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  • Question 1 - A doctor has recorded the number of times the patient did not attend...

    Incorrect

    • A doctor has recorded the number of times the patient did not attend (DNA) the clinic for a study over a 10 month period.

      Number of DNAs in 10 Months Number of Patients
      1st Month 0
      2nd Month 3
      3rd Month 1
      4th Month 45
      5th Month 2
      6th Month 0
      7th Month 1
      8th Month 4
      9th Month 4
      10th Month 2

      Which among the following is the most apt way of summarizing mean value?

      Your Answer: Standard deviation

      Correct Answer: Median

      Explanation:

      Variance and standard deviation indicate the dispersion of the plot from mean value and thus are not really helpful in summarizing the mean.

      Range is the difference between maximum and minimum value that is 45 in this case.

      The mean in this case is 6.2 due to the presence of an outlier 45. In the presence of outlier mean can be misleading as it is quite sensitive to skewness in data.

      Mode is the most frequent value. In this case mode has 4 values: 0,1,2,4.

      In case of skewedness, median is the most apt representative of the mean as it is not affected by outliers. In this case since the data set has even values i.e. 10. Median is the average of the 5th & 6th entry after arranging the data in ascending order like that in case of the question (0,0,1,1,2,2,3,4,4,45). This turns out to be 2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      18.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 35-year-old male presents to GP presenting an area of erythema which was...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old male presents to GP presenting an area of erythema which was around a recent cut on his right forearm. He was prescribed a short course of antibiotics and after 5 days again presented with progressive fatigue, headaches, and fevers.
      On clinical examination:
      Oxygen saturation: 98% on room air
      Respiratory rate: 22 per minute
      Heart rate: 100 beats per minute
      Blood pressure: 105/76 mmHg
      Temperature: 38.2 degree Celsius

      On physical examination, a dramatic increase in the area of erythema was noted.
      Blood culture was done in the patient and indicated the presence of bacterium containing beta-lactamase. Which of the following antibiotics was likely prescribed to the patient?

      Your Answer: Amoxicillin

      Explanation:

      Ciprofloxacin belongs to the quinolone group of antibiotics, and doxycycline and minocycline are tetracyclines. So, they are not affected by beta-lactamase.
      However, amoxicillin is a beta-lactam antibiotic and beta-lactamase cleaves the beta-lactam ring present in amoxicillin. This results in the breakdown of the antibiotic and thus the area of erythema dramatically increased.
      Co-amoxiclav contains amoxicillin and clavulanic acid which protects amoxicillin from beta-lactamase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      22.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - An older woman has been brought into the emergency department with symptoms of...

    Correct

    • An older woman has been brought into the emergency department with symptoms of a stroke. A CT angiogram is performed for diagnosis, which displays narrowing in the artery that supplies the right common carotid. Which of the following artery is the cause of stroke in this patient?

      Your Answer: Brachiocephalic artery

      Explanation:

      The arch of aorta gives rise to three main branches:
      1. Brachiocephalic artery
      2. Left common carotid artery
      3. Left subclavian artery

      The brachiocephalic artery then gives rise to the right subclavian artery and the right common carotid artery.

      The right common carotid artery arises from the brachiocephalic trunk posterior to the sternoclavicular joint.

      The coeliac trunk is a branch of the abdominal aorta.
      The ascending aorta supplies the coronary arteries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      16
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - After a bariatric surgery, average weight loss observed in patients is 18 kg....

    Incorrect

    • After a bariatric surgery, average weight loss observed in patients is 18 kg. The standard deviation was found to be 3 kg. What is the percentage of patients that lie between 9 and 27 kg?

      Note: Assume that the curve is normally distributed.

      Your Answer: 97.40%

      Correct Answer: 99.70%

      Explanation:

      9 & 27 can be obtained by subtracting and adding 9 from the mean. 9 is three times the standard deviation and we know that 99.7% values lie within 3 standard deviations from the mean. We can find the interval for 99.7% to verify in the following way:

      For 99.7% confidence interval, you can find the range as follows:

      1. Multiply the standard error by 3.

      2. Subtract the answer from mean value to get the lower limit.

      3. Add the answer obtained in step 1 from the mean value to get the upper limit.

      4. The range turns out to be 9-27 kg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 47-year old man and known alcoholic suffered a fall that resulted to...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year old man and known alcoholic suffered a fall that resulted to a fracture on his right leg. Radiographic imaging showed a fractured tibial shaft. Following surgery, you were instructed to prescribe intravenous paracetamol as an analgesic.

      If the patient weighs 49 kg, which of the following would be the best regimen for the patient?

      Your Answer: 1 g with a maximum daily dose not exceeding 4 g

      Correct Answer: 15 mg/kg with a maximum daily dose of 60 mg/kg (not exceeding 3 g)

      Explanation:

      A stock dose of Intravenous paracetamol available in the market is 10mg/ml. There is a recommended dose of IV paracetamol according to the profile of the patient (age, co-morbidities, weight).

      Weight Recommended Dose Maximum per day
      ≤10 kg 7.5 mg/kg 30 mg/kg
      >10 kg to ≤33 kg 15 mg/kg 60 mg/kg (not exceeding 2 g)
      >33 kg to ≤50 kg 15 mg/kg 60 mg/kg (not exceeding 3 g)
      >50 kg with additional risk factors for hepatotoxicity 1g 3 g
      >50 kg with no additional risk factors for hepatotoxicity 1g 4 g

      Special precaution must be observed for patients with hepatocellular insufficiency. The maximum dose per day should not exceed 3g.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      20
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Blood pressure monitoring is a requirement for in-patient care. Different factors can result...

    Incorrect

    • Blood pressure monitoring is a requirement for in-patient care. Different factors can result in an inaccurate blood pressure reading, including the damping of an arterial waveform.

      How does a damped arterial waveform affect blood pressure measurements?

      Your Answer: The systolic pressure and diastolic pressure are higher with a higher mean

      Correct Answer: The systolic pressure is lower and the diastolic pressure higher with the same mean

      Explanation:

      Damping is the reduction of energy in a system achieved by reducing the amplitude of oscillations. It is necessary to some degree to prevent wave overshoots.

      Critical damping usually causes the system to be slow, so optimal damping is normally applied to provide a balance between speed and distortion.

      Damping can cause errors if excessive (overdamping) or inadequate (Underdamping). The amount of damping in a system can be determined using the damping coefficient (D), where:

      Undamped: 0
      Critically damped: 1
      Optimally damped: 0.64

      An overdamped system will cause an artificial decrease in the systolic blood pressure, and an artificial increase in the diastolic blood pressure.

      An underdamped system will cause an artificial increase in systolic blood pressure and an artificial decrease in diastolic blood pressure.

      Damping can be caused by a number of factors affecting different parts of the system, including:

      The tubing/cannula: The presence of air bubbles, increased blood viscosity or formation of blood clots.
      The diaphragm/tubing: Increased malleability/compliance
      The tubing: Presence of kinks, narrowing or too many ports of injection.

      The answer here is a damped system will have a low systolic pressure, a high diastolic pressure with a normal mean pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      21.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A surgeon infiltrates the tissue layers with local anaesthetic (bupivacaine 0.125%) with 1...

    Correct

    • A surgeon infiltrates the tissue layers with local anaesthetic (bupivacaine 0.125%) with 1 in 120,000 adrenaline in a patient weighing 50 kg as part of an enhanced recovery programme for primary hip replacement surgery.

      What is the maximum volume of local anaesthetic that is permissible in this patient?

      Your Answer: 100 mL

      Explanation:

      The maximum safe amount of bupivacaine is 2mg/kg. Addition of adrenaline slows down absorption of the local anaesthetic and allows a maximum dose of 2.5mg/kg to be used.

      The maximum safe dose of bupivacaine for this patient is 125 mg.

      A 0.125% solution will contain 0.125g/100mL or 125mg/100 mL.

      The maximum volume of local anaesthetic is approximately 80-100 mL.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 28-year male patient presents to the GP with a 2-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year male patient presents to the GP with a 2-day history of abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea. He reports that he was completely fine until one week ago when headache and general tiredness appeared. After further questioning, he revealed eating at a dodgy takeaway 3 days before the start of his symptoms.

      Which of the following diagnosis is most likely?

      Your Answer: Diverticulitis

      Correct Answer: Campylobacter

      Explanation:

      Giardiasis is known to have a longer incubation time and doesn’t cause bloody diarrhoea.

      Cholera usually doesn’t cause bloody diarrhoea.

      Generally, most of the E.coli strains do not cause bloody diarrhoea.

      Diverticulitis can be a cause of bloody stool but the history here points out to an infectious cause.

      Campylobacter infection is the most probable cause as it is characterized by a prodrome, abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Comparing pressure-volume curves in patients during an asthma attack with that of healthy...

    Incorrect

    • Comparing pressure-volume curves in patients during an asthma attack with that of healthy subjects.

      The increased resistive work of breathing in the patients with asthma is best indicated by?

      Your Answer: Tidal volume is smaller

      Correct Answer: Larger hysteresis loop

      Explanation:

      A major source of caloric expenditure and oxygen consumption in the body is work of breathing (WOB) and 70% of this is to overcome elastic forces. The remaining 30% is for flow-resistive work

      In a normal patient breathing normally, the total area of hysteresis pressure volume curve represents the flow-resistive WOB.

      The area of the expiratory resistive work increases during an asthma attack making the compliance curve larger in area. The larger the area the greater the work required to breathe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Out of the following, which anatomical structure lies within the spiral groove of...

    Incorrect

    • Out of the following, which anatomical structure lies within the spiral groove of the humerus?

      Your Answer: Median nerve

      Correct Answer: Radial nerve

      Explanation:

      The shaft of the humerus has two prominent features:
      1. Deltoid tuberosity – attachment for the deltoid muscle
      2. Radial or spiral groove – The radial nerve and profunda brachii artery lie in the groove

      Mid-shaft fractures of the humerus usually occur after a direct blow to the upper arm, which can occur after a fall or RTAs. The most important clinical significance of a mid-shaft humeral fracture is an injury to the radial nerve. The radial nerve originates from the brachial plexus and has roots of C5-T1. It crosses the spiral groove on the posterior side of the shaft of the humerus.
      On examination, the patient may have a wrist drop, loss or weakness of finger extension, and decreased or absent sensation to the posterior forearm, digits 1 to 3, and the radial half of the fourth digit.

      The following parts of the humerus are in direct contact with the indicated
      nerves:
      Surgical neck: axillary nerve.
      Radial groove: radial nerve.
      Distal end of humerus: median nerve.
      Medial epicondyle: ulnar nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which of the following is true regarding the dose of propofol? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true regarding the dose of propofol?

      Your Answer: 2-3 mg/kg

      Correct Answer: 1-2mg/kg

      Explanation:

      Propofol is a short-acting medication used for starting and maintenance of general anaesthesia, sedation for mechanically ventilated adults, and procedural sedation.
      The dose of propofol is 1-2 mg/kg.

      Dose of some other important drugs are listed below:
      Thiopental dose: 3-7 mg/kg
      Ketamine dose: 1-2 mg/kg
      Etomidate dose: 0.3 mg/kg
      Methohexitone dose: 1.0-1.5 mg/kg

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      17.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - With regards to arterial oxygen content, which of the following contributes most from...

    Incorrect

    • With regards to arterial oxygen content, which of the following contributes most from a quantitative perspective?

      Your Answer: Partial pressure of oxygen in plasma

      Correct Answer: Haemoglobin concentration

      Explanation:

      The amount of oxygen carried by 100 ml of blood is called the arterial oxygen content (CaO2)and is normally 17-24 ml/dL and can be determined by this equation:

      CaO2 = oxygen bound to haemoglobin + oxygen dissolved in plasma

      CaO2 = (1.34 × Hgb × SaO2 × 0.01) + (0.003 × PaO2)

      where:

      1.34 = Huffner’s constant (D) – Huffner’s constant does not change and its magnitude relatively small.
      Hgb is the haemoglobin level in g/dL and SaO2 is the percent oxyhaemoglobin saturation of arterial blood
      PaO2 is (0.0225 = ml of O2 dissolved per 100 ml plasma per kPa, or 0.003 ml per mmHg).

      Quantitatively, the amount of oxygen dissolved in plasma is 0.3 mL/dL.

      Henry’s law states that at constant temperature, the amount of gas dissolved at equilibrium in a given quantity of a liquid is proportional to the pressure of the gas in contact with the liquid.

      Given a haemoglobin concentration of 15 g/dL and a SaO2 of 100% and a PaO2 of 13.3 kPa, the amount of oxygen bound to haemoglobin is 20.4 mL/100mL.

      Cardiac output is an important determinant of oxygen delivery but does not influence the oxygen content of blood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Physics
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - In reference to confounding variables, which among the given is not true? ...

    Incorrect

    • In reference to confounding variables, which among the given is not true?

      Your Answer: A confounding factor obscures the relationship between an exposure and an outcome

      Correct Answer: In the analytic stage of a study confounding can be controlled for by randomisation

      Explanation:

      Randomisation can be used to provide control over the confounding variables during the design stage of a study however during analytical stage a technique called stratification is used for controlling confounding variables. Since the question asks for the information that is factually incorrect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      19.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Prophylactic antibiotics are required for which of the following procedures? ...

    Incorrect

    • Prophylactic antibiotics are required for which of the following procedures?

      Your Answer: Laparoscopic removal of ectopic pregnancy

      Correct Answer: Caesarean section

      Explanation:

      Staphylococcus aureus infection is the most likely cause.

      Surgical site infections (SSI) occur when there is a breach in tissue surfaces and allow normal commensals and other pathogens to initiate infection. They are a major cause of morbidity and mortality.

      SSI comprise up to 20% of healthcare associated infections and approximately 5% of patients undergoing surgery will develop an SSI as a result.
      The organisms are usually derived from the patient’s own body.

      Measures that may increase the risk of SSI include:
      -Shaving the wound using a single use electrical razor with a disposable head
      -Using a non iodine impregnated surgical drape if one is needed
      -Tissue hypoxia
      -Delayed prophylactic antibiotics administration in tourniquet surgery, patients with a prosthesis or valve, in clean-contaminated surgery of in contaminated surgery.

      Measures that may decrease the risk of SSI include:
      1. Intraoperatively
      – Prepare the skin with alcoholic chlorhexidine (Lowest incidence of SSI)
      -Cover surgical site with dressing

      In contrast to previous individual RCT’s, a recent meta analysis has confirmed that administration of supplementary oxygen does not reduce the risk of wound infection and wound edge protectors do not appear to confer benefit.

      2. Post operatively
      Tissue viability advice for management of surgical wounds healing by secondary intention

      Use of diathermy for skin incisions
      In the NICE guidelines the use of diathermy for skin incisions is not advocated. Several randomised controlled trials have been undertaken and demonstrated no increase in risk of SSI when diathermy is used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      15.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following does Lidocaine 1% solution equate to? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following does Lidocaine 1% solution equate to?

      Your Answer: 100 mg per 100 ml

      Correct Answer: 1000 mg per 100 ml

      Explanation:

      Lidocaine 1% is formulated as 1000 mg/100 mL.

      % solution is based on (grams of medicine) / 100 ml

      % solution ~ (1000 mg) / 100 ml

      % solution ~ 10 mg/ml

      Examples:

        • Lidocaine 4% = 40 mg/ml of Lidocaine
        • Lidocaine 2% = 20 mg/ml of Lidocaine
        • Lidocaine 1% = 10 mg/ml of Lidocaine

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 26-year old male patient was admitted to the surgery department for appendectomy....

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year old male patient was admitted to the surgery department for appendectomy. Medical history revealed that he has major depressive disorder and was on Phenelzine. Aside from abdominal pain, initial assessment was unremarkable. However, thirty minutes after, the patient was referred to you for generalized seizures. He was given an analgesic and it was noted that, during the first 15 minutes of administration, he became anxious, with profuse sweating, which later developed into seizures. Upon physical examination, he was febrile at 38.3°C.

      Which of the following statements is the best explanation for the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Thyrotoxicosis

      Correct Answer: Drug interaction with pethidine

      Explanation:

      The clinical picture best describes a probable drug interaction with pethidine.

      Phenelzine, a monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitor, when given with pethidine, an opioid analgesic, may lead to episodes of hypertension, rigidity, excitation, hyperpyrexia, seizures, coma and death. Studies have shown that pethidine reacts more significantly with MAO inhibitors than morphine.

      When pethidine is metabolised to normeperidine, it acts as a serotonin reuptake inhibitor and cause an increase in serotonin levels in the brain. MAO inhibitors can also lead to elevated levels of serotonin because of its mechanism of action by inhibiting the enzyme monoamine oxidase that degrades serotonin.

      The excess serotonin levels may lead to serotonin syndrome, of which some of the common precipitating drugs are selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, MAO inhibitors, tricyclic antidepressants, meperidine, and St. John’s Wort. Onset of symptoms is within hours, which includes fever, agitation, tremor, clonus, hyperreflexia and diaphoresis.

      Drug interaction between phenelzine and paracetamol do not commonly precipitate serotonin syndrome.

      Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is due to dopamine antagonism, precipitated commonly by antipsychotics. Its onset of symptoms occur in 1 to 3 days, and is characterized by fever, encephalopathy, unstable vitals signs, elevated CPK, and rigidity.

      Altered mental status is the most common manifestation of sepsis-associated encephalopathy. Patient also exhibit confusional states and inappropriate behaviour. In some cases, this may lead to coma and death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following options will best reflect the adequacy of preoxygenation prior...

    Correct

    • Which of the following options will best reflect the adequacy of preoxygenation prior to rapid sequence induction of a patient?

      Your Answer: Expired fraction of oxygen (FEO2)

      Explanation:

      The most important determinant of preoxygenation adequacy is expired fraction of oxygen. Denitrogenating of the functional residual capacity is the purpose of preoxygenation. This is dependent on three vital factors: (1) respiratory rate; (2) inspired volume, and; (3) inspired oxygen concentration (FiO2).

      Arterial oxygen saturation does not efficiently determine adequacy of preoxygenation because of its inability to measure tissue reserves. Arterial partial pressure of oxygen is also unsuitable for determining preoxygenation adequacy. Moreover, the absence of central cyanosis is a very crude sign of low tissue oxygenation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      20.6
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which compound is secreted only from the adrenal medulla? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which compound is secreted only from the adrenal medulla?

      Your Answer: Noradrenaline

      Correct Answer: Adrenaline

      Explanation:

      The adrenal medulla comprises chromaffin cells (pheochromocytes), which are functionally equivalent to postganglionic sympathetic neurons. They synthesize, store and release the catecholamines noradrenaline (norepinephrine) and adrenaline (epinephrine) into the venous sinusoids.
      The majority of the chromaffin cells synthesize adrenaline.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which of the following statements is true with regards to acetylcholine? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true with regards to acetylcholine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Excess cholinesterase inhibitor medication causes cholinergic crisis

      Explanation:

      Myasthenic and cholinergic crises are two crises which are similar in their clinical presentation.

      Myasthenic crisis can be caused by:
      -lack of acetylcholine,
      -poor compliance with medication,
      -infection

      Cholinergic crisis can be caused by excess cholinesterase inhibitor medication (mimicking organophosphate poisoning) causing excess acetylcholine.

      Differentiation between the 2 crises is made by giving incremental doses of the short acting cholinesterase inhibitor, Edrophonium.
      This increase acetylcholine levels and will make a myasthenic crisis better and a cholinergic crisis worse.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A radical neck dissection is being performed. The ENT surgeon wishes to expose...

    Incorrect

    • A radical neck dissection is being performed. The ENT surgeon wishes to expose the external carotid artery fully. He inserts a self-retaining retractor close to the origin of the external carotid artery.

      What structure lies posterolaterally to the external carotid at this point?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Internal carotid artery

      Explanation:

      External carotid artery originates at the upper border of the thyroid cartilage. It ascends and lies anterior to the internal carotid arteries and posterior to the posterior belly of the digastric muscle and stylohyoid muscle.

      The external carotid artery has eight important branches:
      Anterior surface:
      1. Superior thyroid artery (first branch)
      2. Lingual artery
      3. Facial artery
      Medial branch
      4. Ascending pharyngeal artery
      Posterior branches
      5. Occipital artery
      6. Posterior auricular artery
      Terminal branches
      7. Maxillary artery
      8. Superficial temporal artery

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 70-year old male has diverticular disease and is undergoing a sigmoid colectomy....

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year old male has diverticular disease and is undergoing a sigmoid colectomy. His risk of developing a post operative would infection can be minimized by which of the following interventions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Administration of single dose of broad spectrum antibiotics prior to the procedure

      Explanation:

      Staphylococcus aureus infection is the most likely cause.

      Surgical site infections (SSI) occur when there is a breach in tissue surfaces and allow normal commensals and other pathogens to initiate infection. They are a major cause of morbidity and mortality.

      SSI comprise up to 20% of healthcare associated infections and approximately 5% of patients undergoing surgery will develop an SSI as a result.
      The organisms are usually derived from the patient’s own body.

      Measures that may increase the risk of SSI include:
      -Shaving the wound using a single use electrical razor with a disposable head
      -Using a non iodine impregnated surgical drape if one is needed
      -Tissue hypoxia
      -Delayed prophylactic antibiotics administration in tourniquet surgery, patients with a prosthesis or valve, in clean-contaminated surgery of in contaminated surgery.

      Measures that may decrease the risk of SSI include:
      1. Intraoperatively
      – Prepare the skin with alcoholic chlorhexidine (Lowest incidence of SSI)
      -Cover surgical site with dressing

      In contrast to previous individual RCT’s, a recent meta analysis has confirmed that administration of supplementary oxygen does not reduce the risk of wound infection and wound edge protectors do not appear to confer benefit.

      2. Post operatively
      Tissue viability advice for management of surgical wounds healing by secondary intention

      Use of diathermy for skin incisions
      In the NICE guidelines the use of diathermy for skin incisions is not advocated. Several randomised controlled trials have been undertaken and demonstrated no increase in risk of SSI when diathermy is used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which statement is true about the autonomic nervous system? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement is true about the autonomic nervous system?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Preganglionic synapse utilise Acetylcholine as the neurotransmitter in both parasympathetic and sympathetic systems

      Explanation:

      With regards to the autonomic nervous system (ANS)

      1. It is not under voluntary control
      2. It uses reflex pathways and different to the somatic nervous system.
      3. The hypothalamus is the central point of integration of the ANS. However, the gut can coordinate some secretions and information from the baroreceptors which are processed in the medulla.

      With regards to the central nervous system (CNS)
      1. There are myelinated preganglionic fibres which lead to the
      ganglion where the nerve cell bodies of the non-myelinated post ganglionic nerves are organised.
      2. From the ganglion, the post ganglionic nerves then lead on to the innervated organ.

      Most organs are under control of both systems although one system normally predominates.

      The nerves of the sympathetic nervous system (SNS) originate from the lateral horns of the spinal cord, pass into the anterior primary rami and then pass via the white rami communicates into the ganglia from T1-L2.

      There are short pre-ganglionic and long post ganglionic fibres.
      Pre-ganglionic synapses use acetylcholine (ACh) as a neurotransmitter on nicotinic receptors.
      Post ganglionic synapses uses adrenoceptors with norepinephrine / epinephrine as the neurotransmitter.
      However, in sweat glands, piloerector muscles and few blood vessels, ACh is still used as a neurotransmitter with nicotinic receptors.

      The ganglia form the sympathetic trunk – this is a collection of nerves that begin at the base of the skull and travel 2-3 cm lateral to the vertebrae, extending to the coccyx.

      There are cervical, thoracic, lumbar and sacral ganglia and visceral sympathetic innervation is by cardiac, coeliac and hypogastric plexi.

      Juxta glomerular apparatus, piloerector muscles and adipose tissue are all organs under sole sympathetic control.

      The PNS has a craniosacral outflow. It causes reduced arousal and cardiovascular stimulation and increases visceral activity.

      The cranial outflow consists of
      1. The oculomotor nerve (CN III) to the eye via the ciliary ganglion,
      2. Facial nerve (CN VII) to the submandibular, sublingual and lacrimal glands via the pterygopalatine and submandibular ganglions
      3. Glossopharyngeal (CN IX) to lungs, larynx and tracheobronchial tree via otic ganglion
      4. The vagus nerve (CN X), the largest contributor and carries ¾ of fibres covering innervation of the heart, lungs, larynx, tracheobronchial tree parotid gland and proximal gut to the splenic flexure, liver and pancreas

      The sacral outflow (S2 to S4) innervates the bladder, distal gut and genitalia.

      The PNS has long preganglionic and short post ganglionic fibres.
      Preganglionic synapses, like in the SNS, use ACh as the neuro transmitter with nicotinic receptors.
      Post ganglionic synapses also use ACh as the neurotransmitter but have muscarinic receptors.

      Different types of these muscarinic receptors are present in different organs:
      There are:
      M1 = pupillary constriction, gastric acid secretion stimulation
      M2 = inhibition of cardiac stimulation
      M3 = visceral vasodilation, coronary artery constriction, increased secretions in salivary, lacrimal glands and pancreas
      M4 = brain and adrenal medulla
      M5 = brain

      The lacrimal glands are solely under parasympathetic control.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 30 year old male was the victim of an electrocution injury and...

    Incorrect

    • A 30 year old male was the victim of an electrocution injury and has been treated. The option that best describes the current levels for this injury is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tonic muscle contraction - 15 mA

      Explanation:

      There are different effects of electrocution and these can be shown in the table below.

      Current Effect
      1 mA Tingling
      5 mA Pain
      15 mA Tonic muscle contraction
      50 mA Respiratory arrest
      100 mA Ventricular fibrillation and cardiac arrest

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which one of the following patients presenting for elective surgery has an American...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following patients presenting for elective surgery has an American Society of Anaesthesiologists (ASA) preoperative physical status grading of III?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A 50-year old man with a BMI of 41 with a reduced exercise tolerance

      Explanation:

      The ASA physical status classification system is a system for assessing the fitness of patients before surgery. It was last updated in October 2014.

      ASA I A normal healthy patient
      ASA II A patient with mild systemic disease
      ASA III A patient with severe systemic disease
      ASA IV A patient with severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life
      ASA V A moribund patient who is not expected to survive without the operation
      ASA VI A declared brain-dead patient whose organs are being removed for donor purposes

      A 20-year old woman who is 39-weeks pregnant with no other medical conditions – ASA II

      A 35-year-old man with a BMI of 29 with a good exercise tolerance who smokes-ASA II

      A 50-year old man with a BMI of 41 with a reduced exercise tolerance -ASA III

      A 65-year old woman with a BMI of 34 with treated hypertension with no functional limitations-ASA II

      A 73-year old man who has had a TIA ten-weeks ago but has a good exercise tolerance and is a non-smoker-ASA IV

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 25 - Which of the following causes a left shift of the haemoglobin dissociation curve?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following causes a left shift of the haemoglobin dissociation curve?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      With respect to oxygen transport in cells, almost all oxygen is transported within erythrocytes. There is limited solubility and only 1% is carried as solution. Thus, the amount of oxygen transported depends upon haemoglobin concentration and its degree of saturation.

      Haemoglobin is a globular protein composed of 4 subunits. Haem is made up of a protoporphyrin ring surrounding an iron atom in its ferrous state. The iron can form two additional bonds – one is with oxygen and the other with a polypeptide chain.
      There are two alpha and two beta subunits to this polypeptide chain in an adult and together these form globin. Globin cannot bind oxygen but can bind to CO2 and hydrogen ions.
      The beta chains are able to bind to 2,3 diphosphoglycerate. The oxygenation of haemoglobin is a reversible reaction. The molecular shape of haemoglobin is such that binding of one oxygen molecule facilitates the binding of subsequent molecules.

      The oxygen dissociation curve (ODC) describes the relationship between the percentage of saturated haemoglobin and partial pressure of oxygen in the blood.
      Of note, it is not affected by haemoglobin concentration.

      Chronic anaemia causes 2, 3 DPG levels to increase, hence shifting the curve to the right

      Haldane effect – Causes the ODC to shift to the left. For a given oxygen tension there is increased saturation of Hb with oxygen i.e. Decreased oxygen delivery to tissues.
      This can be caused by:
      -HbF, methaemoglobin, carboxyhaemoglobin
      -low [H+] (alkali)
      -low pCO2
      -ow 2,3-DPG
      -ow temperature

      Bohr effect – causes the ODC to shifts to the right = for given oxygen tension there is reduced saturation of Hb with oxygen i.e. Enhanced oxygen delivery to tissues. This can be caused by:
      – raised [H+] (acidic)
      – raised pCO2
      -raised 2,3-DPG
      -raised temperature

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
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  • Question 26 - A 61-year-old woman, present to her general practitioner. She complains of a severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old woman, present to her general practitioner. She complains of a severe lancinating pain in her forehead that only last a few seconds, possibly triggered by washing her face, occurring over the previous six weeks.

      On examination, she is normal with no other signs or symptoms.

      Which nerve is the most likely cause of her pain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sensory branches of the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve

      Explanation:

      Her symptoms are suggestive of trigeminal neuralgia which is a short, sudden, severe sharp unilateral pain in the facial region. The pain often follows the sensory distribution of the trigeminal nerve (CN V).

      The trigeminal nerve gives rise to 3 sensory and 1 motor nuclei. Neuralgia can arise from any of the 3 sensory divisions.

      The ophthalmic division gives rise to 3 further sensory branches, which are the frontal, lacrimal and nasociliary.

      The frontal branch of the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve is responsible for the innervation of the area in question.

      The superior alveolar dental, zygomatic and sphenopalatine nerves are all branches arising from the maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve.

      The mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve provides sensory and motor innervation. The sensory innervation is carried out by the auriculotemporal nerve which supplies the lower third of the face, while the motor fibres are responsible for controlling the muscles of mastication.

      The somatic sensory branches of the vagus nerve are responsible for sensory innervation of the external acoustic meatus and tympanic membrane.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 27 - A 50-year-old man, presents to the hospital with bilateral inguinal hernias.
    After examination...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man, presents to the hospital with bilateral inguinal hernias.
      After examination and investigation, the surgical team decides to perform a laparoscopic hernia repair using the extraperitoneal approach. After making an infraumbilical incision, the surgeons perform the repair by placing a prosthetic mesh over the affected area, after shifting the inferior aspect of the rectus abdominis muscle anteriorly.

      Name the structure that would like posterior to the mesh?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Peritoneum

      Explanation:

      This question is asking which structure would lie posterior to the rectus abdominis muscle and not the prosthetic mesh, as only peritoneum lies posterior to mesh during a total extraperitoneal (TEP) hernia repair.

      The region of the repair lies below the arcuate line, meaning that the transversalis fascia and peritoneum lie posterior to the rectus abdominis.

      The bucks fascia lies within the penis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 28 - The average diastolic blood pressure of a control group was found out to...

    Incorrect

    • The average diastolic blood pressure of a control group was found out to be 80 with a standard deviation of 5 in a study aimed at exploring the efficiency of a novel anti-hypertensive drug. The trial was randomised.

      Making an assumption that the data is normally distributed, find out the number of patients that had diastolic blood pressure over 90.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 3%

      Explanation:

      Since the data is normally distributed, 95% of the values lie with in the interval 70 to 90. This can be calculated as follows:

      Interval= Mean ± ( 2 times standard deviation)
      = 80 ± 2(5)
      = 80 ± 10
      = 70 & 90

      The rest of the 5% are distributed symmetrically beyond 90 and below 70 which means 2.5% of the values lie above 90.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
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  • Question 29 - Which of the following is a correctly stated fundamental (base) SI unit? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a correctly stated fundamental (base) SI unit?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A metre is the unit of length

      Explanation:

      The international system of units, or system international d’unites (SI) is a collection of measurements derived from expanding the metric system.

      There are seven base units, which are:

      Metre (m): a unit of length
      Second (s): a unit of time
      Kilogram (kg): a unit of mass
      Ampere (A): a unit of electrical current
      Kelvin (K): a unit of thermodynamic temperature
      Candela (cd): a unit of luminous intensity
      Mole (mol): a unit of substance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 30 - For a rapid sequence induction of anaesthesia, you are pre-oxygenating a patient using...

    Incorrect

    • For a rapid sequence induction of anaesthesia, you are pre-oxygenating a patient using 100% oxygen and a fresh gas flow equal to the patient's minute ventilation.

      Which would be the most suitable choice of anaesthetic breathing system in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mapleson A system

      Explanation:

      The Mapleson A (Magill) and coaxial version of the Mapleson A system (Lack circuit) are more efficient for spontaneous breathing than any of the other Mapleson circuits. The fresh gas flow (FGF) required to prevent rebreathing is slightly greater than the alveolar minute ventilation (4-5 litres/minute). This is delivered to the patient through the outer coaxial tube and exhaust gases are moved to the scavenging system through the inner tube. In the Lack circuit, the expiratory valve is located close to the common gas outlet away from the patient end. This is the main advantage of the Lack circuit over the Mapleson A circuit.

      The Mapleson E circuit is a modification of the Ayres T piece and the FGF required to prevent rebreathing is 1.5-2 times the patient’s minute volume.

      The Bain circuit is the coaxial version of the Mapleson D circuit.

      The FGF for spontaneous respiration to avoid rebreathing is 160-200 ml/kg/minute.

      The FGF for controlled ventilation to avoid rebreathing is 70-100 ml/kg/min.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Statistical Methods (0/2) 0%
Pharmacology (3/5) 60%
Anatomy (2/4) 50%
Clinical Measurement (0/1) 0%
Physiology And Biochemistry (2/4) 50%
Basic Physics (0/1) 0%
Pathophysiology (0/1) 0%
Passmed