refractory period

      Phase 3 – Repolarization due to potassium efflux after calcium channels close. Relative refractory period

      Phase 4 – Repolarization continues as sodium/potassium pump restores the ionic gradient by pumping out 3 sodium ions in exchange for 2 potassium ions coming into the cell. Relative refractory period

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      136.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - The SI unit of energy is the joule. Energy can be kinetic, potential,...

    Incorrect

    • The SI unit of energy is the joule. Energy can be kinetic, potential, electrical or chemical energy.

      Which of these correlates with the most energy?

      Your Answer: Raising the temperature of 1 kg water from 0°C to 100°C (the specific heat capacity of water is 4.2 kJ per kg/°C)

      Correct Answer: Energy released when 1 kg fat is metabolised to CO2 and water (the energy content of fat is 37 kJ/g)

      Explanation:

      The derived unit of energy, work or amount of heat is joule (J). It is defined as the amount of energy expended if a force of one newton (N) is applied through a distance of one metre (N·m)

      J = 1 kg·m/s2·m = 1 kg·m2/s2 or 1 kg·m2·s-2

      Kinetic energy (KE) = ½ MV2

      An object with a mass of 1500 kg moving at 30 m/s correlates to 675 kJ:

      KE = ½ (1500) × (30)2 = 750 × 900 = 675 kJ

      Total energy released when 1 kg fat is metabolised to CO2 and water is 37 MJ. 1 g fat produces 37 kJ/g, therefore 1 kg fat produces 37,000 × 1000 = 37 MJ.

      Raising the temperature of 1 kg water from 0°C to 100°C correlates to 420 kJ. The amount of energy needed to change the temperature of 1 kg of the substance by 1°C is the specific heat capacity. We have 1 kg water therefore:

      4,200 J × 100 = 420,000 J = 420 kJ

      In order to calculate the energy involved in raising a 100 kg mass to a height of 1 km against gravity, we need to calculate the potential energy (PE) of the mass:

      PE = mass × height attained × acceleration due to gravity
      PE = 100 kg × 1000 m × 10 m/s2 = 1 MJ

      The heat generated when a direct current of 10 amps flows through a heating element for 10 seconds when the potential difference across the element is 1000 volts can be calculated by applying Joule’s law of heating:

      Work done (WD) = V (potential difference) × I (current) × t (time)
      WD = 10 × 10 × 1000 = 100 kJ

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      86.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 40-year old farmer came into the emergency room with a chief complaint...

    Correct

    • A 40-year old farmer came into the emergency room with a chief complaint of 4 episodes of non-bloody diarrhoea. This was associated with frequent urination, vomiting and salivation. History also revealed frequent use of insecticides. Upon physical examination, there was miosis and bradycardia.

      Given the different types of bonds, which is the most likely bond formed between insecticide poisoning and receptors?

      Your Answer: Covalent

      Explanation:

      Organophosphate poisoning occurs most often due to accidental exposure to toxic amounts of pesticides. Signs and symptoms include diarrhoea, urination, miosis, bradycardia, emesis, lacrimation, lethargy and salivation.

      Organophosphates are classified as indirect acting cholinomimetics, and their mode of action involves: (1) the inhibition of acetylcholinesterase (AChE) by forming a stable covalent bond on the active site serine; and, (2) amplification of endogenously release acetylcholine (ACh), hence the clinical manifestation.

      There are 4 types of bonds or interactions: ionic, covalent, hydrogen bonds, and van der Waals interactions. Ionic and covalent bonds are strong interactions that require a larger energy input to break apart. When an element donates an electron from its outer shell, a positive ion is formed. The element accepting the electron is now negatively charged. Because positive and negative charges attract, these ions stay together and form an ionic bond. Covalent bonds form when an electron is shared between two elements and are the strongest and most common form of chemical bond in living organisms. Covalent bonds form between the elements that make up the biological molecules in our cells. Unlike ionic bonds, covalent bonds do not dissociate in water.

      When polar covalent bonds containing a hydrogen atom form, the hydrogen atom in that bond has a slightly positive charge. This is because the shared electron is pulled more strongly toward the other element and away from the hydrogen nucleus. Because the hydrogen atom is slightly positive, it will be attracted to neighbouring negative partial charges. When this happens, a weak interaction occurs between the slightly positive charge of the hydrogen atom of one molecule and the slightly negative charge of the other molecule. This interaction is called a hydrogen bond.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      21.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following statement is true regarding the mechanism of action of...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statement is true regarding the mechanism of action of macrolides?

      Your Answer: Inhibits protein synthesis

      Explanation:

      The mechanism of action of macrolides is inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis by preventing peptidyltransferase from adding to the growing peptide which is attached to tRNA to the next amino acid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - In endurance athletes, which of the following physiological adaptations to exercise is the...

    Incorrect

    • In endurance athletes, which of the following physiological adaptations to exercise is the best predictor of performance?

      Your Answer: Increased percentage of slow twitch muscles

      Correct Answer: Velocity of blood lactate accumulation

      Explanation:

      Multiple regression analysis revealed that velocity of lactate accumulation (VOBLA) accounted for 92 percent of the variation in marathon running velocity (VM), and VOBLA plus training volume prior to the marathon accounted for 96 percent of the variation. Percent ST muscle fibre distribution (r = 0.55-0.69) and capillary density (r = 052-0.63) were found to be positively correlated with all performance variables. As a result, marathon running performance was linked to VOBLA and the ability to run at a pace close to it during the race. The percent ST, capillary density, and training volume were all related to these properties.

      Another metabolic adaptation compared to normal people is the early selection of fat for oxidation by muscle, especially when glucose availability is limited during high-intensity exercise. This helps to delay the onset of muscle fatigue, but it does not prevent VOBLA.

      For a given level of exercise, training can also result in cardiovascular adaptation, such as increased heart size, increased contractility, and a slower heart rate. All of these factors contribute to an increase in maximal oxygen consumption (VO2 max), but genetic factors, despite intensive training, play a large role in an athlete’s performance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      33.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - With regards to this state of matter which has a volume but no...

    Correct

    • With regards to this state of matter which has a volume but no definite shape, particles are not tightly packed together. These are incompressible although there is free movement within the volume.

      This statement best describes which one of the following states of matter?

      Your Answer: Liquid

      Explanation:

      The solid state of matter has a definite volume and shape and particles are packed closely together and are incompressible. Within this tight lattice, there is enough thermal energy to produce vibration of particles.

      Liquids however have a volume but no definite shape. These particles are less tightly packed together. Although there is free movement within the volume, they are incompressible.

      Gases, however, have no finite shape or volume and particles are free to move rapidly in a state of random motion. They are compressible and are completely shaped by the space in which they are held. Vapours exist as a gas phase in equilibrium with identical liquid or solid matter below its boiling point.

      The most prevalent state of matter in the universe is plasma which is formed by heating atoms to very high temperatures to form ions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Physics
      24.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 20-year-old woman, presented to her GP after swallowing a tiny, sharp bone...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman, presented to her GP after swallowing a tiny, sharp bone and is referred to an ENT. She explains that the bone feels stuck in her throat. A laryngoscopy is performed and it shows the bone is lodged in the piriform recess.

      Name the nerve at highest risk of damage by the bone?

      Your Answer: External laryngeal nerve

      Correct Answer: Internal laryngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      The internal laryngeal nerve lies inferior to the piriform recess mucous membrane, placing it at high risk of irritation or damage by sharp foreign objects which become lodged in the recess.

      Any attempt to retrieve lodged foreign objects must be done careful as there is also a high risk of damage during this process.

      The other mentioned nerves are not at risk of being affected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      2.7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Regarding adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) one of these is true. ...

    Correct

    • Regarding adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) one of these is true.

      Your Answer: Is increased in the maternal plasma in pregnancy

      Explanation:

      ACTH production is stimulated through the secretion of corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) from the hypothalamic nuclei.

      ACTH secretion has a circadian rhythm. A high level of cortisol in the body stops its production. ACTH is secreted maximally in the morning and concentrations are lowest at midnight.

      ACTH can be expressed in the placenta, the pituitary and other tissues.

      Conditions where ACTH concentrations rise include: stress, disease and pregnancy.

      Glucocorticoids (not mineralocorticoids – aldosterone) switch off ACTH production through a negative feedback loop .

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      37.1
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which statement is false in regards to the Circle of Willis? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement is false in regards to the Circle of Willis?

      Your Answer: Majority of blood passing through the vessels mix together

      Explanation:

      There is minimum mixing of blood passing through the vessels.

      The cerebral hemispheres are supplied by arteries that make up the Circle of Willis. The Circle of Willis is formed by the anastomosis of the two internal carotid arteries and two vertebral arteries. It lies in the subarachnoid space within the basal cisterns that surround the optic chiasma and infundibulum.

      Each half of the circle is formed by:
      1. Anterior communicating artery
      2. Anterior cerebral artery
      3. Internal carotid artery
      4. Posterior communicating artery
      5. Posterior cerebral arteries and the termination of the basilar artery

      The circle and its branches supply; the corpus striatum, internal capsule, diencephalon, and midbrain

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      30
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the following statements is not correct regarding Noradrenaline? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is not correct regarding Noradrenaline?

      Your Answer: May increase pulmonary vascular resistance

      Correct Answer: Predominantly work through effects on ?-adrenergic receptors

      Explanation:

      Noradrenaline also called norepinephrine belongs to the catecholamine family that functions in the brain and body as both a hormone and neurotransmitter.

      They have sympathomimetic effects acting via adrenoceptors (?1, ?2,?1, ?2, ?3) or dopamine receptors (D1, D2).

      May cause reflex bradycardia, reduce cardiac output and increase myocardial oxygen consumption

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      68.9
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 70-year-old female presented with a productive cough and is prescribed a bacteriostatic...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old female presented with a productive cough and is prescribed a bacteriostatic antibiotic?
      Which of the following best explains the mechanism of action of bacteriostatic drugs?

      Your Answer: Bacterial DNA damage

      Correct Answer: Protein synthesis inhibition

      Explanation:

      Cell membrane pore formation, Bacterial DNA damage, Peptidoglycan cross-linking inhibition, and peptidoglycan synthesis inhibitor are always lethal and such mechanisms are possible only in bactericidal drugs. But Protein synthesis inhibition would only prevent cell replication or cell growth and is responsible for bacteriostatic effects of the drug.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      20.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A laser is a device that stimulates atoms or molecules to emit light...

    Correct

    • A laser is a device that stimulates atoms or molecules to emit light at particular wavelengths and amplifies that light, typically producing a very narrow beam of radiation. This can be of visible, infrared, or ultraviolet wavelengths. They have been widely utilized in theatre environment.

      Which of the following safety measures is most likely to reduce chances of eye injury to the theatre personnel?

      Your Answer: Wearing laser protective goggles

      Explanation:

      Eye damage is the most common potential hazard associated with laser energy. Everyone in the laser treatment room has the risk of eye exposure when working with a Class 3b or Class 4 healthcare laser system, and damage to various structures in the eye depending on wavelength of the laser if they are unprotected.

      Red and near-infrared light (400-1400 nm) has very high penetration power. The light causes painless burns on the retina after it is absorbed by melanin in the pigment epithelium just behind the photoreceptors.

      Infrared radiation (IR), or infrared light (>1060 nm), is a type of radiant energy that’s invisible to human eyes and hence won’t elicit the protective blink.

      Ultraviolet light (<400 nm) is also a form of electromagnetic radiation which is can penetrate the cornea and be absorbed by the iris or the pupil and cause burn injuries or cataract occur due to irreversible photochemical retinal damage. Safety eyewear is the best method of providing eye protection and are designed to absorb light specific to the laser being used. Laser protective eyewear (LPE) includes glasses or goggles of proper optical density (OD). The lenses should not be glass or plastic. The LPE should withstand direct and diffuse scattered laser beams. The laser protection supervisor (LPS) or LSO is an individual who is responsible for any clinical area in which lasers are used. They are expected to have a certain level of equipment and determine what control measures are appropriate, for each individual system, but their presence does not guarantee the chances of having an eye injury. Class 1 lasers are generally safe under every conceivable condition and is not likely to cause any eye damage. Class 3b or Class 4 medical laser systems are utilized in healthcare which have their own safety precautions. Polarized spectacles can make your eyes more comfortable by eliminated glare, however, they will not be able to offer any protection against wavelengths at which laser act.
      Using short bursts to reduce energy is also not correct as it would still be harmful to eye.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      38.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 77-year-old man is admitted to hospital for colorectal surgery. He is scheduled...

    Incorrect

    • A 77-year-old man is admitted to hospital for colorectal surgery. He is scheduled to undergo a preoperative assessment, which includes cardiopulmonary exercise test (CPX).

      During the CPX, his maximum oxygen consumption (VO2 max) is determined to be 2,100 mL/minute. His weight is measured to be 100 kg.

      Calculate the metabolic equivalent (MET) that is the best estimate for his VO2 max.

      Your Answer: 10 METs

      Correct Answer: 6 METs

      Explanation:

      Metabolic equivalent (MET) measures the energy expenditure of an individual.

      It is calculated mathematically by:

      MET = (VO2 max/weight)/3.5 = 21/3.5 = 6 METs

      Where 1 MET = 3.5 mL O2/kg/minute is utilized by the body.

      Note:

      1 MET Eating
      Dressing
      Use toilet
      Walking slowly on level ground at 2-3 mph
      2 METs Playing a musical instrument
      Walking indoors around house
      Light housework
      4 METs Climbing a flight of stairs
      Walking up hill
      Running a short distance
      Heavy housework, scrubbing floors, moving heavy furniture
      Walking on level ground at 4 mph
      Recreational activity, e.g. golf, bowling, dancing, tennis
      6 METs Leisurely swimming
      Leisurely cycling along the flat (8-10 mph)
      8 METs Cycling along the flat (10-14 mph)
      Basketball game
      10 METs Moderate to hard swimming
      Competitive football
      Fast cycling (14-16 mph)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      105.2
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A measuring system's response to change is complex, yet it can be mathematically modelled.

    Which of the following terms best characterises a pressure transducer's responsiveness to blood pressure changes?

    ...

    Correct

    • A measuring system's response to change is complex, yet it can be mathematically modelled.

      Which of the following terms best characterises a pressure transducer's responsiveness to blood pressure changes?

      Your Answer: Dynamic second-order response

      Explanation:

      The static-response defines how a measuring system behaves while it is in equilibrium (i.e. when the measured values are not changing). If the value being measured changes over time, the reaction of a measuring system will change as well which would be a dynamic response.
      The dynamic response of a measuring system can be subdivided into zero-order, first-order and second-order responses:

      Zero-order:
      Consider a thermometer that has been left in a room for a week. The thermometer will display the current ambient temperature when you enter the room.

      First-order:
      Consider the use of a mercury thermometer to check a patient’s temperature. It is comprised of a mercury column that expands as it warms up. The scale’s initial temperature is room temperature, but when it’s placed under the patient’s tongue, the temperature readings rise until they reach body temperature.

      Second-order
      Consider putting weights on a mechanical weighing scale. The weight as reported on the measuring dial, will wobble around the correct value at first until reaching equilibrium. An example of this is in clinical practice is the direct measurement of arterial pressure with a transducer. The value of the input fluctuates around a central point.

      Drift is the progressive deterioration of a measurement system’s precision. With time, the measurement deviates from the genuine, calibrated value. The graph between this measurement and the real value should, ideally, be linear (e.g. on the y-axis the measured end-tidal CO2 against true value of the end-tidal CO2). Drift is split into three types: zero-offset, gradient, and zonal drift.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      40.3
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anaesthesia Related Apparatus (2/3) 67%
Clinical Measurement (0/2) 0%
Statistical Methods (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (1/5) 20%
Pathophysiology (3/4) 75%
Physiology And Biochemistry (1/1) 100%
Physiology (0/1) 0%
Basic Physics (1/1) 100%
Anatomy (1/2) 50%
Passmed