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  • Question 1 - When nitrous oxide is stored in cylinders at room temperature, it is a...

    Correct

    • When nitrous oxide is stored in cylinders at room temperature, it is a gas.
      Which of its property is responsible for this?

      Your Answer: Critical temperature

      Explanation:

      The temperature above which a gas cannot be liquefied no matter how much pressure is applied is its critical temperature. The critical temperature of nitrous oxide is 36.5°C

      The minimum pressure that causes liquefaction is the critical pressure of that gas.

      The Poynting effect refers to the phenomenon where mixing of liquid nitrous oxide at low pressure with oxygen at high pressure (in Entonox) leads to formation of gas of nitrous oxide.

      There is no relevance of molecular weight to this question. it does not change with phase of a substance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      23.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 41-year-old man, with symptomatic tracheal compression is scheduled for a thyroidectomy. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 41-year-old man, with symptomatic tracheal compression is scheduled for a thyroidectomy. He has previous personal history of hyperthyroidism, controlled by a carbimazole prescription.
      He has previously presented to the emergency department with dyspnoea and stridor, for which the surgery is indicated. Prior to his thyroidectomy, excessive bleeding is controlled for by ligation of the superior thyroid artery.
      The superior thyroid artery branches into the superior laryngeal artery which is closely related to a structure which upon injury will cause loss of sensation in the laryngeal mucosa.

      What is the name of this structure?

      Your Answer: Right recurrent laryngeal nerve

      Correct Answer: Internal laryngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      The internal laryngeal nerve provides sensory innervation to the laryngeal mucosa, and injury to it will cause loss of sensation.

      The internal laryngeal nerve lies inferior to the piriform recess mucous membrane, placing it at high risk of irritation or damage by objects which become lodged in the recess.

      The internal laryngeal artery branches off the superior laryngeal artery accompanied by the superior laryngeal nerve, inferior to the thyroid artery which branches off the superior thyroid artery close to its bifurcation from the external carotid artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      70.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - The structure most likely to be damaged during cannulation of the subclavian vein...

    Incorrect

    • The structure most likely to be damaged during cannulation of the subclavian vein is?

      Your Answer: Pleura

      Correct Answer: Subclavian artery

      Explanation:

      The subclavian artery lies behind and partly above the subclavian vein. 3-4% of the time, it can be inadvertently cannulated during cannulation of the subclavian vein

      Because of its anatomical position, putting pressure on the subclavian artery is impossible so arresting bleeding with pressure when it is punctured is not viable.

      One of the consequences of subclavian vein cannulation (1%) is pleural puncture leading to a pneumothorax. This is because the apical pleura is inferior and caudal to the subclavian vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      24.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 54-year-old lady comes in for a right-sided elective bunionectomy with a realignment...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old lady comes in for a right-sided elective bunionectomy with a realignment osteotomy under local anaesthetic on her first (large) toe.

      For the operation, which of the following nerve blocks will be most effective?

      Your Answer: Saphenous, posterior tibial and superficial peroneal nerves

      Correct Answer: Superficial peroneal, deep peroneal and posterior tibial nerves

      Explanation:

      An ankle block is commonly used for anaesthesia and postoperative analgesia when operating on bunions. It results in the selective block of the superficial peroneal, deep peroneal, and posterior tibial nerves.

      The deep peroneal nerve supplies sensory input to the web space between the first and second toes (L4-5).

      The L2-S1 nerve, often known as the superficial peroneal nerve, is a mixed motor and sensory neuron. It gives sensory supply to the anterolateral region of the leg, the anterior aspect of the 1st, 2nd, 3rd, and 4th toes, and innervates the peroneus longus and brevis muscles (with the exception of the web space between 1st and 2nd toes).

      The sensory area of the saphenous nerve (L3-4) in the foot stretches from the proximal portion of the midfoot on the medial side to the proximal part of the midfoot on the lateral side.

      The lateral side of the little (fifth) toe is innervated by the sural nerve’s sensory supply (S1-2). The heel, medial (medial plantar nerve), and lateral (lateral plantar nerve) soles of the foot are all served by the posterior tibial nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      81.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following is correct regarding nitric oxide? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is correct regarding nitric oxide?

      Your Answer: Is produced by both inducible and constitutive forms of nitric oxide synthetase

      Explanation:

      Nitric oxide is generated from L-arginine by nitric oxide synthase. It is produced in response to haemodynamic stress by the vascular endothelium, and it produces both smooth muscle relaxation and reduced vascular resistance.

      Nitric oxide may be inactivated through interaction with other oxygen free radicals, (e.g. oxidised low-density lipoprotein (LDL)).

      Nitric oxide causes the production of the second messenger, cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      309.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Regarding the blood supply of the heart, are the following statements true? ...

    Correct

    • Regarding the blood supply of the heart, are the following statements true?

      Your Answer: The left coronary artery originates from the left posterior aortic sinus

      Explanation:

      The left coronary artery arises from the left posterior aortic sinus and divides into the circumflex arteries and the left anterior descending (LAD) artery.

      The right coronary artery arises from the anterior aortic sinus and supplies:
      – the right ventricle
      – part of the interventricular septum
      – the atrioventricular (A-V) node and
      – in 85% of cases the inferior part of the left ventricle.
      The right coronary artery provides a posterior interventricular branch and a marginal branch that anastomoses with the LAD at the apex.

      The oblique vein together with the small, middle and great cardiac veins drain into the coronary sinus, which drains into the right atrium.

      The anterior cardiac vein drains directly into the right atrium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      204.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which type of muscle contains the highest amount of mitochondria? ...

    Correct

    • Which type of muscle contains the highest amount of mitochondria?

      Your Answer: Cardiac muscle

      Explanation:

      Among the types of muscles, cardiac muscles have the greatest number if mitochondria due to the heart energy requirements.

      Approximately 35% of the cardiac muscle volume is due to the mitochondria. While in skeletal and smooth muscles, it comprises 3-8% of the muscle volume.

      Type I muscle fibre has a slow contraction velocity, with a red fibre colour, and predominantly uses oxidative phosphorylation to produce a sustained contraction. It contains more mitochondria and myoglobin than type II, and is often used for endurance training.

      Type II muscle fibre has a fast contraction velocity, a white fibre colour, and predominantly uses anaerobic glycolysis. It has fewer mitochondria and myoglobin, and is often used for weight or resistance training and sprinting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      22
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - An study on post-operative nausea and vomiting (PONV) among paediatric patients who underwent...

    Incorrect

    • An study on post-operative nausea and vomiting (PONV) among paediatric patients who underwent tonsillectomy showed a decrease in incidence from 10% to 5% following a new management protocol.

      Which of the following best estimates the numbers needed to treat (NNT) for one additional patient to benefit from the new management of PONV?

      Your Answer: 50

      Correct Answer: 20

      Explanation:

      The Number Needed to Treat (NNT) is the number of patients you need to treat to prevent one additional bad outcome. For example, if a drug has an NNT of 5, it means you have to treat 5 people with the drug to prevent one additional bad outcome.

      To calculate the NNT, you need to know the Absolute Risk Reduction (ARR); the NNT is the inverse of the ARR:

      NNT = 1/ARR

      Where ARR = CER (Control Event Rate) – EER (Experimental Event Rate).

      NNTs are always rounded up to the nearest whole number.

      In this case, the NNT can be computed as follows:

      ARR = 10% – 5% = 0.05

      NNT = 1/0.05 = 20

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      103.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following statements is correct regarding opioid receptors? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is correct regarding opioid receptors?

      Your Answer: Binding with an opioid agonist increases potassium conductance

      Explanation:

      Opioid receptors are a large family of seven transmembrane domain receptors. They are of four types:

      1) Delta opioid receptor

      2) Mu opioid receptor

      3) Kappa opioid receptor

      4) Orphan receptor-like 1

      They contain about 372-400 amino acids and thus their molecular weight is different.

      Opioid receptor activation reduces the intracellular cAMP formation and opens K+ channels (mainly through µ and δ receptors) or suppresses voltage-gated N-type Ca2+ channels (mainly κ receptor). These actions result in neuronal hyperpolarization and reduced availability of intracellular Ca2+ which results in decreased neurotransmitter release by cerebral, spinal, and myenteric neurons (e.g. glutamate from primary nociceptive afferents).

      However, other mechanisms and second messengers may also be involved, particularly in the long-term

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      73.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Under general anaesthesia, a 48-year-old patient is scheduled for some dental extractions. He...

    Incorrect

    • Under general anaesthesia, a 48-year-old patient is scheduled for some dental extractions. He tells you that he has a heart murmur and that he has always received antibiotic prophylaxis at the dentist. There are no allergies that he is aware of.

      Which antibiotic prophylaxis strategy is most appropriate for this patient?

      Your Answer: Give an intravenous dose of an appropriate antibiotic at induction

      Correct Answer: Prophylactic antibiotics are unnecessary for this patient

      Explanation:

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published guidelines on infective endocarditis prophylaxis (IE). The goal was to create clear guidelines for antibiotic prophylaxis in patients undergoing dental procedures as well as certain non-dental interventional procedures. A number of studies have found an inconsistent link between recent interventional procedures and the development of infective endocarditis in both dental and non-dental procedures.

      Antibiotic prophylaxis against infective endocarditis is not advised or required in the following situations:

      Dental patients undergoing procedures
      Patients undergoing procedures involving the upper and lower gastrointestinal tracts, the genitourinary tract (including urological, gynaecological, and obstetric procedures, as well as childbirth), and the upper and lower respiratory tract (including ear, nose and throat procedures and bronchoscopy).

      Antibiotic resistance can be exacerbated by the indiscriminate use of prophylactic antibiotics, but this is not the primary reason for avoiding their use in these situations.

      To reduce the risk of endocarditis, any patient who is at risk of developing IE should be investigated and treated as soon as possible. Patients with the following conditions are at risk of developing IE:
      acquired valvular heart disease with regurgitation or stenosis
      previous valve replacement
      structural congenital heart disease
      past history of IE, or
      hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HOCM)

      It would also be appropriate for high-risk dental procedures and those with severe gingival disease.

      Although this patient may not have structural heart disease, ABs should be administered on a case-by-case basis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      32.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - All the following statements are false regarding local anaesthetic except ...

    Incorrect

    • All the following statements are false regarding local anaesthetic except

      Your Answer: The higher the pKa, the quicker the onset of action at physiological pH

      Correct Answer: Potency is directly related to lipid solubility

      Explanation:

      The potency of local anaesthetics is directly proportional to lipid solubility because they need to penetrate the lipid-soluble membrane to enter the cell.

      Protein binding has a direct relationship with the duration of action because the higher the ability of the drug to bind with membrane protein, the higher is the duration of action.

      Higher the pKa of a drug, slower the onset of action. Because a drug with higher pKa will be more ionized than the one with lower pKa at a given pH. Local anaesthetics are weak bases, and unionized form diffuses more rapidly across the nerve membrane than the protonated form. As a result drugs with higher pKa will be more ionized will diffuse less across the nerve membrane.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      58.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 74-year-old with a VVI pacemaker is undergoing a hip replacement.

    Which of the...

    Correct

    • A 74-year-old with a VVI pacemaker is undergoing a hip replacement.

      Which of the following is most likely to predispose him to an electrical hazard?

      Your Answer: Use of cutting unipolar diathermy

      Explanation:

      A single chamber pacemaker was implanted in the patient. In VVI mode, a pacemaker paces and senses the ventricle while being inhibited by a perceived ventricular event. The most likely electrical hazard from diathermy is electromagnetic interference (EMI).

      EMI has the potential to cause the following: Inhibition of pacing
      Asynchronous pacing
      Reset to backup mode
      Myocardial burns, and
      Trigger VF.

      Diathermy entails the implementation of high-frequency electrical currents to produce heat and either make incisions or induce coagulation. Monopolar cautery involves disposable cautery pencils and electrosurgical diathermy units. In typical monopolar cautery, an electrical plate is placed on the patient’s skin and acts as an electrode, while the current passes between the instrument and the plate. Monopolar diathermy can therefore interfere with implanted metal devices and pacemaker function.

      Bipolar diathermy, where the current passes between the forceps tips and not through the patient and is less likely to generate EMI.

      Whilst the presence of a CVP line may in theory predispose the patient to microshock, the use of prerequisite CF electrical equipment makes this very unlikely. The presence of a CVP line and pacemaker does not therefore unduly increase the risk of an electrical hazard.

      Isolating transformers are used to protect secondary circuits and individuals from electrical shocks. There is no step-up or step-down voltage (i.e. there is a ratio of 1 to 1 between the primary and secondary windings).

      A ground (or earth) wire is normally connected to the metal case of an operating table to protect patients from accidental electrocution. In the event that a fault allows a live wire to make contact with the metal table (broken cable, loose connection etc.) it becomes live. The earth will provide an immediate path for current to safely flow through and so the table remains safe to touch. Being a low resistance path, the earth lets a large current flow through it when the fault occurs ensuring that the fuse or RCD will quickly blow. Without an operating table earth, the patient is not at more risk of an electrical hazard because of the pacemaker.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      34.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which of the following causes the right-sided shift of the oxygen haemoglobin dissociation...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following causes the right-sided shift of the oxygen haemoglobin dissociation curve?

      Your Answer: Hypothermia

      Correct Answer: Chronic iron deficiency anaemia

      Explanation:

      With respect to oxygen transport in cells, almost all oxygen is transported within erythrocytes. There is limited solubility and only 1% is carried as solution. Thus, the amount of oxygen transported depends upon haemoglobin concentration and its degree of saturation.

      Haemoglobin is a globular protein composed of 4 subunits. Haem is made up of a protoporphyrin ring surrounding an iron atom in its ferrous state. The iron can form two additional bonds – one is with oxygen and the other with a polypeptide chain.
      There are two alpha and two beta subunits to this polypeptide chain in an adult and together these form globin. Globin cannot bind oxygen but can bind to CO2 and hydrogen ions.
      The beta chains are able to bind to 2,3 diphosphoglycerate. The oxygenation of haemoglobin is a reversible reaction. The molecular shape of haemoglobin is such that binding of one oxygen molecule facilitates the binding of subsequent molecules.

      The oxygen dissociation curve (ODC) describes the relationship between the percentage of saturated haemoglobin and partial pressure of oxygen in the blood.
      Of note, it is not affected by haemoglobin concentration.

      Chronic anaemia causes 2, 3 DPG levels to increase, hence shifting the curve to the right

      Haldane effect – Causes the ODC to shift to the left. For a given oxygen tension there is increased saturation of Hb with oxygen i.e. Decreased oxygen delivery to tissues.
      This can be caused by:
      -HbF, methaemoglobin, carboxyhaemoglobin
      -low [H+] (alkali)
      -low pCO2
      -ow 2,3-DPG
      -ow temperature

      Bohr effect – causes the ODC to shifts to the right = for given oxygen tension there is reduced saturation of Hb with oxygen i.e. Enhanced oxygen delivery to tissues. This can be caused by:
      – raised [H+] (acidic)
      – raised pCO2
      -raised 2,3-DPG
      -raised temperature

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      29
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of the following is true regarding correlation coefficient? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true regarding correlation coefficient?

      Your Answer: It is represented by a small c

      Correct Answer: It can assume any value between -1 and 1

      Explanation:

      The degree of correlation is summarised by the correlation coefficient (r). This indicates how closely the points lie to a line drawn through the plotted data. In parametric data this is called Pearson’s correlation coefficient and can take any value between -1 to +1. A correlation of -1.0 indicates a perfect negative correlation, and a correlation of 1.0 indicates a perfect positive correlation.

      For example

      r = 1 – strong positive correlation (e.g. systolic blood pressure always increases with age)

      r = 0 – no correlation (e.g. there is no correlation between systolic blood pressure and age)

      r = – 1 – strong negative correlation (e.g. systolic blood pressure always decreases with age)

      Whilst correlation coefficients give information about how one variable may increase or decrease as another variable increases they do not give information about how much the variable will change. They also do not provide information on cause and effect.

      In contrast to the correlation coefficient, linear regression may be used to predict how much one variable changes when a second variable is changed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      32
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the given statements is true about standard error of the mean?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the given statements is true about standard error of the mean?

      Your Answer: Is the square root of standard deviation

      Correct Answer: Gets smaller as the sample size increases

      Explanation:

      The standard error of the mean (SEM) is a measure of the spread expected for the mean of the observations – i.e. how ‘accurate’ the calculated sample mean is from the true population mean. The relationship between the standard error of the mean and the standard deviation is such that, for a given sample size, the standard error of the mean equals the standard deviation divided by the square root of the sample size.

      SEM = SD / square root (n)

      where SD = standard deviation and n = sample size

      Therefore, the SEM gets smaller as the sample size (n) increases.

      If we want to depict how widely scattered some measurements are, we use the standard deviation. For indicating the uncertainty around the estimate of the mean, we use the standard error of the mean. The standard error is most useful as a means of calculating a confidence interval. For a large sample, a 95% confidence interval is obtained as the values 1.96×SE either side of the mean.

      A 95% confidence interval:

      lower limit = mean – (1.96 * SEM)

      upper limit = mean + (1.96 * SEM)

      Results such as mean value are often presented along with a confidence interval. For example, in a study the mean height in a sample taken from a population is 183cm. You know that the standard error (SE) (the standard deviation of the mean) is 2cm. This gives a 95% confidence interval of 179-187cm (+/- 2 SE).

      Hence, it would be wrong to say that confidence levels do not apply to standard error of the mean.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      84.9
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 65-year-old man, presents to the emergency department. He explains that an hour...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man, presents to the emergency department. He explains that an hour ago, he experienced central chest pain, which moved down his left arm.
      On ECG, elevation in the ST-segment was noted in the anterior leads. He undergoes emergency percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) which requires the cardiologist to access the heart via the femoral artery.

      Where is the surface marking for identifying the femoral artery?

      Your Answer: Two thirds of the way between the ASIS and the pubic tubercle

      Correct Answer: Midway between the ASIS and the pubic symphysis

      Explanation:

      The surface marking for locating the femoral artery is the mid-inguinal point, which is the halfway point between the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) and the pubic symphysis.

      The other mentioned options are not specific for any landmark.

      However, it is important to note the difference between the mid inguinal point and the midpoint of the inguinal ligament, which is travels from the ASIS to the pubic tubercle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      980
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following anaesthetic agent is most potent with the lowest Minimal...

    Correct

    • Which of the following anaesthetic agent is most potent with the lowest Minimal Alveolar Concentration (MAC)?

      Your Answer: Isoflurane

      Explanation:

      The clinical potency of the anaesthetic agent is measured using minimal alveolar concentration(MAC).

      MAC and oil: gas partition coefficient is inversely related. Anaesthetic agent Oil/gas partition coefficient and Minimal alveolar concentration (MAC) is given respectively as

      Desflurane 18 6
      Isoflurane 90 1.2
      Nitrous oxide 1.4 104
      Sevoflurane 53.4 2
      Xenon 1.9 71

      With these data, we can conclude Isoflurane is the most potent with the highest oil/gas partition coefficient of 90 and the lowest MAC of 1.2

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Regarding tracheal tubes, which of the following statements are true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding tracheal tubes, which of the following statements are true?

      Your Answer: A right-facing bevel is usually at the distal end of the tube

      Correct Answer: Uncuffed RAE tubes have two Murphy eyes

      Explanation:

      Tracheal tubes are made of either disposable plastic or reusable red rubber.

      The tube size refers to the internal diameter (ID) in mm which is marked on the outside of the tube (some manufacturers mark the external diameter on the outside).

      Plastic tubes have a radiopaque line spanning the entire length of the tube, which allows their position to be identified on x-rays. The bevel located at the end of the tube is left-facing and oval in shape, which improves the view of the vocal cords during intubation.

      Oxford tubes are L-shaped and have a bevel that faces posteriorly. They have thick walls that increase the external diameter, making for a wider internal diameter.

      RAE (Ring, Adair, and Elwyn) tubes are preformed and can either be north or south facing and cuffed or uncuffed. The cuffed RAE tubes have one Murphy eye, whereas the uncuffed has two Murphy eyes. Uncuffed tubes are primarily used in paediatric anaesthesia and the two Murphy eyes ensure adequate ventilation- should the tube be too long.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      56.6
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Of the following statements, which is true about the measurements of cardiac output...

    Correct

    • Of the following statements, which is true about the measurements of cardiac output using thermodilution?

      Your Answer: Cardiac output should be measured during the end-expiratory pause

      Explanation:

      Thermodilution is the most common dilution method used to measure cardiac output (CO) in a hospital setting.

      During the procedure, a Swan-Ganz catheter, which is a specialized catheter with a thermistor-tip, is inserted into the pulmonary artery via the peripheral vein. 5-10mL of a cold saline solution with a known temperature and volume is injected into the right atrium via a proximal catheter port. The solution is cooled as it mixes with the blood during its travel to the pulmonary artery. The temperature of the blood is the measured by the catheter and is profiled using a computer.

      The computer also uses the profile to measure cardiac output from the right ventricle, over several measurements until an average is selected.

      Cardiac output changes at each point of respiration, therefore to get an accurate measurement, the same point during respiration must be used at each procedure, this is usually the end of expiration, that is the end-expiratory pause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      254
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - What makes the ultrasound nebulizer efficient? ...

    Incorrect

    • What makes the ultrasound nebulizer efficient?

      Your Answer: Water droplets of size 1 micron

      Correct Answer: Reduction in gas flow resistance

      Explanation:

      Smallest drops reach not only the upper but also the lower respiratory tracks. As a result, the ultrasonic nebulizer is most efficient for the therapy of pulmonary diseases and stands out as a robust and reliable support within the clinical setting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Physics
      31.8
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 61-year-old woman, present to her general practitioner. She complains of a severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old woman, present to her general practitioner. She complains of a severe lancinating pain in her forehead that only last a few seconds, possibly triggered by washing her face, occurring over the previous six weeks.

      On examination, she is normal with no other signs or symptoms.

      Which nerve is the most likely cause of her pain?

      Your Answer: Auriculotemporal branch of the trigeminal nerve

      Correct Answer: Sensory branches of the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve

      Explanation:

      Her symptoms are suggestive of trigeminal neuralgia which is a short, sudden, severe sharp unilateral pain in the facial region. The pain often follows the sensory distribution of the trigeminal nerve (CN V).

      The trigeminal nerve gives rise to 3 sensory and 1 motor nuclei. Neuralgia can arise from any of the 3 sensory divisions.

      The ophthalmic division gives rise to 3 further sensory branches, which are the frontal, lacrimal and nasociliary.

      The frontal branch of the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve is responsible for the innervation of the area in question.

      The superior alveolar dental, zygomatic and sphenopalatine nerves are all branches arising from the maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve.

      The mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve provides sensory and motor innervation. The sensory innervation is carried out by the auriculotemporal nerve which supplies the lower third of the face, while the motor fibres are responsible for controlling the muscles of mastication.

      The somatic sensory branches of the vagus nerve are responsible for sensory innervation of the external acoustic meatus and tympanic membrane.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      58.1
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - An 85-year old female is being investigated and treated for pancytopenia of unknown...

    Correct

    • An 85-year old female is being investigated and treated for pancytopenia of unknown origin. Her most recent blood test is shown below which shows that he has a low platelet count.

      Hb-102 g/l
      WBC - 2.9* 109/l
      Platelets - 7 * 109/l

      Which of the following normally stimulates platelet production?


      Your Answer: Thrombopoietin

      Explanation:

      Interleukin-4 is a cytokine which acts to regulate the responses of B and T cells.

      Erythropoietin is responsible for the signal that initiated red blood cell production.

      Granulocyte-colony stimulating factor stimulates the bone marrow to produce granulocytes.

      Interleukin-5 is a cytokine that stimulates the proliferation and activation of eosinophils.

      Thrombopoietin is the primary signal responsible for megakaryocyte and thus platelet production.
      Platelets are also called thrombocytes. They, like red blood cells, are also derived from myeloid stem cells. The process involves a megakaryocyte developing from a common myeloid progenitor cell. A megakaryocyte is a large cell with a multilobulated nucleus, this grows to become massive where it will then break up to form platelets.

      Immune cells are generated from haematopoietic stem cells in bone marrow. They generate two main types of progenitors, myeloid and lymphoid progenitor cells, from which all immune cells are derived.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      26
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - The child-Pugh scoring system can be used, if risk classifying a patient with...

    Incorrect

    • The child-Pugh scoring system can be used, if risk classifying a patient with chronic liver disorder earlier to anaesthesia.

      Which one is the best combination of clinical signs and examinations used within the Child-Pugh scoring system?

      Your Answer: Ascites, grade of encephalopathy, AST/ALT, bilirubin and INR

      Correct Answer: Ascites, grade of encephalopathy, albumin, bilirubin and INR

      Explanation:

      In the Child-Pugh classification system, the following 5 components are determined or calculated in order:

      Ascites

      Grade of encephalopathy

      Serum bilirubin (?mol/L)

      Serum Albumin (g/L)

      Prothrombin time or INR

      Raised liver enzymes are not the component of the classification system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Physics
      39.8
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) used for the acute treatment of angina is best administered...

    Incorrect

    • Glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) used for the acute treatment of angina is best administered via the sublingual route.

      Why is this the best route of administration?

      Your Answer: Significant presystemic metabolism by intestinal mucosa

      Correct Answer: High first pass metabolism

      Explanation:

      Glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) has a significant first pass metabolism. About 90% of a dose of GTN is metabolised in the liver by the enzyme glutathione organic nitrate reductase.

      An INSIGNIFICANT amount of metabolism occurs in the intestinal mucosa.

      There is approximately 1% bioavailability after oral administration and 38% after sublingual administration.

      GTN does NOT cause gastric irritation and it is well absorbed in the gastrointestinal tract.

      The volume of distribution of GTN is 2.1 to 4.5 L/kg. This is HIGH.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      43.8
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 39-year-old woman, is scheduled for a thyroidectomy for her previously diagnosed Grave's...

    Correct

    • A 39-year-old woman, is scheduled for a thyroidectomy for her previously diagnosed Grave's disease. She is eligible for surgery as medical treatment options have failed to control her symptoms and she is the sole guardian for her young children, so radioiodine treatment is unsuitable. While gaining her consent for the surgery, she is told of possible complications of thyroidectomy, which include damage to the sensory branch of the superior laryngeal nerve.

      What is the name of the sensory nerve that arises from the superior laryngeal nerve?

      Your Answer: Internal laryngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      The superior laryngeal nerve gives off two branches: the sensory branch which is the internal laryngeal nerve, and the motor branch which is the external laryngeal nerve.

      The recurrent laryngeal nerve (RLN) rises from the vagus nerve which supplies the intrinsic muscles of the larynx, except the cricothyroid muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      49.6
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - An 80-year old female was taken to the emergency room for chest pain....

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year old female was taken to the emergency room for chest pain. She has a medical history of coronary artery disease and previous episodes of atrial fibrillation. She was immediately attached to the cardiac monitor, which showed tachycardia at 148 beats per minute. The 12-lead ECG revealed atrial fibrillation.

      Digoxin was given as an anti-arrhythmic at 500 micrograms, which is higher than the maintenance dose routinely given. Why is this so?

      Your Answer: It has a high clearance

      Correct Answer: It has a high volume of distribution

      Explanation:

      When the loading dose of Digoxin is given, the primary thing to consider is the volume of distribution. The volume of distribution is the proportionality factor that relates the total amount of drug in the body to the concentration. LD is computed as:

      LD = Volume of distribution X (desired plasma concentration/bioavailability)

      Digoxin is an anti-arrhythmic drug with a large volume of distribution and high bioavailability, and only a small percentage of Digoxin is bound to plasma proteins (,20%).

      In the case, since the arrhythmia is not life-threatening, there is no need for the medication to work rapidly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      48.1
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which of the following combinations of signs seen in a patient would most...

    Correct

    • Which of the following combinations of signs seen in a patient would most likely confirm ingestion of substances with anticholinesterase effects?

      Your Answer: Bradycardia and miosis

      Explanation:

      An acetylcholinesterase inhibitor or anticholinesterase is a chemical that inhibits the cholinesterase enzyme from breaking down acetylcholine (ACh) therefore increasing the level and duration of action of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine(ACh).

      ACh stimulates postganglionic receptors to produce the following effects:

      Salivation
      Lacrimation
      Defecation
      Micturition
      Sweating
      Miosis
      Bradycardia, and
      Bronchospasm.

      Since these effects are produced by muscarine, they are referred to as muscarinic effects, and the postganglionic receptors are called muscarine receptors.

      SLUD (Salivation, Lacrimation, Urination, Defecation – and emesis) is usually encountered only in cases of drug overdose or exposure to nerve gases. It is a syndrome of pathological effects indicating massive discharge of the parasympathetic nervous system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      28.4
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - When an inotrope is given to the body, it has the following effects...

    Correct

    • When an inotrope is given to the body, it has the following effects on the cardiovascular system:

      The automaticity of the sino-atrial node increases
      Lusitropy is accelerated
      Dromotropy is increased
      Chronotropy is increased
      Inotropy increases
      There is increased excitability of the conducting system

      The most probably mechanism of action of this compound is?

      Your Answer: Increase in intracellular calcium influenced by a conformational change of a Gs protein

      Explanation:

      A beta-1 adrenoreceptor agonist is most likely the ligand that causes increased automaticity, increased chronotropy, increased excitability, and increased inotropy on the sino-atrial node. However, alpha-1 adrenoreceptor effects may cause an increase in systemic vascular resistance. Noradrenaline, adrenaline, dopamine, and ephedrine are examples of drugs with mixed alpha and beta effects.

      Adrenaline, noradrenaline, dopamine, dopexamine, dobutamine, ephedrine, and isoprenaline are examples of drugs that have some beta-1 activity. The beta-1 receptor is a G protein-coupled metabotropic receptor. When the beta-1 agonist binds to the cell surface membrane, it causes a conformational change in the Gs unit, which triggers a cAMP-dependent pathway and a calcium influx into the cell.

      Catecholamines also help to relax the heart muscle (positive lusitropy). Dromotropy is the ability to increase the atrioventricular (AV) node’s conduction velocity.

      Inodilators cause an increase in intracellular calcium as a result of phosphodiesterase III (PDIII) inhibition. Milrinone, enoximone, and amrinone are some examples. Positive inotropy is caused by increased calcium entry into the myocytes. Lusitropy is also increased by phosphodiesterase inhibitors. Increased cAMP inhibits myosin light chain kinase, resulting in reduced phosphorylation of vascular smooth muscle myosin, lowering systemic and pulmonary vascular resistance.

      The mechanism of action of alpha-1 adrenoreceptor agonists is an increase in intracellular calcium caused by an increase in inositol triphosphate (IP3). IP3 is a second messenger that causes an increase in systemic vascular resistance by stimulating the influx of Ca2+ into smooth muscle cells. Reflex bradycardia can occur as a result of the subsequent increase in blood pressure. Phenylephrine and metaraminol are examples of pure alpha-1 agonists.

      Levosimendin is a novel inotrope that makes myocytes more sensitive to intracellular Ca2+. It causes a positive inotropy without changing heart rate or oxygen consumption significantly.

      The Na-K-ATPase membrane pump in the myocardium is inhibited by digoxin. This inhibition promotes sodium-calcium exchange, resulting in an increase in intracellular Ca2+ and increased contraction force. The parasympathetic effects of digoxin on the AV node result in bradycardia. Systemic vascular resistance will not be affected by it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      82.8
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A log-dose response curve is plotted after drug A is given. The shape...

    Incorrect

    • A log-dose response curve is plotted after drug A is given. The shape of this curve is sigmoid, with a maximum response of 100%.

      The log-dose response curve of drug A shifts to the right with a maximum response of 100 percent when drug B is administered.

      What does this mean in terms of drug B?

      Your Answer: Drug B has affinity for the receptor and high intrinsic efficacy

      Correct Answer: Drug B has affinity for the receptor but has no intrinsic efficacy

      Explanation:

      Drug A is a pure agonist for the receptor, with high intrinsic efficacy and affinity, according to the log-dose response curve.

      Drug B, on the other hand, works as a competitive antagonist. It binds to the receptor but has no inherent efficacy. Drug A’s efficacy will not change, but its potency will be reduced.

      A partial agonist is a drug with partial intrinsic efficacy and affinity for the receptor. Giving a partial agonist after a pure agonist will not increase receptor occupancy or decrease receptor activity, and thus will not affect drug A’s efficacy. The inverse agonist flumazenil can reverse all benzodiazepines.

      An inverse agonist is a drug that binds to the receptor but has the opposite pharmacological effect.

      A non-competitive antagonist is a drug that has affinity for a receptor but has different pharmacological effects and reduces the efficacy of an agonist for that receptor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      89.4
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - You decide to conduct research on the normal rates of gastric emptying in...

    Correct

    • You decide to conduct research on the normal rates of gastric emptying in healthy people. The strategy is to give a drug orally and measure plasma concentrations at predetermined intervals.

      Which of the following drugs would you choose to use?

      Your Answer: Paracetamol

      Explanation:

      Because of the low pH in the stomach, paracetamol absorption is minimal (pKa value is 9.5). Paracetamol is absorbed quickly and completely in the alkaline environment of the small intestine. Oral bioavailability is approaching 100%. As a result, measuring paracetamol levels in plasma after an oral paracetamol dose has been used as a surrogate marker of gastric emptying. This method has been used to investigate the effects of drugs on gastric emptying. At clinically used doses, paracetamol is ideal because it has very few side effects.

      Scintigraphic imaging is the gold standard for determining gastric emptying.

      Although aspirin (acetyl salicylic acid) is absorbed primarily in the small intestine, some may also be absorbed in the stomach. The oral bioavailability ranges from 70 to 100 percent, making it less reliable than paracetamol.

      Propranolol is a lipophilic drug that is rapidly absorbed after administration. However, it is highly metabolised by the liver in the first pass, and only about 25% of propranolol reaches the systemic circulation. It’s not the best indicator of gastric emptying.

      Oral bioavailability of gentamicin and vancomycin is low. Only antibiotic-induced pseudomembranous colitis is treated with oral vancomycin.

      Erythromycin is a pro-kinetic agent that acts as a motilin receptor agonist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      19.5
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - Regarding the basal metabolic rate (BMR), one of the following is correct. ...

    Correct

    • Regarding the basal metabolic rate (BMR), one of the following is correct.

      Your Answer: Is the single largest component of energy expenditure

      Explanation:

      BMR is lower in females than males.

      It decreases with increasing age.

      There is an increase in BMR with increased muscle (i.e. lean tissue)

      BMR is increased in stress and illness. There is also an catabolic state in these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      28.5
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - Which of the following, at a given PaO2, increases the oxygen content of...

    Correct

    • Which of the following, at a given PaO2, increases the oxygen content of arterial blood?

      Your Answer: A reduced erythrocyte 2,3-diphosphoglycerate level

      Explanation:

      The oxygen content of arterial blood can be calculated by the following equation:
      (10 x haemoglobin x SaO2 x 1.34) + (PaO2 x 0.0225).
      This is the sum of the oxygen bound to haemoglobin and the oxygen dissolved in the plasma.

      Oxygen content x cardiac output = The amount of oxygen delivered to the tissues in unit time which is known as the oxygen flux.

      Any factor that increases the metabolic demand will encourage oxygen offloading from the haemoglobin in the tissues and this causes the oxygen dissociation curve (ODC) to shift to the right. This subsequently reduced the oxygen content of arterial blood.

      Conditions like fever, metabolic or respiratory acidosis lowers the oxygen content and shifts the ODC to the right.
      A low level of 2,3 diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG) is usually related to an increased oxygen content as there is less offloading, and so the ODC is shifted to the left.

      So for a given PaO2, a high blood oxygen content is related to any factors that can shift the ODC to the left and not to the right.

      A low haematocrit usually means that there is a decreased haemoglobin concentration, and therefore is associated with decreased oxygen binding to haemoglobin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      65.9
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - A pulmonary function tests results are:

    Measurement Predicted result Test result
    Forced vital capacity (FVC)...

    Incorrect

    • A pulmonary function tests results are:

      Measurement Predicted result Test result
      Forced vital capacity (FVC) (btps) 3.85 2.36
      Forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) (btps) 3.34 0.97
      FEV1/FVC ratio % (btps) 85.1 39.9
      Peak expiratory flow (PEF) (L/second) 7.33 2.11
      Maximum voluntary ventilation (MVV) (L/minute) 116 44.4

      What does this indicate?

      Your Answer: Severe obstructive and severe restrictive picture

      Correct Answer: Moderate restrictive and severe obstructive picture

      Explanation:

      Severity of a reduction in restrictive defect (%FVC) or obstructive defect (%FEV1/FVC) predicted are classified as follows:

      Mild 70-80%
      Moderate 60-69%
      Moderately severe 50-59%
      Severe 35-49%
      Very severe <35% This patient has a mixed deficit with a severe obstructive deficit as %FEV1/FVC predicted is 46.9% and a moderate restrictive deficit as %FVC of predicted is 61.3 FEV1/FVC ratio 80% < predicted and VC < 80% = mixed picture. FEV1/FVC ratio 80% < predicted and VC > 80% = obstructive picture.

      FEV1/FVC ratio 80% > predicted and VC > 80% = normal picture.

      FEV1/FVC ratio 80% > predicted and VC < 80% predicted= restrictive picture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      147
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - The most abundant intracellular ion is? ...

    Incorrect

    • The most abundant intracellular ion is?

      Your Answer: Sodium

      Correct Answer: Phosphate

      Explanation:

      Phosphate is the principal anion of the intracellular fluid, most of which is bound to either lipids or proteins. They dissociate or associate with different compounds, depending on the enzymatic reaction, thus forming a constantly shifting pool.

      Calcium and magnesium are also present intracellularly, however in lesser amounts than phosphate.

      Sodium is the most abundant extracellular cation, and Chloride and is the most abundant extracellular anion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - A weakly acidic drug with a pKa of 8.4 is injected intravenously into...

    Incorrect

    • A weakly acidic drug with a pKa of 8.4 is injected intravenously into a patient.

      At a normal physiological pH, the percentage of this drug unionised in the plasma is?

      Your Answer: 10

      Correct Answer: 90

      Explanation:

      Primary FRCA is concerned with two issues. The first is a working knowledge of the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation, and the second is a working knowledge of logarithms and antilogarithms.

      The pH at which the drug exists in 50 percent ionised and 50 percent unionised forms is known as the pKa.

      To calculate the proportion of ionised to unionised form of a drug, use the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation.

      pH = pKa + log ([A-]/[HA])

      or

      pH = pKa + log [(salt)/(acid)]
      pH = pKa + log ([ionised]/[unionised])

      Hence, if the pKa − pH = 0, then 50% of drug is ionised and 50% is unionised.

      In this example:
      7.4 = 8.4 + log ([ionised]/[unionised])
      7.4 − 8.4 = log ([ionised]/[unionised])
      log −1 = log ([ionised]/[unionised])

      Simply put, the antilog is the inverse log calculation. In other words, if you know the logarithm of a number, you can use the antilog to find the value of the number. The antilogarithm’s definition is as follows:

      y = antilog x = 10x

      Antilog to the base 10 of 0 = 1, −1 = 0.1, −2 = 0.01, −3 = 0.001 and, −4 = 0.0001.

      [A-]/[HA] = 0.1

      Assuming that we can apply the approximation [A-] << [HA} then this means the acid is 0.1 x 100% = 10% ionised so the percentage of (non-ionized) acid will be 100% – 10% = 90%

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      26.4
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - A young male is operated on for an open inguinal hernia repair. During...

    Incorrect

    • A young male is operated on for an open inguinal hernia repair. During the procedure, the cord is mobilized, and the deep inguinal ring is located.

      What structure forms the lateral wall of the deep inguinal ring?

      Your Answer: Inferior epigastric artery

      Correct Answer: Transversalis fascia

      Explanation:

      The deep inguinal ring is the entrance of the inguinal canal. It is an opening in the transversalis fascia around 1 cm above the inguinal ligament. Therefore, the superolateral wall is made by the transervalis fascia.

      The inferior epigastric vessels run medially to the deep inguinal ring forming its inferomedial border.

      The inguinal canal extends obliquely from the deep inguinal ring to the superficial inguinal ring.
      An indirect inguinal hernia arises through the deep inguinal ring lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      46
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - The whole water content of the body is calculated by multiplying body mass...

    Incorrect

    • The whole water content of the body is calculated by multiplying body mass with 0.6. This water is diffused into distinct compartments.

      Which fluid compartment can be measured indirectly?

      Your Answer: Total body water

      Correct Answer: Intracellular volume

      Explanation:

      The total body water content of a 70kg man is (70 × 0.6) = 42 litres. For a woman, the calculation is (70 × 0.55) = 38.5 litres.

      For a man, it is subdivided into:

      Extracellular fluid (ECF) = 14L (1/3)
      Intracellular fluid (ICF) = 28L (2/3).

      The ECF volume is further divided into:

      Interstitial fluid = 10.5 litres
      Plasma = 3 litres
      Transcellular fluid (CSF/synovial fluid) = 0.5 litres.

      Directly measured fluid compartments:

      Heavy water (deuterium) can be used to measure total body water content, which is freely distributed.
      Albumin labelled with a radioactive isotope or using a dye called Evans blue can be used to measure Plasma volume . They do not diffuse into red blood cells.
      Radiolabelled (Cr-51) red blood cells can be used to measure total erythrocyte volume.
      Inulin as the tracer can be used to measure ECF volume as it circulate freely in the interstitial and plasma volumes.

      Indirectly measured fluid compartments:

      Total blood volume can be calculated with the level of haematocrit and the volume of total circulating red blood cells.
      ICF volume can be calculated by subtracting ECF volume from total blood volume.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Physics
      43.8
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - A 42 year old lady has acute onset of painless weakness on her...

    Incorrect

    • A 42 year old lady has acute onset of painless weakness on her left side of the face with a drooping mouth and difficulty speaking. With no significant past medical history and after relevant investigations, you rule out stroke as a possible cause. The lady is suspected to have suffered Bell's palsy, an idiopathic paralysis of the facial nerve.

      What symptoms are you most likely to find on examination in a patient with Bell's palsy?

      Your Answer: Symmetrical forehead movement

      Correct Answer: Taste impairment of the anterior tongue

      Explanation:

      Bell’s palsy is facial muscle weakness or paralysis that arises from idiopathic damage to the facial nerve. It can occur at any age but is commonly associated with some conditions:
      1. pregnancy
      2. diabetes
      3. upper respiratory ailment
      4. GBS
      5. Toxins

      The common symptoms of Bell’s palsy are:
      1. Abnormal corneal reflex as the facial nerve controls the motor aspect of the corneal reflex.
      2. The loss of control of facial muscles and eyelids leads to decreased tear production.
      3. mild weakness to total paralysis on one side of the face, occurring within hours to days.
      4. Bell’s palsy is a lower motor neuron lesion that usually spares the forehead while the upper motor near lesions, like stroke, involves the entire face.
      5. The anterior two-thirds of the tongue is supplied by the chorda tympani branch of the facial nerve, thus resulting in loss of taste.
      6. Ptosis can be a feature of Bell’s palsy but Bell’s palsy would typically show unilateral symptoms rather than bilateral.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      64.6
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - Fixed performance devices like high air flow oxygen enrichment (HAFOE) masks have large...

    Incorrect

    • Fixed performance devices like high air flow oxygen enrichment (HAFOE) masks have large volumes of air entrained into a flow of 100% oxygen.

      The term that best describes the physics behind air entrainment is?

      Your Answer: Venturi effect

      Correct Answer: Bernoulli's principle

      Explanation:

      Bernoulli’s principle states that as the speed of a moving fluid increases, there is a simultaneously decrease in static pressure or a decrease in the fluid’s potential energy.
      This is seen in the simultaneous increase in speed and kinetic energy and fall in pressure that causes entrainment of large volumes of air into a flow of 100% oxygen in the nozzle of HAFOE masks.

      The reduction in fluid pressure that happens when a fluid flows through a constriction in a tube is the Venturi effect.

      When a flow of gas or liquid attaches itself to a nearby surface and remains attached even when the surface curves away from the initial direction of flow, this is the Coanda effect.

      The branch of engineering and technology that is concerned with the building of devices that use the flow and pressure of a fluid for functions usually performed by electronic devices is Fluidics . Fluidic logic is used to power some ventilators.

      The branch of engineering that utilises pressurised gases is Pneumatics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Physics
      17.4
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - In endurance athletes, which of the following physiological adaptations to exercise is the...

    Incorrect

    • In endurance athletes, which of the following physiological adaptations to exercise is the best predictor of performance?

      Your Answer: Increased percentage of slow twitch muscles

      Correct Answer: Velocity of blood lactate accumulation

      Explanation:

      Multiple regression analysis revealed that velocity of lactate accumulation (VOBLA) accounted for 92 percent of the variation in marathon running velocity (VM), and VOBLA plus training volume prior to the marathon accounted for 96 percent of the variation. Percent ST muscle fibre distribution (r = 0.55-0.69) and capillary density (r = 052-0.63) were found to be positively correlated with all performance variables. As a result, marathon running performance was linked to VOBLA and the ability to run at a pace close to it during the race. The percent ST, capillary density, and training volume were all related to these properties.

      Another metabolic adaptation compared to normal people is the early selection of fat for oxidation by muscle, especially when glucose availability is limited during high-intensity exercise. This helps to delay the onset of muscle fatigue, but it does not prevent VOBLA.

      For a given level of exercise, training can also result in cardiovascular adaptation, such as increased heart size, increased contractility, and a slower heart rate. All of these factors contribute to an increase in maximal oxygen consumption (VO2 max), but genetic factors, despite intensive training, play a large role in an athlete’s performance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      40.8
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - A study was concerned with finding out the normal reference range of IgE...

    Incorrect

    • A study was concerned with finding out the normal reference range of IgE levels in adults was conducted. Presuming that the curve follows a normal distribution, what is the percentage of individuals having IgE levels greater than 2 standard deviations from mean?

      Your Answer: 5.00%

      Correct Answer: 2.30%

      Explanation:

      Since the data is normally distributed, 95.4% of the values lie with in 2 standard deviations from mean. The rest of the 4.6% are distributed symmetrically outside of that range which means 2.3% of the values lie above 2 standard deviations of the mean.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      32.9
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - A 30-year old lady has a sub total thyroidectomy. On the 5th post-operative...

    Correct

    • A 30-year old lady has a sub total thyroidectomy. On the 5th post-operative day, the wound becomes erythematous and there is a purulent discharge. The most likely organism causing this is:

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Staphylococcus aureus infection is the most likely cause.

      Surgical site infections (SSI) occur when there is a breach in tissue surfaces and allow normal commensals and other pathogens to initiate infection. They are a major cause of morbidity and mortality.

      SSI comprise up to 20% of healthcare associated infections and approximately 5% of patients undergoing surgery will develop an SSI as a result.
      The organisms are usually derived from the patient’s own body.

      Measures that may increase the risk of SSI include:
      -Shaving the wound using a single use electrical razor with a disposable head
      -Using a non iodine impregnated surgical drape if one is needed
      -Tissue hypoxia
      -Delayed prophylactic antibiotics administration in tourniquet surgery, patients with a prosthesis or valve, in clean-contaminated surgery of in contaminated surgery.

      Measures that may decrease the risk of SSI include:
      1. Intraoperatively
      – Prepare the skin with alcoholic chlorhexidine (Lowest incidence of SSI)
      -Cover surgical site with dressing

      In contrast to previous individual RCT’s, a recent meta analysis has confirmed that administration of supplementary oxygen does not reduce the risk of wound infection and wound edge protectors do not appear to confer benefit.

      2. Post operatively
      Tissue viability advice for management of surgical wounds healing by secondary intention

      Use of diathermy for skin incisions
      In the NICE guidelines the use of diathermy for skin incisions is not advocated. Several randomised controlled trials have been undertaken and demonstrated no increase in risk of SSI when diathermy is used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - A 55-year-old man has been diagnosed with transitional cell carcinoma involving the ureter....

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man has been diagnosed with transitional cell carcinoma involving the ureter. He is due to undergo a left nephroureterectomy.

      Which structure has no relation to the left ureter's anatomy?

      Your Answer: Sigmoid mesocolon

      Correct Answer: Round ligament of the uterus

      Explanation:

      The ureter starts from the hilum of the kidney and has different relations with structures along its journey to the bladder.
      It runs anterior to the psoas major muscle.
      The testicular vessels (males) or the ovarian vessels (females) cross in front of the ureter.
      The ureter passes in front of the common iliac artery where it bifurcates into the internal and external iliac arteries.
      The ureter passes medial to the branches of the internal iliac vessel downwards and forwards to towards the bladder.
      In males, the ductus deferens crosses the pelvic ureter medially.
      In females. the ureter passes through the base of the broad ligament
      In females, the pelvic part initially has the same relations as in males but, anterior to the internal iliac artery, it is immediately behind the ovary, forming the posterior boundary of the ovarian fossa. It is in extraperitoneal connective tissue in the inferomedial part of the broad ligament of the uterus. In the broad ligament, the uterine artery is anterosuperior to the ureter for approximately 2.5 cm and then crosses to its medial side to ascend alongside the uterus. The ureter turns forwards slightly above the lateral vaginal fornix and is, generally, 2 cm lateral to the supravaginal part of the uterine cervix in this location. It then inclines medially to reach the bladder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      41.6
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - Which of the following causes a left shift of the haemoglobin dissociation curve?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following causes a left shift of the haemoglobin dissociation curve?

      Your Answer: Pyrexia

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      With respect to oxygen transport in cells, almost all oxygen is transported within erythrocytes. There is limited solubility and only 1% is carried as solution. Thus, the amount of oxygen transported depends upon haemoglobin concentration and its degree of saturation.

      Haemoglobin is a globular protein composed of 4 subunits. Haem is made up of a protoporphyrin ring surrounding an iron atom in its ferrous state. The iron can form two additional bonds – one is with oxygen and the other with a polypeptide chain.
      There are two alpha and two beta subunits to this polypeptide chain in an adult and together these form globin. Globin cannot bind oxygen but can bind to CO2 and hydrogen ions.
      The beta chains are able to bind to 2,3 diphosphoglycerate. The oxygenation of haemoglobin is a reversible reaction. The molecular shape of haemoglobin is such that binding of one oxygen molecule facilitates the binding of subsequent molecules.

      The oxygen dissociation curve (ODC) describes the relationship between the percentage of saturated haemoglobin and partial pressure of oxygen in the blood.
      Of note, it is not affected by haemoglobin concentration.

      Chronic anaemia causes 2, 3 DPG levels to increase, hence shifting the curve to the right

      Haldane effect – Causes the ODC to shift to the left. For a given oxygen tension there is increased saturation of Hb with oxygen i.e. Decreased oxygen delivery to tissues.
      This can be caused by:
      -HbF, methaemoglobin, carboxyhaemoglobin
      -low [H+] (alkali)
      -low pCO2
      -ow 2,3-DPG
      -ow temperature

      Bohr effect – causes the ODC to shifts to the right = for given oxygen tension there is reduced saturation of Hb with oxygen i.e. Enhanced oxygen delivery to tissues. This can be caused by:
      – raised [H+] (acidic)
      – raised pCO2
      -raised 2,3-DPG
      -raised temperature

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      32.9
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - A 30-year-old man has been stabbed in an area of the groin that...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man has been stabbed in an area of the groin that contains the femoral triangle. He will undergo explorative surgery.

      Which of the following makes the lateral wall of the femoral triangle?

      Your Answer: Adductor magnus

      Correct Answer: Sartorius

      Explanation:

      The femoral triangle is a wedge-shaped area found within the superomedial aspect of the anterior thigh. It is a passageway for structures to leave and enter the anterior thigh.

      Superior: Inguinal ligament
      Medial: Adductor longus
      Lateral: Sartorius
      Floor: Iliopsoas, adductor longus and pectineus

      The contents include: (medial to lateral)
      Femoral vein
      Femoral artery-pulse palpated at the mid inguinal point
      Femoral nerve
      Deep and superficial inguinal lymph nodes
      Lateral cutaneous nerve
      Great saphenous vein
      Femoral branch of the genitofemoral nerve

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      17.5
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - Which of the following is true about the patellar reflex? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true about the patellar reflex?

      Your Answer: Has a reflex arc which involves a single interneuron

      Correct Answer: Is abolished immediately after transection of the spinal cord at T6

      Explanation:

      The patellar (knee jerk) reflex is a monosynaptic stretch reflex arising from L2-L4 nerve roots. It occurs after a tap on the patellar tendon which causes the spindles of the quadriceps muscles to stretch.

      The afferent nerve pathway occurred through A gamma fibres.

      Wesphal’s sign refers to a reduction, or absence of the patellar reflex. It is often indicated of a neurological disease affecting the PNS.

      A transection of the spinal cord results in a degree of shock which causes all reflexes to be reduced or completely absent, and required a period of approximately 6 weeks to recover.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      16.1
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - What is the order of the anatomical components of the tracheobronchial tree from...

    Correct

    • What is the order of the anatomical components of the tracheobronchial tree from proximal to distal?

      Your Answer: Bronchioles, terminal bronchioles, respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts, alveolar sacs

      Explanation:

      The tracheobronchial tree is subdivided into the conducting and the respiratory zones.

      The zones from proximal to distal are:

      Trachea
      Bronchi
      Bronchioles
      Terminal bronchioles
      Respiratory bronchioles
      Alveolar ducts
      Alveolar sacs

      from the trachea to terminal bronchioles are the conducting zone while the respiratory zone is from the respiratory bronchioles to the alveola sacs

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      23.5
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - A 71-year-old man, presents with central crushing pain in his chest to the...

    Correct

    • A 71-year-old man, presents with central crushing pain in his chest to the emergency department. On examination, he complains of nausea and is notably sweating. On ECG, elevation in the ST-segment is noted in multiple chest leads, as well as sinus bradycardia. A myocardial infarction can cause a sinus bradycardia.

      The sinoatrial (SA) node and the atrioventricular (AV) node receive arterial supply from which vessel?

      Your Answer: Right coronary artery

      Explanation:

      The left marginal artery comes off the left circumflex artery, and runs alongside the heart.

      The left circumflex artery is one of the bifurcations of the left coronary artery, and eventually forms the left marginal artery.

      An occlusion in the left circumflex artery often results in a lateral MI.

      The right marginal artery originates from the right coronary artery.

      The left anterior descending artery (LAD) is another bifurcation of the left coronary artery. An occlusion in the LAD would often result in an anteroseptal MI as is diagnosed on ECG by noting changes in leads V1-V4.

      The right coronary artery originates from the right aortic sinus of the ascending aorta, and bifurcates to give rise to many branches, including the sinoatrial artery which supplies the sinoatrial (SA) node in 50-70% of cases, the artery of the atrioventricular (AV) node in 50-60% of cases, the right acute marginal artery which supplies the right ventricle. It also supplies the right atrium, interatrial septum and the posterior inferior third of the interventricular septum.

      Arrhythmias and inferior MI often occurs as a result of an occlusion in the right coronary artery, and can be diagnosed by ECG changes in leads II, III and aVF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      32.4
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - When there is a relation between two variables due to the existence of...

    Incorrect

    • When there is a relation between two variables due to the existence of a confounding factor, this association is termed as:

      Your Answer: Direct

      Correct Answer: Indirect

      Explanation:

      When the association among any two classes of object is defined by the presence of a third entity it is termed as indirect association. For an instance, the age of the employee may affect the rate of pay, which would have implications on job satisfaction. So, in this example, an indirect relationship between age and job satisfaction exists due to a third party i.e. rate of pay.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      31.2
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - Which of the following statements is true about an acute pulmonary embolism? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is true about an acute pulmonary embolism?

      Your Answer: Thrombolysis administered through a peripheral vein is as effective as through a pulmonary artery catheter

      Explanation:

      Acute pulmonary embolism occurs when a blood clot becomes embedded in a pulmonary artery and restricts lung blood flow.

      Thrombolysis is recommended in patients with extremely compromised circulation rather than reduced oxygen in the blood. It is effective when administered via a peripheral vein or a pulmonary artery catheter.

      Anticoagulant therapy (heparin use) decreases the risk of further embolic evens and decreases constriction of pulmonary vessels.

      An ECG may be normal in patients with an acute pulmonary embolism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      27
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - A 35-year old male is found to be bradycardic in the emergency room....

    Correct

    • A 35-year old male is found to be bradycardic in the emergency room. His cardiac muscle will most likely stay in a prolonged phase 4 state of the cardiac action potential. During phase 4 of the cardiac action potential, which of these occurs?

      Your Answer: Na+/K+ ATPase acts

      Explanation:

      Cardiac conduction

      Phase 0 – Rapid depolarization. Opening of fast sodium channels with large influx of sodium

      Phase 1 – Rapid partial depolarization. Opening of potassium channels and efflux of potassium ions. Sodium channels close and influx of sodium ions stop

      Phase 2 – Plateau phase with large influx of calcium ions. Offsets action of potassium channels. The absolute refractory period

      Phase 3 – Repolarization due to potassium efflux after calcium channels close. Relative refractory period

      Phase 4 – Repolarization continues as sodium/potassium pump restores the ionic gradient by pumping out 3 sodium ions in exchange for 2 potassium ions coming into the cell. Relative refractory period

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      19.9
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - Regarding anti diuretic hormone (ADH), one of the following statements is correct: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding anti diuretic hormone (ADH), one of the following statements is correct:

      Your Answer: Increases the reabsorption of water in the proximal tubule

      Correct Answer: Increases the total amount of electrolyte free water in the body

      Explanation:

      The major action of ADH is to increase reabsorption of osmotically unencumbered water from the glomerular filtrate and decreases the volume of urine passed. The osmolarity of urine is increased to a maximum of four times that of plasma (approx. 1200 mOsm/kg) by Increasing water reabsorption.

      Chronic water loading, Lithium, potassium deficiency, cortisol and calcium excess, all blunt the action of ADH. This leads to nephrogenic diabetes insipidus.

      ADH’s primary site of action is the distal tubule and collecting duct.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      46.2
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - An individual who recently moved his residence from the plains to the mountains...

    Correct

    • An individual who recently moved his residence from the plains to the mountains will experience immediately which physiologic response to high altitude and hypoxia?

      Your Answer: Increased cardiac output

      Explanation:

      A person remaining at high altitudes for days, weeks, or years becomes more and more acclimatized to the low PO2, so it causes fewer deleterious effects on the body.

      After acclimatization, it becomes possible for the person to work harder without hypoxic effects or to ascend to still higher altitudes. The principal means by which acclimatization comes about are (1) a great increase in pulmonary ventilation, (2) increased numbers of red blood cells, (3) diffusing capacity of the lungs, (4) increased vascularity of the peripheral tissues, and (5) increased ability of the tissue cells to use oxygen despite low PO2.

      The cardiac output often increases as much as 30% immediately after a person ascends to high altitude but then decreases back toward normal over a period of weeks as the blood haematocrit increases, so the amount of oxygen transported to the peripheral body tissues remains about normal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      31.8
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - A 79-year-old female complains of painful legs, especially in her thigh region. The...

    Correct

    • A 79-year-old female complains of painful legs, especially in her thigh region. The pain starts after walking and settles with rest. She occasionally has to take paracetamol to relieve the pain. She is a known case of hyperlipidaemia, type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and depression.

      Her physician makes a provisional diagnosis of claudication of the femoral artery, which is a continuation of the external iliac artery.
      Which of the following anatomical landmarks does the external iliac artery cross to become the femoral artery?

      Your Answer: Inguinal ligament

      Explanation:

      The external iliac artery is the larger of the two branches of the common iliac artery. It forms the main blood supply to the lower limbs. The common iliac bifurcates into the internal and external iliac artery anterior to the sacroiliac joint.

      The external iliac artery courses on the medial border of the psoas major muscles and exits the pelvic girdle posterior to the inguinal ligament. Here, midway between the anterior superior iliac spine and the pubic symphysis, the external iliac artery becomes the femoral artery and descends along the anteromedial part of the thigh in the femoral triangle.

      The pectineus forms the posterior border of the femoral canal.
      The femoral vein forms the lateral border of the femoral canal.
      The medial border of the adductor longus muscle forms the medial wall of the femoral triangle.
      The medial border of the sartorius muscle forms the lateral wall of the femoral triangle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      45.6
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - A 60-year-old male is being reviewed in the peri-operative assessment before total knee...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old male is being reviewed in the peri-operative assessment before total knee replacement. He had a history of a heart transplant 10 years back. His resting heart rate is 110 beats per minute. On examination, ECG showed sinus tachycardia.

      Which of the following explains this tachycardia?

      Your Answer: Loss of parasympathetic innervation

      Explanation:

      Normally, at rest vagal influence is dominant producing the heart rate of 60-80 beats per minute even if the intrinsic automaticity of Sinoatrial Node is 100-110 beats per minute.

      The transplanted heart has no autonomic nervous supply. So, it will respond to endogenous and exogenous catecholamine. This loss of parasympathetic innervation is responsible for the tachycardia in this patient.

      Hypokalaemia can cause myocardial excitability and potential for ventricular ectopic and supraventricular arrhythmias. Hypothyroidism is also unlikely to cause tachycardia in this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      40.5
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - The mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve passes through which anatomic structure? ...

    Incorrect

    • The mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve passes through which anatomic structure?

      Your Answer: Stylomastoid foramen

      Correct Answer: Foramen ovale

      Explanation:

      The mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve passes through the foramen ovale. Other structures that pass through this foramen are the accessory meningeal artery, and occasionally, the lesser petrosal nerve.

      These are the structures that pass through the other openings in the cranial fossa:

      Foramen rotundum – Maxillary branch of the trigeminal nerve

      Foramen lacerum – Greater petrosal nerve, traversed by the internal carotid artery

      Superior orbital fissure – Oculomotor nerve; trochlear nerve; lacrimal, frontal and nasociliary branches of the ophthalmic branch of the trigeminal nerve; abducens nerve, superior ophthalmic vein

      Stylomastoid foramen – facial nerve

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - A new proton pump inhibitor (PPI) is being evaluated in elderly patients who...

    Correct

    • A new proton pump inhibitor (PPI) is being evaluated in elderly patients who are taking aspiring. Study designed has 120 patients receiving the PPI, while a control group of 240 individuals is given the standard PPI. Over a span of 6 years, 24 of the group receiving the new PPI had an upper GI bleed compared to 60 individuals who received the standard PPI.

      How would you calculate the absolute risk reduction?

      Your Answer: 5%

      Explanation:

      Absolute risk reduction = (Control event rate) – (Experimental event rate)

      Experimental event rate = 24 / 120 = 0.2

      Control event rate = 60 / 240 = 0.25

      Absolute risk reduction = 0.25 – 0.2 = 0.05 = 5% reduction

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      137.4
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - Which one of the following factor affects the minimal alveolar concentration (MAC)? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following factor affects the minimal alveolar concentration (MAC)?

      Your Answer: Hypoxaemia

      Explanation:

      The minimal alveolar concentration (MAC) is the concentration of an inhalation anaesthetic agent in the lung alveoli required to stop a response to the surgical stimulus in 50% of the patient.

      Following factors don’t affect the MAC of the inhaled anaesthetic agents:

      Gender, acidosis, alkalosis, hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, body weight, serum potassium level, and the duration of the anaesthesia.

      MAC increase in children, elevated temperature, high metabolic rate, sympathetic increase and chronic alcoholism.

      MAC decrease in low temperature, low oxygen level, old age, hypotension (<40 mmHg), depressant drugs e.g. opioids and low level of catecholamines; alpha methyl dopa. Carbon dioxide O2 at the pressure > 120mmHg is being used in anesthetic-Hinkman as an additive effect to decrease MAC, however, increase concentration of CO2 activates the sympathetic system resulting the MAC increases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      17.8
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - Conclusive evidence suggests that rate for the prevalence of schizophrenia in United Kingdom...

    Correct

    • Conclusive evidence suggests that rate for the prevalence of schizophrenia in United Kingdom is around 1%.

      Which term can be used to describe that?

      Your Answer: Endemic

      Explanation:

      An epidemic is declared when the increase in a give disease is above a certain level in a specific interval of time.

      An endemic is the general, usual level of a disease in a population at a particular time.

      A pandemic is an epidemic that is spread across many countries and continents.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      28.3
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - Which of the following may indicate an inadequate reversal of non-depolarising neuromuscular blockade?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following may indicate an inadequate reversal of non-depolarising neuromuscular blockade?

      Your Answer: Four equal twitches on train of four count

      Correct Answer: Post tetanic count of 5

      Explanation:

      A post-tetanic count of 5 denotes a deep neuromuscular blockade.

      Post tetanic count (PTC) is a well-established method of evaluating neuromuscular recovery during intense neuromuscular blockade. It cam ne used when there is no response to single twitch, tetanic, or train-of-four (TOF) stimulation to assess the intensity of neuromuscular blockade and to estimate the duration after which the first twitch in the TOF (T1) is likely to reappear.

      During a nondepolarizing block, the high frequency of tetanic stimulation will induce a transient increase in the amount of acetylcholine released from the presynaptic nerve ending, such that the intensity of subsequent muscle contractions will be increased (potentiated) briefly (period of post-tetanic potentiation, which may last 2 to 5 min. The neuromuscular response to stimulation during post tetanic potentiation can be used to gauge the depth of block when TOF stimulation otherwise evokes no responses. The number of post tetanic responses is inversely proportional to the depth of block: fewer post tetanic contractions denote a deeper block. When the post tetanic count (PTC) is 6 to 8, recovery to TOF count = 1 is likely imminent from an intermediate-duration blocking agent; when the PTC is 0, the depth of block is profound, and no additional NMBA should be administered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      29.8
      Seconds
  • Question 61 - The following is normally higher in concentration extracellularly than intracellularly ...

    Incorrect

    • The following is normally higher in concentration extracellularly than intracellularly

      Your Answer: Magnesium

      Correct Answer: Sodium

      Explanation:

      The ions found in higher concentrations intracellularly than outside the cells are:

      ATP
      AMP
      Potassium
      Phosphate, and
      Magnesium Adenosine diphosphate (ADP)

      Sodium is a primarily extracellular ion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      15.8
      Seconds
  • Question 62 - Which is the most appropriate statement describing the function of flowmeters? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which is the most appropriate statement describing the function of flowmeters?

      Your Answer: Constant pressure, constant orifice - water depression flowmeter

      Correct Answer: Constant pressure, variable orifice - Heidbrink flowmeters

      Explanation:

      There are different models of flowmeters determined by the applied pressure and its orifice. For instance, the watersight flowmeter functions through applying variable pressure, and it has a variable orifice. In contrast, the bubble flowmeter is operated using a constant pressure and orifice. Flowmeters such as rotameters, Heidbrink and Peak have a constant pressure but variable orifice. On the other hand, flowmeters including a simple pressure gauge, water depression, and pneumotachograph have a constant orifice but variable pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      18.2
      Seconds
  • Question 63 - Which muscle separates the subclavian artery and the subclavian vein? ...

    Correct

    • Which muscle separates the subclavian artery and the subclavian vein?

      Your Answer: Scalenus anterior

      Explanation:

      The subclavian artery and vein have a similar path throughout their course, with the subclavian vein running anterior to the subclavian artery. The artery and vein are separated by the insertion of the scalenus anterior muscle.

      There are three scalene muscles, found on each side of the neck:
      1. Anterior scalene
      2. Middle scalene
      3. Posterior scalene

      The scalenus anterior muscle is the anterior most of the three scalene muscles. It originates from the transverse processes of vertebrae C3-C6 and is inserted in the first rib.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      40.6
      Seconds
  • Question 64 - Which one of the following lies above the cephalic vein? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following lies above the cephalic vein?

      Your Answer: Antebrachial fascia

      Correct Answer: None of the above

      Explanation:

      The cephalic vein is one of the primary superficial veins of the upper limb. It overlies most of the fascial planes as it is located in the superficial fascia along the anterolateral surface of the biceps.

      It originates in the anatomical snuffbox from the radial side of the superficial venous network of the dorsum of the hand. It travels laterally up the arm to join the basilic vein via the median cubital vein at the elbow.

      Near the shoulder, it passes between the deltoid and pectoralis major muscles. It pierces the coracoid membrane (continuation of the clavipectoral fascia) to terminate in the axillary vein’s first part.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 65 - All the following statements are false regarding gabapentin except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All the following statements are false regarding gabapentin except:

      Your Answer: Side effects typically include visual field defects with long term use

      Correct Answer: Requires dose adjustment in renal disease

      Explanation:

      Therapy with gabapentin requires dose adjustment with renal diseases. However, plasma monitoring of the drug is not necessary.

      Gabapentin is not a liver enzyme inducer unlike other anticonvulsants like phenytoin and phenobarbitone

      Gabapentin has not been shown to be associated with visual disturbances.

      Gabapentin is used for add-on therapy in partial or generalized seizures and used in the management of chronic pain conditions but is of no use in petit mal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      35.5
      Seconds
  • Question 66 - Which of the following factors significantly increases the risk of hepatotoxicity and fulminant...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following factors significantly increases the risk of hepatotoxicity and fulminant hepatic failure in halothane administration?

      Your Answer: Prior history of post-anaesthetic jaundice

      Correct Answer: Multiple exposure

      Explanation:

      Hepatotoxicity due to halothane administration is relatively common and is a major factor in its rapidly declining use. Type 1 hepatotoxicity has an incidence of 20% to 30%. A comprehensive report in 1969 demonstrated an incidence of type 2 hepatotoxicity (hepatitis) of 1 case per 6000 to 20000 cases, with fatal cases occurring approximately once in 35000 patients following a single exposure to the anaesthetic. This incidence of fatal cases increases to approximately 1 in 1000 patients following multiple exposures. Following this study was a large-scale review in the United Kingdom, which showed similar results. To put this into perspective, there is only a single case of hepatotoxicity confirmed after the administration of desflurane and 2 cases per 1 million after enflurane. By the 1970s, halothane was the most common cause of drug-induced liver failure.

      Halothane-induced hepatotoxicity has a female to male ratio of two to one. Younger patients are less likely to be affected; 80% of the cases are typically in patients 40 years or older. Other risk factors include obesity and underlying liver dysfunction. Medications such as phenobarbital, alcohol, and isoniazid may play a role in affecting CYP2E1 metabolism, increasing one’s risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      17.2
      Seconds
  • Question 67 - Which one of the following patients presenting for elective surgery has an American...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following patients presenting for elective surgery has an American Society of Anaesthesiologists (ASA) preoperative physical status grading of III?

      Your Answer: A 50-year old man with a BMI of 41 with a reduced exercise tolerance

      Explanation:

      The ASA physical status classification system is a system for assessing the fitness of patients before surgery. It was last updated in October 2014.

      ASA I A normal healthy patient
      ASA II A patient with mild systemic disease
      ASA III A patient with severe systemic disease
      ASA IV A patient with severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life
      ASA V A moribund patient who is not expected to survive without the operation
      ASA VI A declared brain-dead patient whose organs are being removed for donor purposes

      A 20-year old woman who is 39-weeks pregnant with no other medical conditions – ASA II

      A 35-year-old man with a BMI of 29 with a good exercise tolerance who smokes-ASA II

      A 50-year old man with a BMI of 41 with a reduced exercise tolerance -ASA III

      A 65-year old woman with a BMI of 34 with treated hypertension with no functional limitations-ASA II

      A 73-year old man who has had a TIA ten-weeks ago but has a good exercise tolerance and is a non-smoker-ASA IV

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      23.5
      Seconds
  • Question 68 - This vertebrae can be easily differentiated from the rest because of its prominent...

    Correct

    • This vertebrae can be easily differentiated from the rest because of its prominent spinous process.

      Your Answer: C7

      Explanation:

      The spinous process is the part of a vertebrae that is directed posteriorly.

      Typical cervical vertebra have spinous processes that are small and bifid, except for C7, which has a long and prominent spinous process.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 69 - How data is collected for the Delphi survey technique? ...

    Correct

    • How data is collected for the Delphi survey technique?

      Your Answer: Questionnaires

      Explanation:

      The Delphi is a group facilitation technique that seeks to obtain consensus on the opinions of `experts’ through a series of structured questionnaires (commonly referred to as rounds). By using successive questionnaires, opinions are considered in a non-adversarial manner, with the current status of the groups’ collective opinion being repeatedly fed back. Studies employing the Delphi make use of individuals who have knowledge of the topic being investigated

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 70 - Given the following hormones, which of these will stimulate glycogenesis and gluconeogenesis? ...

    Correct

    • Given the following hormones, which of these will stimulate glycogenesis and gluconeogenesis?

      Your Answer: Corticosteroids

      Explanation:

      Insulin is the primary anabolic hormone that dominates regulation of metabolism during digestive phase. It promotes glucose uptake in skeletal myocytes and adipocytes, and other insulin-target cells. It promotes glycogenesis and inhibits gluconeogenesis.

      Glucagon is the primary counterregulatory hormone that increases blood glucose levels, primarily through its effects on liver glucose output.

      Similar to glucagon, growth hormone, catecholamines and corticosteroids are also counterregulatory factors released in response to decreased glucose concentrations. Growth hormone promotes glycogenolysis and inhibits gluconeogenesis; catecholamines stimulate glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis; while corticosteroids stimulate glycogenesis and gluconeogenesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      39.5
      Seconds
  • Question 71 - A patient on admission is given an infusion of 1000 mL of 10%...

    Correct

    • A patient on admission is given an infusion of 1000 mL of 10% glucose and 500 mL of 20% lipid over a 24 hour period.

      Which of these best approximates to the energy input over this time period?

      Your Answer: 1300 kcal

      Explanation:

      1% solution contains 1 g of substance per 100 mL.

      A solution of 10% glucose is 10 g/100mL. Therefore 1000 mL of this glucose solution will contain 100 g.

      1 g of glucose yields about 4 kcal of energy. One litre of 10% glucose will therefore release approximately 4x100g = 400 kcal of energy.

      A solution of 20% fat is 20 g/100mL. Therefore 1000 mL of this fat solution will have 200 g and 500 mL will contain 100 g.

      1 g of fat yields approximately 9 kcal. 500 mL of 20% fat therefore has the potential to yield 900 kcal of energy.

      The total energy input over this 24 hour period is approximately 400kcal + 900kcal = 1300 kcal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      105.8
      Seconds
  • Question 72 - Regarding thyroid hormones, one of the following is true. ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding thyroid hormones, one of the following is true.

      Your Answer: D-thyroxine is more active than L-thyroxine

      Correct Answer: Thyroid binding globulin (TBG) is increased in pregnancy

      Explanation:

      T3 is produced by peripheral de-iodination of T4. It is more active than T4.

      TBG, like most binding proteins, is increased in pregnancy. Because of this, measurement of free thyroid hormone concentration is more important than total.

      T4 and T3 concentrations are decreased in Illness and starvation.

      L-T4 that is the active molecule while D-T4 is inactive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      92.9
      Seconds
  • Question 73 - What feature is found in the flowmeters of modern anaesthetic machines ? ...

    Incorrect

    • What feature is found in the flowmeters of modern anaesthetic machines ?

      Your Answer: Oxygen is the first gas to be added to the mixture delivered to the back bar

      Correct Answer: The use of stannic oxide increases the accuracy of flowmeters

      Explanation:

      Flowmeters measure the rate at which a specific gas, that the flowmeter has been calibrated for, passes through. This calibration is done at room temperature and standard atmospheric pressure with an accuracy of +/- 2%.

      Reading the flowmeter is done from the top of a bobbin (the midpoint of a ball). Oxygen is the last gas to be added downstream to the mixture delivered to the back bar as a safety feature. This prevents delivery of a hypoxic mixture.

      Inaccurate flow measurements occur when the bobbin sticks to the inside wall of the flowmeter. Stannic oxide has been used as a successful antistatic substance thus, reducing the aforementioned risk.

      Carbon dioxide being easily delivered is found on some older machines, but those attached flowmeters are limited by a maximum flow of 500 ml /min. Thus avoiding the delivery of a hypercarbic mixture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      31.4
      Seconds
  • Question 74 - Which one of the following pharmacokinetic models is most suitable for target-controlled infusion...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following pharmacokinetic models is most suitable for target-controlled infusion (TCI) of propofol in paediatric patients?

      Your Answer: Marsh

      Correct Answer: Kataria

      Explanation:

      Marsh (adult) model, when used with children caused over-estimation of plasma concentration. To address this issue Kataria et al developed a three-compartmental model for propofol in children. The pharmacokinetic models used by Target controlled infusion (TCI) systems are used to calculate the relative sizes of the central (vascular), vessel-rich peripheral, and vessel-poor peripheral compartments. The relative volumes of these compartments are different in young children when compared to adults.

      Kataria, therefore, is the correct option as described above.

      The Maitre model is a three-compartmental model for alfentanil TCI.

      The Marsh model describes a propofol TCI model for adults

      The Minto model applies to TCI remifentanil.

      The Schnider model is also an adult model for propofol that incorporates age and lean body mass as covariates.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      16.3
      Seconds
  • Question 75 - Typical sigmoid log dose-response curves are seen in agonists and are used to...

    Correct

    • Typical sigmoid log dose-response curves are seen in agonists and are used to compare efficacy and potency. Which of the following opioids has a log dose-response curve furthest to the right?

      Your Answer: Tramadol

      Explanation:

      Lesser the potency of the drug, the higher the dose required to produce maximal receptor occupation. So, the least potent drug will have a log dose-response curve furthest to the right on X-axis.

      Based on the option given, tramadol is the least potent drug and thus higher dose is required to produce maximal opioid receptor occupation.

      Thus, Tramadol is the least potent opioid with a log dose-response curve furthest to the right on X-axis.

      Note, Fentanyl is the most potent opioid with a log dose-response curve furthest to the left on the X-axis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      18.6
      Seconds
  • Question 76 - A 55-year-old businesswoman presents to the emergency department complaining of shortness of breath...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old businesswoman presents to the emergency department complaining of shortness of breath and pleuritic chest pain. Her work requires her to travel internationally frequently. The consultant makes a diagnosis and treats her.

      Now, the consultant recommends placing a filter that will prevent future incidents. A needle is placed into the femoral vein and passed up into the abdomen to insert the filter.

      What is true regarding the organ where the filter is placed for this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: It is attached to the posterior wall via a mesentery

      Correct Answer: It is located posteriorly to the peritoneum

      Explanation:

      The patient likely suffers from pulmonary embolism due to her history of frequent international travels. A filter is placed in the inferior vena cava to decrease the risk of future episodes of pulmonary embolism. The IVC filter is a small, wiry device that can catch blood clots and stop them from going into the heart and lungs. Your IVC is a major vessel that brings deoxygenated blood from the lower body to the heart, from where it is pumped into the lungs.

      The filter is placed via a thin catheter inserted into the femoral vein in the groin. The catheter is gently moved up into your IVC, and a filter is introduced.

      The IVC is a retroperitoneal organ.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      74.4
      Seconds
  • Question 77 - Which of the following does Lidocaine 1% solution equate to? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following does Lidocaine 1% solution equate to?

      Your Answer: 10 mg per 1000 ml

      Correct Answer: 1000 mg per 100 ml

      Explanation:

      Lidocaine 1% is formulated as 1000 mg/100 mL.

      % solution is based on (grams of medicine) / 100 ml

      % solution ~ (1000 mg) / 100 ml

      % solution ~ 10 mg/ml

      Examples:

        • Lidocaine 4% = 40 mg/ml of Lidocaine
        • Lidocaine 2% = 20 mg/ml of Lidocaine
        • Lidocaine 1% = 10 mg/ml of Lidocaine

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      28.1
      Seconds
  • Question 78 - With regards to oxygen delivery in the body, which of these statements is...

    Correct

    • With regards to oxygen delivery in the body, which of these statements is true?

      Your Answer: Anaemia will reduce oxygen delivery

      Explanation:

      Oxygen delivery depends on 2 variables.
      1) Content of oxygen in blood
      2) Cardiac output

      Oxygen content (arterial) = (Hb (g/dL) x 1.39 x SaO2 (%) ) + (0.023 x PaO2 (kPa))

      Oxygen content (mixed venous) = (Hb (g/dL) x 1.39 x mixed venous saturation) + (0.023 x mixed venous partial pressure of oxygen in kPA)

      Huffner’s constant = 1.39 = 1g of Hb binds to 1.39 ml of O2

      Oxygen delivery DO2 (ml/min) = 10 x Cardiac output (L/min) x Oxygen content
      Normally 1000ml/min

      Oxygen consumption VO2 (ml/min) = 10 x Cardiac output (L/min) x Difference in arterial and mixed venous oxygen content
      Normally 250 ml/min

      Oxygen extraction ratio (OER) = VO2/DO2
      Normally approximately 25%

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      24
      Seconds
  • Question 79 - The muscle that lies behind the first part of the axillary nerve is?...

    Incorrect

    • The muscle that lies behind the first part of the axillary nerve is?

      Your Answer: Teres minor

      Correct Answer: Subscapularis

      Explanation:

      The axillary nerve lies behind the axillary artery initially, and in front of the subscapularis. It passes downward to the lower border of the subscapularis muscle.

      In company with the posterior humeral circumflex artery and vein, it winds backward through a quadrilateral space bounded above by the subscapularis (anterior) and teres minor (posterior), below by the teres major, medially by the long head of the triceps brachii, and laterally by the humerus (surgical neck).

      It then divides into an anterior and a posterior part. The anterior division supplies the deltoid (anterior and middle heads) while the posterior division supplies the teres minor and posterior part of deltoid
      The posterior division terminates as the superior lateral cutaneous nerve of the arm

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      18.8
      Seconds
  • Question 80 - Which of the following statements is true regarding the relation to the liver?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding the relation to the liver?

      Your Answer: There are no nerves within the porta hepatis

      Correct Answer: The caudate lobe is superior to the porta hepatis

      Explanation:

      Ligamentum venosum is an anterior relation of the liver: The ligamentum venosum, the fibrous remnant of the ductus venosus of the fetal circulation, lies posterior to the liver. It lies in the fossa for ductus venosus that separates the caudate lobe and the left lobe of the liver.

      The portal triad contains three important tubes: 1. Proper hepatic artery 2. Hepatic portal vein 3. Bile ductules It also contains lymphatic vessels and a branch of the vagus nerve.

      The bare area of the liver is a large triangular area that is devoid of any peritoneal covering. The bare area is attached directly to the diaphragm by loose connective tissue. This nonperitoneal area is created by a wide separation between the coronary ligaments.

      The porta hepatis is a fissure in the inferior surface of the liver. All the neurovascular structures (except the hepatic veins) and hepatic ducts enter or leave the liver via the porta hepatis. It contains the sympathetic branch to the liver and gallbladder and the parasympathetic, hepatic branch of the vagus nerve. The caudate lobe (segment I) lies in the lesser sac on the inferior surface of the liver between the IVC on the right, the ligamentum venosum on the left, and the porta hepatis in front

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      21
      Seconds
  • Question 81 - Which of the following statement is not true regarding Adrenaline or Epinephrine? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statement is not true regarding Adrenaline or Epinephrine?

      Your Answer: Inhibits Insulin secretion

      Correct Answer: Inhibits Glucagon secretion in the pancreas

      Explanation:

      Adrenaline acts on ?1, ?2,?1, and ?2 receptors and also on dopamine receptors (D1, D2) and have sympathomimetic effects.

      Natural catecholamines are Adrenaline, Noradrenaline, and Dopamine

      Adrenaline is a sympathomimetic amine with both alpha and beta-adrenergic stimulating properties.
      Adrenaline is the drug of choice for anaphylactic shock
      Adrenaline is also used in patients with cardiac arrest. The preferred route is i.v. followed by the intra-osseous and endotracheal route.

      Adrenaline is released by the adrenal glands, acts on ? 1 and 2, ? 1 and 2 receptors, and is responsible for fight or flight response.

      It acts on ? 2 receptors in skeletal muscle vessels-causing vasodilation.

      It acts on ? adrenergic receptors to inhibit insulin secretion by the pancreas. It also stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver and muscle, stimulates glycolysis in muscle.

      It acts on ? adrenergic receptors to stimulate glucagon secretion in the pancreas. It also stimulates Adrenocorticotrophic Hormone (ACTH) and stimulates lipolysis by adipose tissue

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      24.6
      Seconds
  • Question 82 - Which one is true with respect to the first rib? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one is true with respect to the first rib?

      Your Answer: The subclavian vein runs lateral to the subclavian artery

      Correct Answer: Scalenus anterior is inserted onto the scalene tubercle

      Explanation:

      Specific knowledge of the anatomical relationship is required to address this examination question.

      The first rib is small and thick and contains a single facet that articulates at the costovertebral joint. It consist of a head, neck and shaft but a discrete angle is deficit. Along the side the shaft is indented with a groove for the subclavian artery and the lower brachial plexus trunk. Front to the scalene tubercle is a space for the subclavian vein.

      The first rib has the scalenus front muscle joined to the scalene tubercle, isolating the subclavian vein (anteriorly) from the subclavian artery (posteriorly). This anatomical relationship is of major significance with respect to subclavian vein cannulation.

      The 1st rib has the following relationships:

      superior: lower trunk of the brachial plexus, subclavian vessels, clavicle.

      inferior: intercostal vessels and nerves

      posterior and inferior: pleura

      anterior: sympathetic trunk (over neck)

      superior intercostal artery, ventral T1 nerve root

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      21.6
      Seconds
  • Question 83 - Which of the following statements is an accurate fact about the vertebral column?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is an accurate fact about the vertebral column?

      Your Answer: Herniation of intervertebral disc between the fifth and sixth cervical vertebrae will compress the sixth cervical nerve root

      Explanation:

      The vertebral (spinal) column is the skeletal central axis made up of approximately 33 bones called the vertebrae.

      Cervical disc herniations occur when some or all of the nucleus pulposus extends through the annulus fibrosus. The most commonly affected discs are the C5-C6 and C6-C7 discs. Each vertebrae has a corresponding nerve root which arises at a level above it. This means that a hernation of the C5-C6 disc will cause a compression of the C6 nerve root.

      The foramen transversarium is a part of the transverse process of each cervical vertebrae, however, the vertebral artery only runs through the C1-C6 foramen transversarium.

      The costal facets are the point of joint formation between a rib and a vertebrae. As such, they are only present on the transverse processes of T1-T10.

      The lumbar vertebrae do not form a joint with the ribs, nor do they possess a foramina in their transverse process.

      Intervertebral discs are thickest in the cervical and lumbar regions of the spinal column. However, there are no discs between C1 and C2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      38.2
      Seconds
  • Question 84 - A 46-year old man was taken to the emergency room due to slow,...

    Correct

    • A 46-year old man was taken to the emergency room due to slow, laboured breathing. A relative reported that he's maintained on codeine 60 mg, taken orally every 6 hours for severe pain from oesophageal cancer. His creatinine was elevated, and glomerular filtration rate was severely decreased at 27 ml/minute.

      Given the scenario above, which of the metabolites of codeine is the culprit for his clinical findings?

      Your Answer: Morphine-6-glucuronide

      Explanation:

      Accumulation of morphine-6-glucuronide is a risk factor for opioid toxicity during morphine treatment. Morphine is metabolized in the liver to morphine-6-glucuronide and morphine-3-glucuronide, both of which are excreted by the kidneys. In the setting of renal failure, these metabolites can accumulate, resulting in a lowering of the seizure threshold. However, it does not occur in all patients with renal insufficiency, which is the most common reason for accumulation of morphine-6-glucuronide; this suggests that other risk factors can contribute to morphine-6-glucuronide toxicity.

      The active metabolites of codeine are morphine and the morphine metabolite morphine-6-glucuronide. The enzyme systems responsible for this metabolism are: CYP2D for codeine and UGT2B7 for morphine, codeine-6-gluronide, and morphine-6-glucuronide. Both of these systems are subject to genetic variation. Some patients are ultrarapid metabolizers of codeine and produce higher levels of morphine and active metabolites in a very short period of time after administration. These increased levels will produce increased side effects, especially drowsiness and central nervous system depression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      41.8
      Seconds
  • Question 85 - Which of the following is the maximum volume of 0.5% bupivacaine that should...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the maximum volume of 0.5% bupivacaine that should be administered to a 10kg child?

      Your Answer: 10 ml

      Correct Answer: 5 ml

      Explanation:

      Bupivacaine is used to decrease sensation in a specific area. It is injected around a nerve that supplies the area, or into the spinal canal’s epidural space.

      The maximum volume of 0.5% bupivacaine that should be administered to a 10kg child is 5 ml

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      27.3
      Seconds
  • Question 86 - Which of the following statement is not true regarding the effects of Dopamine...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statement is not true regarding the effects of Dopamine in CNS?

      Your Answer: Inhibits secretion of prolactin from pituitary gland

      Correct Answer: Most of the administered dose is converted to Noradrenaline in sympathetic nerve terminals

      Explanation:

      Nausea and vomiting occur commonly due to Chemoreceptor Trigger Zone (CTZ) stimulation by dopamine (Domperidone but not metoclopramide can be used for the treatment of this vomiting)

      Dopamine itself cannot cross the blood-brain barrier (BBB) but its precursor levodopa can cross BBB.

      Dopamine can modulate extrapyramidal symptoms like acute dyskinesia, tardive dyskinesia, Parkinsonism, and Neuroleptic malignant syndrome.

      Dopamine inhibits the secretion of prolactin from the pituitary gland.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      42.1
      Seconds
  • Question 87 - The thebesian veins contribute to the venous drainage of the heart. Into which...

    Correct

    • The thebesian veins contribute to the venous drainage of the heart. Into which of the following structures do they primarily drain?

      Your Answer: Atrium

      Explanation:

      The heart has two venous drainage systems:
      1. Greater venous system – it parallels the coronary arterial circulation and provides 70% venous drainage to the heart
      2. Lesser venous system – includes the thebasian veins and provides up to 30% of the venous drainage to the heart

      Thebasian veins (also called venae cordis minimae) are the smallest coronary veins and run in the myocardial layer of the heart. They serve to drain the myocardium and are present in all four heart chambers. They are more abundant on the right side of the heart and, more specifically, are most abundant in the right atrium. Thebesian veins drain the subendocardial myocardium either directly, via connecting intramural arteries and veins, or indirectly, via subendocardial sinusoidal spaces.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 88 - A patient visits the radiology department for a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan...

    Incorrect

    • A patient visits the radiology department for a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan (MRI). The presence of metal implants must be ruled out prior to the scan.

      In a strong magnetic field, which of the following metals is the safest?

      Your Answer: Iron

      Correct Answer: Chromium

      Explanation:

      Ferromagnetism is the property of a substance that is magnetically attracted and can be magnetised indefinitely. A material is said to be paramagnetic if it is attracted to a magnetic field. A substance is said to be diamagnetic if it is repelled by a magnetic field.

      Cobalt, iron, gadolinium, neodymium, and nickel are ferromagnetic.

      Gadolinium is a ferromagnetic rare earth metal that is ferromagnetic below 20 degrees Celsius (its Curie temperature). MRI scans are enhanced with gadolinium-based contrast media.

      When ferromagnetic materials are exposed to a magnetic field, they can cause a variety of issues like magnetic field interactions, heating, and image artefacts.

      Titanium, lead, chromium, copper, aluminium, silver, gold, and tin are non ferromagnetic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      21.6
      Seconds
  • Question 89 - Which of these statements is false relating to the posterior cerebral artery? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these statements is false relating to the posterior cerebral artery?

      Your Answer: It supplies the visual cortex

      Correct Answer: It is connected to the circle of Willis via the superior cerebellar artery

      Explanation:

      The posterior cerebral arteries are the terminal branches of the basilar artery and are connected to the circle of Willis via the posterior communicating artery. The posterior cerebral artery supplies the visual areas of the cerebral cortex and other structures in the visual pathway.

      The posterior cerebral artery is separated from the superior cerebellar artery near its origin by the oculomotor nerve (3rd cranial nerve) and, lateral to the midbrain, by the trochlear nerve.

      PCA strokes will primarily cause a visual field loss or homonymous hemianopia to the opposite side. This large occipital or PCA stroke causes people to be “blind” on one side of the visual field. This is the most common symptom of a large occipital lesion or PCA stroke.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 90 - A 60-year-old man had previously been diagnosed with Type 2 diabetes. He had...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man had previously been diagnosed with Type 2 diabetes. He had recently started gliclazide, a sulphonyl urea, as his diabetes was not controlled by metformin alone.

      Now, he presents to his physician with complaints of anxiety, sweating, and palpitations since the morning. On physical examination, he is pale and clammy and has mydriasis and increased bowel sounds.

      Which biological site primarily synthesizes the hormone responsible for this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Alpha-cells of the islets of Langerhans

      Correct Answer: Chromaffin cells of the adrenal medulla

      Explanation:

      This patient has been shifted to a sulfonylurea drug whose most common side effect is hypoglycaemia. Similar symptoms can arise in a patient on insulin too. The signs and symptoms are consistent with a hypoglycaemic attack and include tachycardia, altered consciousness, and behaviour. This needs to be treated as an emergency with rapid correction of the blood glucose level using glucose or IV 20% dextrose.

      In a hypoglycaemic attack, the body undergoes stress and releases hormones to increase blood glucose levels. These include:
      Glucagon
      Cortisol
      Adrenaline

      Adrenaline or epinephrine is the hormone responsible for this patient’s condition and is primarily produced in the medulla of the adrenal gland. It functions primarily to raise cardiac output and raise blood glucose levels in the blood.

      Alpha-cells of the islets of Langerhans produce the hormone glucagon, which has opposing effects to insulin.

      Follicular cells of the thyroid gland produce and secrete thyroid hormones. Thyroid hormones can cause similar symptoms, but it is unlikely with the patient’s medical history.

      Post-ganglionic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system use norepinephrine as a neurotransmitter. Adrenaline can be made in these cells, but it is not their primary production site.

      Zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex is the main site for the production of cortisol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      58.1
      Seconds
  • Question 91 - Which of the following statement is true regarding the mechanism of action of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statement is true regarding the mechanism of action of macrolides?

      Your Answer: Inhibits RNA synthesis

      Correct Answer: Inhibits protein synthesis

      Explanation:

      The mechanism of action of macrolides is inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis by preventing peptidyltransferase from adding to the growing peptide which is attached to tRNA to the next amino acid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      16.4
      Seconds
  • Question 92 - At sea level, Sevoflurane is administered via a plenum vaporiser. 100 mL of...

    Incorrect

    • At sea level, Sevoflurane is administered via a plenum vaporiser. 100 mL of the fresh gas flow is bypassed into the vaporising chamber. Temperature within the vaporising chamber is maintained at 20°C.

      The following fresh gas flows approximates best for the delivery of 1% sevoflurane.

      Your Answer: 27 L/minute

      Correct Answer: 2.7 L/minute

      Explanation:

      The equation for calculating vaporiser output is:

      Vaporiser output (VO) mL = Carrier gas flow (mL/minute) × SVP of agent (kPa)
      Ambient pressure (kPa) − SVP of agent (kPa)

      The saturated vapour pressure of sevoflurane at 1 atm (100 kPa) and 20°C is 21 kPa.

      VO = (100 mL × 21 kPa)/(100 kPa − 21kPa) for sevoflurane,
      VO = 26.6 mL

      26.6 mL of 100% sevoflurane and 100 mL bypass carrier gas is being added to the fresh gas flow per minute.

      2660 mL of 1% sevoflurane and 100 mL bypass carrier gas is approximately 2.7 L/minute.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      44.9
      Seconds
  • Question 93 - A 20-year-old male student is admitted to ER after sustaining a crush injury...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old male student is admitted to ER after sustaining a crush injury of the pelvis.

      Clinical examination is as follows:
      Airway: Patent
      Breathing: RR: 25 breaths per minute, breath sounds vesicular, nil added
      Circulation: Capillary refill time = 4 seconds, cool peripheries
      Pulse: 125 beats per minute
      BP: 125/96 mmHg
      Disability:
      Glasgow coma score 15
      Anxious and in pain.

      Secondary survey does not reveal any other significant injuries. The patient is given high flow oxygen therapy and intravenous access is established.

      Which one of the following options is the most appropriate initial route of intravenous access?

      Your Answer: Left cephalic vein

      Explanation:

      The clinical signs suggest a class II haemorrhage – 15-30% of circulating blood volume has been lost.

      Pelvic fractures are associated with significant concealed haemorrhage (>2000 ml) and may require aggressive fluid resuscitation. Other priorities include stabilisation of the fracture(s) and pain relief.

      The Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) classification of haemorrhagic shock is as follows:

      Class I haemorrhage (blood loss up to 15%):
      <750 ml of blood loss
      Minimal tachycardia
      No changes in blood pressure, RR or pulse pressure
      Normally not require fluid replacement as will be restored in 24 hours, but in trauma correct.

      Class II haemorrhage (15-30% blood volume loss):
      Uncomplicated haemorrhage requiring crystalloid resuscitation
      Represents about 750 – 1500 ml of blood loss
      Tachycardia, tachypnoea and a decrease in pulse pressure (due to a rise in diastolic component due action of catecholamines)
      Minimal systolic pressure changes
      Anxiety, fright or hostility
      Can usually be stabilised by crystalloid, but may later require a blood transfusion.

      Class III haemorrhage (30-40% blood volume loss):
      Complicated haemorrhagic state in which at least crystalloid and probably blood replacement are required
      Classical signs of inadequate perfusion, marked tachycardia, tachypnoea, significant changes in mental state and measurable fall in systolic pressure
      Almost always require blood transfusion, but decision based on patient initial response to fluid resuscitation.

      Class IV haemorrhage (> 40% blood volume loss):
      Preterminal event patient will die in minutes
      Marked tachycardia, significant depression in systolic pressure and very narrow pulse pressure (or unobtainable diastolic pressure)
      Mental state is markedly depressed
      Skin cold and pale
      Need rapid transfusion and immediate surgical intervention.

      Loss of >50% results in loss of consciousness, pulse and blood pressure.

      The route of choice is an arm vein (cephalic) with one or two large bore cannula. This will enable initial aggressive fluid resuscitation. A central line can be inserted at a later stage if central venous monitoring is deemed necessary. If a suitable peripheral vein cannot be cannulated with a large bore cannula then the internal jugular vein could be accessed rapidly (preferably ultrasound guided).

      Intravenous access below the diaphragm in this case is inadvisable when other routes are available.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      18.3
      Seconds
  • Question 94 - Of the following, which is NOT a branch of the external carotid artery?...

    Incorrect

    • Of the following, which is NOT a branch of the external carotid artery?

      Your Answer: Maxillary artery

      Correct Answer: Mandibular artery

      Explanation:

      The external carotid artery has eight important branches:
      1. Superior thyroid artery
      2. Ascending pharyngeal artery
      3. Lingual artery
      4. Facial artery
      5. Occipital artery
      6. Posterior auricular artery
      7. Maxillary artery (terminal branch)
      8. Superficial temporal artery (terminal branch)

      There is no mandibular artery but the first part of the maxillary artery is called the mandibular part as it is posterior to the lateral pterygoid muscle.
      The maxillary artery is divided into three portions by its relation to the lateral pterygoid muscle:
      first (mandibular) part: posterior to the lateral pterygoid muscle
      second (pterygoid or muscular) part: within the lateral pterygoid muscle
      third (pterygopalatine) part: anterior to the lateral pterygoid muscle

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 95 - A project is being planned to assess the effects of a new anticoagulant...

    Correct

    • A project is being planned to assess the effects of a new anticoagulant on the coagulation cascade. The intrinsic pathway is being studied and the best measurement to be recorded is which of the following?

      Your Answer: aPTT

      Explanation:

      The intrinsic pathway is best assessed by the aPTT time.

      D-dimer is a fibrin degradation product which is raised in the presence of blood clots.

      A 50:50 mixing study is used to assess if a prolonged PT or aPTT is due to factor deficiency or a factor inhibitor.

      The thrombin time is a test used to assess fibrin formation from fibrinogen in plasma. Factors that prolong the thrombin time include heparin, fibrin degradation products, and fibrinogen deficiency.

      Intrinsic pathway – Best assessed by APTT. Factors 8,9,11,12 are involved. Prolonged aPTT can be seen in haemophilia and use of heparin.

      Extrinsic pathway – Best assessed by Increased PT. Factor 7 involved.

      Common pathway – Best assessed by APTT & PT. Factors 2,5,10 involved.

      Vitamin K dependent factors are factors 2,7,9,10

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 96 - A strain gauge operates on which of the following principles? ...

    Correct

    • A strain gauge operates on which of the following principles?

      Your Answer: Varying resistance of a wire when stretched

      Explanation:

      The principle by which a strain gauge works is that when a wire is stretched, it becomes longer and thinner, and as a result, its resistance increases.

      A strain gauge, which is used in pressure transducers, acts as a resistor. When the pressure in a pressure transducer changes, the diaphragm moves, changing the tension in the resistance wire and thus changing the resistance.

      Changes in current flow through the resistor are amplified and displayed as a pressure change measure.

      A Wheatstone bridge, on the other hand, is frequently used to measure or monitor these changes in resistance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      24.7
      Seconds
  • Question 97 - A 64-year-old man is admitted to the critical care unit. He has a...

    Incorrect

    • A 64-year-old man is admitted to the critical care unit. He has a recent medical history of faecal peritonitis for which a laparotomy was performed. His vitals have been monitored using an invasive pulmonary artery flotation catheter.

      His vital readings are:

      Temperature: 38.1°C
      Blood pressure: 79/51 mmHg (mean 58 mmHg)
      Pulmonary artery pressure: 19/6 mmHg (mean 10 mmHg)
      Pulmonary capillary occlusion pressure: 5 mmHg
      Central venous pressure: 12 mmHg
      Cardiac output: 5 L/min
      Mixed venous oxygen saturation: 82%

      Calculate his approximate pulmonary vascular resistance.

      Note: A correction factor of 80 is require to convert mmHg to dynes·s·cm-5

      Your Answer: 40 dynes·s·cm-5

      Correct Answer: 80 dynes·s·cm-5

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR) refers to the resistance to blood flow to the left atrium from the pulmonary artery.
      It is derived mathematically by:

      PVR = MPAP – PCWP
      CO
      where,
      MPAP: Mean pulmonary artery pressure
      PCWP: Pulmonary capillary occlusion pressure
      CO: Cardiac output

      For this patient:
      PVR = 10 – 5 = 1mmHg
      5

      Remember, multiply by correction factor 80 to change units:

      PVR = 1mmHg x 80 = 80 dynes·s·cm-5

      Normal values range between 20-130 dynes·s·cm-5

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      78.8
      Seconds
  • Question 98 - Which of the following best explains the statement Epinephrine is formulated as 1...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following best explains the statement Epinephrine is formulated as 1 in 1000 solution

      Your Answer: 1000 mcg per 100 ml solution

      Correct Answer: 1000 mg per 1000 ml solution

      Explanation:

      The statement Epinephrine is formulated as 1 in 1000 solution means 1 gm epinephrine is present in 1000 ml of solution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      36.8
      Seconds
  • Question 99 - In a study lasting over a period of two years, in which the...

    Incorrect

    • In a study lasting over a period of two years, in which the mean age of 800 patients was 82 years, the efficacy of hip protectors in reducing femoral neck fractures was discussed.

      Both experimental and control group had 400 members. Instances of fractures reported over the two year time duration were 10 for the control group (that were prescribed hip protector) and 20 for the control group.

      What is the value of Absolute Risk Reduction?

      Your Answer: 0.5

      Correct Answer: 0.025

      Explanation:

      ARR= (Risk factor associated with the new drug group) — (Risk factor associated with the currently available drug)

      So,

      ARR= (10/400)-(20/400)

      ARR= 0.025-0.05

      ARR= 0.025 (Numerical Value)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      36.9
      Seconds
  • Question 100 - What is the most sensitive method of detecting an intra-operative air embolism? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most sensitive method of detecting an intra-operative air embolism?

      Your Answer: Central venous pressure monitor

      Correct Answer: Transoesophageal echocardiogram

      Explanation:

      An intra-operative air embolism occurs when air becomes trapped in the blood vessels during surgery.

      A transoesophageal echocardiography (OE) uses invasive echocardiography to monitor the integrity and performance of the heart. It is the gold standard as it provides real-time imaging of the heart to enable early diagnosis and treatment.

      Precordial doppler ultrasonography can also be used to detect into-operative air emboli. It is non-invasive and more practical, but is less sensitive.

      A change in end-tidal CO2 could be indicative of and increase in physiological dead-space, but could also be indicative of any processes that reduces the excretion or increases the production of CO2, making it non-specific.

      A transoesophageal stethoscope can be used to listen for the classic mill-wheel murmur produced by a large air embolus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      13.1
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Pharmacology (6/22) 27%
Anatomy (9/25) 36%
Pathophysiology (10/17) 59%
Statistical Methods (3/9) 33%
Anaesthesia Related Apparatus (2/5) 40%
Physiology And Biochemistry (5/7) 71%
Clinical Measurement (2/5) 40%
Basic Physics (0/4) 0%
Physiology (3/6) 50%
Passmed