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  • Question 1 - Which structure is the primary mechanism for shunting blood away from the fetal...

    Correct

    • Which structure is the primary mechanism for shunting blood away from the fetal pulmonary circulation?

      Your Answer: Foramen Ovale

      Explanation:

      Blood enters the right atrium of the fetal heart and most passes through the foramen ovale into the left atrium. From there it is pumped through the aorta. The foramen ovale is the major structure for bypassing the fetal pulmonary circulation. Some of the blood in the right atrium does enters the right ventricle and then into the pulmonary artery however most of this passes through the ductus arteriosus into the aorta thus bypassing the fetal pulmonary circulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      115.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - How many days after fertilisation does the blastocyst hatch from the zone pellucida?...

    Incorrect

    • How many days after fertilisation does the blastocyst hatch from the zone pellucida?

      Your Answer: 14-21

      Correct Answer: 5-Jul

      Explanation:

      Shortly after the morula enters the uterus, around the 4th day after fertilization, a clear cystic cavity starts forming inside the morula. The fluid passes through the zona pellucida from the uterine cavity and hence forms the blastocyst.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Regarding uterine fibroids, which of the following statements is false? ...

    Correct

    • Regarding uterine fibroids, which of the following statements is false?

      Your Answer: The risk of fibroids is increased by pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Fibroids are a common gynaecological condition found in many women above the age of 35. They are however uncommon before puberty. They are most common in black women vs white women, and its prevalence increases from puberty to menopause. Risk factors for fibroids include increasing age, obesity and infertility. Protective factors, on the other hand, include pregnancy, as the risk of fibroids decreases with increasing numbers of pregnancies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      30.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Regarding the female breast how many lobes does the typical breast contain? ...

    Correct

    • Regarding the female breast how many lobes does the typical breast contain?

      Your Answer: 15-20

      Explanation:

      The basic components of the mammary gland are the alveoli. These are lined with milk-secreting cuboidal cells surrounded by myoepithelial cells. The alveoli join to form groups known as lobules. The lobules form lobes. Each lobe has a lactiferous duct that drains into openings in the nipple. Each breast typically contains 15-20 lobes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which organism is the most common cause of puerperal sepsis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which organism is the most common cause of puerperal sepsis?

      Your Answer: Group B Streptococcus

      Correct Answer: Group A Streptococcus

      Explanation:

      Puerperal sepsis is defined as sepsis occurring after birth until 6 weeks postnatal. The most common cause of puerperal sepsis is Group A streptococcus. Until 1937, puerperal sepsis was the major cause of maternal mortality. The discovery of sulphonamides in 1935 and the simultaneous reduction in the virulence of the haemolytic streptococcus resulted in a dramatic fall in maternal mortality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Hysterosalpingogram (HSG) is contraindicated in the following EXCEPT: ...

    Correct

    • Hysterosalpingogram (HSG) is contraindicated in the following EXCEPT:

      Your Answer: Congenital malformations of the uterus

      Explanation:

      Anomalies of the cervico-uterus are widely diagnosed by HSG. The diagnostic value of HSG in the detection of anomalies varies, depending on the type of malformation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      63.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 30 year old female with type I diabetes for 13 years, came...

    Incorrect

    • A 30 year old female with type I diabetes for 13 years, came for pre-pregnancy counselling. Which of the following is the most suitable advise for her?

      Your Answer: She should aim to have a pre-pregnancy HbA1c of <48 mmol/mol (6.5%)

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines women with type I diabetes, who are expecting a child should aim to keep their HbA1c level[1] below 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) without causing problematic hypoglycaemia. Women with diabetes whose HbA1c level is above 86 mmol/mol (10%) should be strongly advised not to get pregnant because of the associated risks. The risks are higher with chronic diabetes. There is an increased risk to the foetus or mother due to diabetes in pregnancy. Women who are waiting to become pregnant should take folic acid (5 mg/day) until 12 weeks of gestation to reduce the risk of having a baby with a neural tube defect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      63.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - When is the highest risk of maternal-fetal transmission of Toxoplasma Gondii during pregnancy?...

    Correct

    • When is the highest risk of maternal-fetal transmission of Toxoplasma Gondii during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: 26-40 weeks

      Explanation:

      The risk of transplacental transmission from mother to foetus is greater in later pregnancy i.e. 26-40 weeks. Although the risk of transmission is lower in early pregnancy, if infection does occur earlier, particularly before 10 weeks, then complications are typically more severe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following leaves the pelvis via the greater sciatic foramen? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following leaves the pelvis via the greater sciatic foramen?

      Your Answer: Obturator Nerve

      Correct Answer: Pudendal Nerve

      Explanation:

      The pudendal nerve is formed by sacral nerve roots S2, S3 and S4 almost immediately as they exit the spinal foramina. The pudendal nerve exits the pelvis via the greater sciatic foramen, travels behind the sacrospinous ligament before re-entering the pelvis via the lesser sciatic foramen. It is an important nerve to be aware of as it supplies sensation to the genitalia and can also be damaged/compressed at a number of places along its course. Image sourced from Wikipedia

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following is the most appropriate for diagnosis of Bacterial Vaginosis...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the most appropriate for diagnosis of Bacterial Vaginosis (BV)?

      Your Answer: Fitz-Hugh-Curtis score

      Correct Answer: Amsel's criteria

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis can be made using the Amsel’s criteria:
      1. Presence of clue cells on microscopic examination (these cells are epithelial cells covered with the bacteria).
      2. Creamy greyish discharge.
      3. Vaginal pH of more than 4.5.
      5. Positive whiff test – release of fishy odour on addition of alkali solution. Other criteria include the nugent score and the Hay/Ison criteria. The Nugent score estimates the relative proportions of bacterial morphotypes to give a score between 0 and 10 (<4 = normal, 4-6 = intermediate, >6 = BV)
      The Hay/Ison criteria
      Grade 1 (Normal): Lactobacillus morphotypes predominate
      Grade 2 (Intermediate): Mixed flora with some Lactobacilli present, but Gardnerella or Mobiluncus morphotypes also present
      Grade 3 (BV): Predominantly Gardnerella and/or Mobiluncus morphotypes. Few or absent Lactobacilli.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      20.2
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Embryology (1/2) 50%
Clinical Management (1/3) 33%
Anatomy (1/2) 50%
Obstetrics (1/1) 100%
Gynaecology (0/1) 0%
Microbiology (1/1) 100%
Passmed