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Question 1
Correct
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What is the approximate lifespan of the mature erythrocyte:
Your Answer: 120 days
Explanation:Erythrocytes have a normal lifespan of about 120 days. Mature erythrocytes are biconcave discs with no nucleus, ribosomes or mitochondria but with the ability to generate energy as ATP by the anaerobic glycolytic pathway. The red cell membrane consists of a bipolar lipid layer with a membrane skeleton of penetrating and integral proteins anchoring carbohydrate surface antigens. The shape and flexibility of red cells allows them to deform easily and pass through capillaries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Cellular
- Physiology
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Question 2
Correct
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When treating diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), which of the following should be given if the systolic blood pressure is initially less than 90 mmHg:
Your Answer: 500 mL sodium chloride 0.9% intravenous infusion over 10 - 15 minutes
Explanation:If SBP is less than 90 mmHg , 500 mL sodium chloride 0.9 percent should be administered intravenously over 10–15 minutes, and repeated if SBP remains less than 90 mmHg. When SBP is greater than 90 mmHg, sodium chloride infusion must be maintained at a rate that replaces the deficit.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine
- Pharmacology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Through which of the following anatomical structures does an indirect inguinal hernia pass?
Your Answer: Pyramidalis
Correct Answer: External oblique
Explanation:Inguinal hernias are subdivided into direct and indirect.
An indirect hernia occurs when abdominal contents protrude through the internal inguinal ring and into the inguinal canal. This occurs lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels. The hernia contents may extend into the scrotum.
A direct inguinal hernia is protrusion of abdominal contents through the transversalis fascia within Hesselbach’s triangle. The borders of Hesselbach’s triangle are the inferior epigastric vessels superolaterally, the rectus sheath medially, and inguinal ligament inferiorly.
The deep (internal) inguinal ring is located above and halfway between the pubic tubercle and the anterior superior iliac spine. This serves as the entrance to the inguinal canal. The superficial (external) inguinal ring lies immediately above and medial to the pubic tubercle. This triangular opening is a defect in the external oblique aponeurosis, and forms the exit of the inguinal canal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen And Pelvis
- Anatomy
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Question 4
Correct
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When the breast cancer of a 60-year old patient metastasizes and compresses the intervertebral foramina between the fourth and fifth cervical vertebrae, as well as the fourth and fifth thoracic vertebrae, this causes back pain. Which pair of nerves is most likely affected?
Your Answer: Fifth cervical and fourth thoracic nerves
Explanation:The fifth cervical nerve passes between the fourth and fifth cervical vertebrae, and the fourth thoracic nerve passes between the fourth and fifth thoracic vertebrae. Therefore, when the cancer metastasizes in this area, they are most likely affected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head And Neck
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Which of the following best characterizes the correct administration of amiodarone for a shockable rhythm in adults on advanced life support:
Your Answer: Give 300 mg IV amiodarone after 3 shocks, and then every 3 - 5 minutes thereafter
Correct Answer: Give 300 mg IV amiodarone after 3 shocks
Explanation:After three shocks, 300 mg IV amiodarone should be administered. After five defibrillation attempts, a further dose of 150 mg IV amiodarone may be considered. If amiodarone is not available, lidocaine may be used as a substitute, but it should not be given if amiodarone has previously been administered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Pharmacology
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Question 6
Correct
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You are teaching a group of medical students about cardiovascular examination. You are discussing heart sounds and the cardiac cycle. Which of the following stages of the cardiac cycle occurs immediately after the aortic valve closes:
Your Answer: Isovolumetric relaxation
Explanation:Immediately after the closure of the semilunar valves, the ventricles rapidly relax and ventricular pressure decreases rapidly but the AV valves remain closed as initially the ventricular pressure is still greater than atrial pressure. This is isovolumetric relaxation. Atrial pressure continues to rise because of venous return, with the v wave of the JVP waveform peaking during this phase. Rapid flow of blood from the atria into the ventricles during the ventricular filling phase causes thethird heart sound, which is normal in children but, in adults, is associated with disease such as ventricular dilation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Which of the following is caused by an alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency?
Your Answer: Cystic fibrosis
Correct Answer: Early onset emphysema
Explanation:Mucus contains chemicals such as alpha-1-antitrypsin, lysozyme, and IgA that protect the airway from pathogens and damaging proteases released from dead bacteria and immune cells. Early-onset emphysema results from a genetic deficit of alpha-1-antitrypsin, which is caused by unregulated protease activity in the lungs, which results in the degradation of elastin in the alveoli.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Respiratory
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Question 8
Correct
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Regarding gas gangrene, which of the following statements is CORRECT:
Your Answer: Infection is characterised by rapidly spreading tissue myonecrosis with crepitus.
Explanation:Gas gangrene usually occurs within 3 days of injury, and is characterised by pain, rapidly spreading oedema, myositis, necrosis, palpable crepitus and systemic toxicity. Diagnosis is clinical and laboratory confirmation should not delay urgent surgical intervention. Hyperbaric oxygen therapy can be considered in addition to surgery and antibiotic therapy, to stop toxin production and inhibit bacteria from replicating and spreading (as Clostridium spp. are obligate anaerobes).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Pathogens
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Question 9
Correct
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In relation to ketamine, which of the following statements is TRUE:
Your Answer: It is usually associated with tachycardia, increased blood pressure and increased cardiac output.
Explanation:Ketamine has hypnotic, analgesic and local anaesthetic properties. Major adverse effects include Hypertension, Increased cardiac output, Increased ICP, Tachycardia, Tonic-clonic movements, Visual hallucinations and Vivid dreams.
Ketamine is mostly utilized in paediatric anaesthesia, especially when repeated dosing is necessary (such as for serial burns dressings). Ketamine has little effect on respiratory drive, and protective airway reflexes are unaffected. Ketamine is also a bronchial smooth muscle relaxant, hence it plays a unique function in the treatment of severe asthma. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia
- Pharmacology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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What is the recommended dosing regime for amiodarone in the treatment of a stable regular broad-complex tachycardia:
Your Answer: 300 mg IV over 5 minutes, followed by an IV infusion of 900 mg over the next 24 hours
Correct Answer: 300 mg IV over 10 - 60 minutes, followed by an IV infusion of 900 mg over the next 24 hours
Explanation:A ventricular tachycardia (or broad-complex tachycardia of uncertain origin) should be treated with amiodarone 300 mg IV over 10 – 60 min, followed by an infusion of 900 mg over the next 24 hours.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Pharmacology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old patient is intubated and has a central venous catheter inserted after being diagnosed with septic shock. You keep track of her central venous pressure.
The normal value for central venous pressure is which of the following?Your Answer: 5-12 cmH 2 O
Correct Answer: 0-8 cmH 2 O
Explanation:The pressure measured in the right atrium or superior vena cava is known as central venous pressure (CVP). In a spontaneously breathing subject, the usual CVP value is 0-8 cmH2O (0-6 mmHg).
At the conclusion of expiration, the CVP should be measured with the patient resting flat. The catheter’s tip should be at the intersection of the superior vena cava and the right atrium. An electronic transducer is installed and zeroed at the level of the right atrium to measure it (usually in the 4th intercostal space in the mid-axillary line).
CVP is a good predictor of preload in the right ventricle. Hypovolaemia is indicated by a volume challenge of 250-500 mL crystalloid eliciting an increase in CVP that is not sustained for more than 10 minutes.CVP is influenced by a number of factors, including:
Mechanical ventilation (and PEEP)
Pulmonary hypertension
Pulmonary embolism
Heart failure
Pleural effusion
Decreased cardiac output
Cardiac tamponade
CVP is reduced by the following factors:
Distributive shock
Negative pressure ventilation
Hypovolaemia
Deep inhalation -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Physiology
- Physiology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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An analytical study is conducted to compare the risk of stroke between Ticagrelor therapy and Warfarin therapy among patients with atrial fibrillation. The following is obtained from the study:
No. of patients who took Ticagrelor: 300
No. of patients who took Ticagrelor and suffered a stroke: 30
No. of patients who took Warfarin: 500
No. of patients who took Warfarin and suffered a stroke: 20
Compute for the risk ratio of a stroke.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2.5
Explanation:Relative risk (RR) is a ratio of the probability of an event occurring in the exposed group versus the probability of the event occurring in the non-exposed group.
RR can be computed as the absolute risk of events in the treatment group (ART), divided by the absolute risk of events in the control group (ARC).
RR = ART/ARC
RR = (30/300) / (20/500)
RR = 2.5Recall that:
If RR < 1, then the intervention reduces the risk of the outcome.
If RR = 1, then the treatment has no effect on the outcome.
If RR > 1, then the intervention increases the risk of the outcome. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Medicine
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Regarding an avulsion fracture, a sudden contraction of which muscle may lead to fracture of the head of the fibula?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Biceps femoris
Explanation:Avulsion fractures of the fibular head are rare and are so-called the arcuate signal. The “arcuate signal” is used to describe an avulsed bone fragment related to the insertion site of the tendon of the biceps femoris associated with the arcuate complex, which consists of the fabellofibular, popliteofibular, and arcuate ligaments. Such lesions are typically observed in direct trauma to the knee with excessive varus and internal rotation forces or indirect trauma with the same direction of the force.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Which of the following muscles inserts into the patella?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The quadriceps femoris complex
Explanation:The quadriceps femoris muscle translates to “four-headed muscle” from Latin. It bears this name because it consists of four individual muscles; rectus femoris, vastus medialis, vastus lateralis, and vastus intermedius. Out of all four muscles, only the rectus femoris crosses both the hip and knee joints. The others cross only the knee joint. These muscles differ in their origin, but share a common quadriceps femoris tendon which inserts into the patella. The function of the quadriceps femoris muscle is to extend the leg at the knee joint and to flex the thigh at the hip joint.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Which of the following best describes the process of opsonisation:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The coating of foreign particles with molecules which allow easier recognition of that cell by phagocytes
Explanation:An opsonin is any molecule that enhances phagocytosis by marking an antigen for an immune response, for example, immunoglobulin or complement. Opsonisation is the molecular mechanism whereby molecules, microbes, or apoptotic cells are chemically modified to have a stronger attraction to the cell surface receptors on phagocytes and natural killer cells. With the antigen coated in opsonins, binding to immune cells is greatly enhanced. Opsonisation also mediates phagocytosis via signal cascades from cell surface receptors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immune Responses
- Pathology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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The last two segments of the nephrons are the distal convoluted tubule (DCT) and collecting duct (CD).
Which cell reabsorbs sodium more in the late DCT and CD?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Principal cells
Explanation:The main Na+ reabsorbing cells in the late distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct are the principal cells. These make up the majority of the tubular cells.
The exchange is driven by the Na.K.ATPase pumps on the basolateral membrane.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Renal Physiology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Which of the following side effects is most likely caused by erythromycin:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: QT - prolongation
Explanation:The side effects of erythromycin include abdominal pain, anaphylaxis,
cholestatic hepatitis, confusion,
diarrhoea, dyspepsia, fever, flatulence, hallucinations, hearing loss,
headache, hypertrophic pyloric stenosis, hypotension, Interstitial
nephritis, mild allergic reactions, nausea, nervous system effects,
including seizures, pain, pruritus, pseudomembranous colitis,
QT prolongation, rash, skin eruptions, tinnitus, urticaria,
ventricular arrhythmias, ventricular tachycardia, vertigo, vomiting -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infections
- Pharmacology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Regarding disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), which of the following statements is INCORRECT:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thrombocytosis results in widespread platelet aggregation.
Explanation:DIC is characterised by a widespread inappropriate intravascular deposition of fibrin with consumption of coagulation factors and platelets. This may occur as a consequence of many disorders that release procoagulant material into the circulation or cause widespread endothelial damage or platelet aggregation. Increased activity of thrombin in the circulation overwhelms its normal rate of removal by natural anticoagulants. In addition to causing increased deposition of fibrin in the microcirculation and widespread platelet aggregation to the vessels, intravascular thrombin formation interferes with fibrin polymerisation. Intense fibrinolysis is stimulated by thrombi on vascular walls and the release of fibrin degradation products again interferes with fibrin polymerisation. The combined action of thrombin and plasmin causes depletion of fibrinogen and all coagulation factors, compounded by thrombocytopaenia caused by platelet consumption.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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An 82 year old man has fever, left sided abdominal and back pain and presents to the emergency room. Imaging reveals a large perinephric abscess. Which of the following most likely describes the fluid location:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Between the renal capsule and the renal fascia
Explanation:The perinephric fat is immediately external to the renal capsule and completely surrounds the kidney. The renal fascia surrounds the perinephric fat and the paranephric fat is external to the renal fascia. The location of a perinephric abscess is in the perinephric fat between the renal capsule and the renal fascia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Swelling of the lips, tongue, and face is observed in a 59-year-old African-American woman. In the emergency room, she is given intramuscular adrenaline, but her symptoms do not improve. Her GP recently started her on a new medication.
Which of the following drugs is most likely to have caused her symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ramipril
Explanation:Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are the most common cause of drug-induced angioedema in the United Kingdom and the United States, owing to their widespread use.
Angioedema is caused by ACE inhibitors in 0.1 to 0.7 percent of patients, with data indicating a persistent and relatively constant risk year after year. People of African descent have a five-fold higher chance of contracting the disease.
Swelling of the lips, tongue, or face is the most common symptom, but another symptom is episodic abdominal pain due to intestinal angioedema. Itching and urticaria are noticeably absent.
The mechanism appears to be activated complement or other pro-inflammatory cytokines like prostaglandins and histamine, which cause rapid vasodilation and oedema.
Other medications that are less frequently linked to angioedema include:
Angiotensin-receptor blockers (ARBs)
Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
Bupropion (e.g. Zyban and Wellbutrin)
Beta-lactam antibiotics
Statins
Proton pump inhibitorsThe majority of these reactions are minor and can be treated by stopping the drug and prescribing antihistamines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Which of the following data types does a pain-scoring system represent?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ordinal
Explanation:Pain scoring systems are processes for assessing pain and the severity of illnesses that have been scientifically designed and tested. An example of ordinal categorical data is a pain scoring system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Medicine
- Statistics
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Which of the following laboratory findings is NOT typical of von Willebrand disease (VWD):
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thrombocytopaenia
Explanation:Laboratory findings typically show (although this varies depending on VWD type):
Abnormal PFA-100 test
Low factor VIII levels (if low a factor VIII/VWF binding assay is performed)
Prolonged APTT (or normal)
Normal PT
Low VWF levels
Defective platelet aggregation
Normal platelet count -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Fracture of the medial epicondyle would result to the following, except
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Weakness of abduction of the thumb
Explanation:Thumb abduction is mediated by the abductor pollicis longus and brevis, which are innervated by the radial and median nerves, respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Regarding acute myeloid leukaemia (AML), which of the following statements is CORRECT:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: AML becomes increasingly common with age.
Explanation:Acute myeloid leukaemia (AML) is the most common form of acute leukaemia in adults and becomes increasingly common with age, with a median onset of 65 years. It forms only a minor fraction (10 – 15%) of childhood leukaemia. The clinical features of AML typically presents with clinical features secondary to leukaemic infiltration of bone marrow and extramedullary sites:
Anaemia (lethargy, pallor and breathlessness)
Thrombocytopaenia (petechiae, bruising, epistaxis, haemorrhage) – often profound
Neutropenia (infections)
Hepatosplenomegaly
Gingival infiltration
Central nervous system involvement in AML is uncommon.
Leukaemia cutis is the infiltration of neoplastic leukocytes in the skin. It occurs in approximately 10% of patients with AML.Haematological investigations reveal a normochromic normocytic anaemia with thrombocytopenia in most cases. The total white cell count is usually increased and blood film examination typically shows a variable number of blast cells. The bone marrow is hypercellular and typically contains many blast cells.. The prognosis for patients with AML has been improving steadily, particularly for those under 60 years of age, and approximately one-third of patients of this group can expect to achieve long-term cure. For the elderly, the situation is poor and less than 10% of those over 70 years of age achieve long-term remission.
CML is commonly associated with the Philadelphia chromosome. The Philadelphia chromosome is present in only 1% of adults AML cases.
Lymphadenopathy is rare in AML. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 2-day-old male is referred to a tertiary care hospital by the community midwife after a home visit due to jaundice and dyspnoea. After history and examination, the relevant blood work is performed, and the baby is found to have conjugated hyperbilirubinemia. The paediatric team suspects a hepatic origin for jaundice based on the findings.
Which one of the following aetiologies is the most likely cause of jaundice in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alpha 1-antitrypsin deficiency
Explanation:The presence of dyspnoea makes alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency the more likely diagnosis as biliary atresia does not cause respiratory symptoms. Deficiency of the enzyme alpha-1 antitrypsin causes uninhibited elastase activity and a decrease in elastic tissue. This causes liver cirrhosis leading to an elevation of conjugated bilirubin and emphysema in the lungs.
Rhesus disease, hereditary spherocytosis and breast milk jaundice cause an elevation of unconjugated bilirubin thus ruling it out in this case. Breast milk jaundice occurs due to an inability of the newborn to metabolize the proteins in breast milk.
Rhesus disease occurs when an Rh negative mother gives birth to an Rh positive baby. The jaundice would have been accompanied by anaemia and oedema.
Hereditary spherocytosis occurs due to extravascular haemolysis as defective RBCs are removed by the spleen. The patient would present with jaundice, splenomegaly and possibly an aplastic crisis (if Parvovirus B19 infection).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Pathology
- Pathology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Achlorhydria is diagnosed in a 37-year-old individual who has had recurring episodes of gastroenteritis. This is an autoimmune illness of the gastric parietal cells that causes insufficient stomach acid production.
Damage to stomach parietal cells will alter the secretion of which other substance?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intrinsic factor
Explanation:Achlorhydria is an autoimmune illness of the gastric parietal cells that causes insufficient stomach acid production. The parietal cells that have been injured are unable to create the necessary amount of stomach acid. As a result, the pH of the stomach rises, food digestion suffers, and the risk of gastroenteritis rises.
The secretion of hydrochloric acid and intrinsic factor is controlled by the gastric parietal cells, which are epithelial cells in the stomach. These cells can be found in the gastric glands, the fundus lining, and the stomach body.
In response to the following three stimuli, the stomach parietal cells release hydrochloric acid:
H2 Histamine receptors are stimulated by histamine (most significant contribution)
Acetylcholine stimulates M3 Receptors via parasympathetic action.
CCK2 receptors are stimulated by Gastrin.Intrinsic factor, which is essential for vitamin B12 absorption, is also produced by stomach parietal cells.
Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that is both selective and irreversible. It inhibits the H+/K+-ATPase system present on the secretory membrane of gastric parietal cells, which lowers stomach acid secretion.
Ranitidine inhibits histamine H2-receptors in a competitive manner. The reversible inhibition of H2-receptors in gastric parietal cells reduces both the volume and concentration of gastric acid. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal Physiology
- Physiology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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All of the following typically occurs as part of normal passive expiration except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Contraction of the internal intercostal muscles
Explanation:Passive expiration is produced primarily by relaxation of the inspiratory muscles (diaphragm and external intercostal muscles) in addition to the elastic recoil of the lungs.
In expiration, several movements occur. There are:
1. depression of the sternal ends of the ribs (‘pump handle’ movement),
2. depression of the lateral shafts of the ribs (‘bucket handle’ movement) and
3. elevation of the diaphragm.
These result in a reduction of the thorax in an anteroposterior, transverse and vertical direction respectively. There is then a decreased intrathoracic volume and increased intrathoracic pressure and air is forced out of the lungs. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Thorax
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Question 28
Incorrect
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An 8-year-old boy was brought to the emergency room with complaints of a rash and fever that have been present for the past 3 days. Upon history taking and observation, it was noted that the rash started behind the ears and then spread to the face and body. The presence of coryzal symptoms, dry cough, and conjunctivitis was also observed.
What is most likely the diagnosis of the case presented above?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Measles
Explanation:The measles virus is an enveloped virus classified in the genus
Morbillivirus.
Measles is highly contagious and spreads by aerosol. Initial replication takes place in the mucosal cells of the respiratory tract; measles virus then replicates in the local lymph nodes and spreads systemically. The virus circulates in the T and B cells and monocytes, until eventually the lungs, gut, bile duct, bladder, skin, and lymphatic organs are involved. After an incubation period of 7 to 10 days, there is an abrupt onset, with symptoms of sneezing, runny nose and cough, red eyes, and rapidly rising fever. About 2 to 3 days later, a maculopapular rash appears on the head and trunk. Koplik spots, lesions on the oral mucosa consisting of irregular red spots, with a bluish white speck in the centre, generally appear 2 to 3 days before the rash and are diagnostic.Measles is easily diagnosed clinically, so few requests for laboratory identification are made. The virus is fragile and must be handled carefully. The specimens of choice are from the nasopharynx and urine, but the virus can only be recovered from these sources in the early stages of infection. The virus grows on PMK cells, causing the formation of distinctive spindle-shaped or multinucleated cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Specific Pathogen Groups
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old man presented to the emergency room after an incident of slipping and falling onto his back and left hip. Upon physical examination, it was noted that he has pain on hip extension, but normal hip abduction.
Which of the following muscles was most likely injured in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gluteus maximus
Explanation:The primary hip extensors are the gluteus maximus and the hamstrings such as the long head of the biceps femoris, the semitendinosus, and the semimembranosus. The extensor head of the adductor magnus is also considered a primary hip extensor.
The hip abductor muscle group is located on the lateral thigh. The primary hip abductor muscles include the gluteus medius, gluteus minimus, and tensor fasciae latae.
The secondary hip abductors include the piriformis, sartorius, and superior fibres of the gluteus maximus. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents with signs and symptoms of an anaphylactic reaction. His GP had recently given him a new medication.
Which one of these is the most likely medication responsible for the drug-induced anaphylactic reaction?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Penicillin
Explanation:The most common cause of drug-induced anaphylaxis is penicillin.
The second commonest cause are NSAIDs. Other drugs associated with anaphylaxis are ACE inhibitors and aspirin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infections
- Pharmacology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
