00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - Which of the following has the shortest duration: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following has the shortest duration:

      Your Answer: Atrial diastole

      Correct Answer: Atrial systole

      Explanation:

      Atrial systole: 0.1s

      Atrial diastole: around 0.4s

      Ventricular diastole: 0.4-0.53s

      Ventricular systole: 0.27s

      PR interval: 0.12-0.2 s

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      36.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Transport of Iron into enterocytes occurs via which membrane transporter? ...

    Incorrect

    • Transport of Iron into enterocytes occurs via which membrane transporter?

      Your Answer: Fe2+ - ATPase

      Correct Answer: Divalent metal transporter 1(dmt1)

      Explanation:

      To be absorbed, dietary iron can be absorbed as part of a protein such as haem protein or iron must be in its ferrous Fe2+ form. A ferric reductase enzyme on the enterocytes’ brush border, duodenal cytochrome B (Dcytb), reduces ferric Fe3+ to Fe2+. A protein called divalent metal transporter 1 (DMT1), which can transport several divalent metals across the plasma membrane, then transports iron across the enterocyte’s cell membrane into the cell.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      26.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - The following can cause steatorrhea except ...

    Incorrect

    • The following can cause steatorrhea except

      Your Answer: Lipase deficiency

      Correct Answer: Diseases that destroy the endocrine portion of the pancreas

      Explanation:

      Dietary fats and lipids are usually efficiently digested and over 90% absorbed. Impaired digestion or absorption can result in fatty stools. Possible causes include exocrine (not endocrine) pancreatic insufficiency, with poor digestion from lack of lipases, loss of bile salts, which reduces micelle formation, and small intestinal disease producing malabsorption. Various other causes including certain medicines that block fat absorption, or indigestible or excess oil/fat in diet.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - The Na-K-2Cl co-transporter occurs in which part of the renal tubule? ...

    Incorrect

    • The Na-K-2Cl co-transporter occurs in which part of the renal tubule?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Apical surface of thick ascending limb

      Explanation:

      The Na-K-Cl cotransporter (NKCC) is a protein that aids in the active transport of sodium, potassium, and chloride into cells. In humans there are two isoforms of this membrane transport protein, NKCC1 and NKCC2. NKCC2 is specifically found in cells of the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle and the macula densa in nephrons, the basic functional units of the kidney. Within these cells, NKCC2 resides in the apical membrane abutting the nephron’s lumen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Renal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - On which chromosome is the gene for insulin located? ...

    Incorrect

    • On which chromosome is the gene for insulin located?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chromosome 11

      Explanation:

      Humans have 23 pairs of chromosomes, and usually, two pairs of copies of chromosome 11. It is one of the most complex, gene-rich chromosomes in the human genome, and it is associated with a number of diseases. Studies have shown they the human insulin gene is located on the short arm of chromosome 11.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - The complex twisting and folding of peptide chains describes which order of protein...

    Incorrect

    • The complex twisting and folding of peptide chains describes which order of protein structure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Secondary structure

      Explanation:

      Secondary Structure refers to the coiling or folding of a polypeptide chain that gives the protein its 3-D shape. There are two types of secondary structures: the alpha (α) helix and the beta (β) pleated sheet.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Metabolism
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 41 year old woman who has a history of SLE presents with...

    Incorrect

    • A 41 year old woman who has a history of SLE presents with a dry cough, dyspnoea and fever. She is being treated with a monthly dose of IV cyclophosphamide for Grade IV nephropathy. The last cyclophosphamide dose was 10 years ago. Lab investigations are as follows: WCC: 2.3 (lymphocyte count 0.7)Platelets: 81Hb: 10.5ESR: 56CRP: 43PO2: 7.2 kPa, PCO2: 3.6 kPa after walking out to the toilet.Chest X ray was unremarkable apart from some patchy pulmonary infiltration.What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia (PCP)

      Explanation:

      Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia, is an opportunistic fungal lung infection occurring almost exclusively in immunocompromised individuals. In 50% of cases, PCP is the first manifestation of AIDS (acquired immune deficiency syndrome), but it may be caused by other immunodeficiency disorders. PCP should be suspected in patients with a history of progressive dyspnoea and a dry cough with resistance to standard antibiotic treatment. Signs that support this diagnosis include a CD4 count < 200/μL, an increased beta-D-glucan level, and diffuse bilateral infiltrates on chest x-ray. Management of PCP includes high-dose trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (TMP/SMX), treatment of the underlying immunodeficiency disorder, and steroids in the case of severe respiratory insufficiency. TB is less likely to be present in this case as ESR is relatively low and chest x-ray appeared normal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which one of the following statements regarding the normal distribution is correct? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding the normal distribution is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mean = mode = median

      Explanation:

      Normal distribution, also known as the Gaussian distribution, is a probability distribution that is symmetric about the mean. The normal distribution has the following properties:- It is symmetric around the mode, the median and the mean of the distribution.- It is unimodal- The area under the curve and over the x-axis is unity (i.e. equal to one).- Its density has two inflection points.- Its density is log-concave.The standard deviation (SD) is a measure of how much dispersion exists from the mean. SD = square root (variance)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Research Skills
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Southern Blotting and DNA probes: ...

    Incorrect

    • Southern Blotting and DNA probes:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: DNA fragments are separated by gel electrophoresis and transferred onto membrane sheets in southern blotting

      Explanation:

      A Southern blot is a method used in molecular biology for detection of a specific DNA sequence in DNA samples. Southern blotting combines transfer of electrophoresis-separated DNA fragments to a filter membrane and subsequent fragment detection by probe hybridization. The other forms of blotting involve the use of RNA and proteins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - The chromosomes that principally encode for proteins or RNA molecules involved in mitochondrial...

    Incorrect

    • The chromosomes that principally encode for proteins or RNA molecules involved in mitochondrial function are found:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: In the nucleus of each diploid cell

      Explanation:

      While mitochondria have their own small circular DNA (mtDNA) that encodes some of the proteins and RNAs required for mitochondrial function, the majority of proteins involved in mitochondrial function are encoded by nuclear DNA. These nuclear genes are transcribed in the nucleus and then translated into proteins in the cytoplasm. The proteins are subsequently imported into the mitochondria.

      Therefore, the correct answer is:

      • In the nucleus of each diploid cell

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Defects in chromosomal structure (and examples) include those mentioned below except: ...

    Incorrect

    • Defects in chromosomal structure (and examples) include those mentioned below except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lyonization (x-linked disorders)

      Explanation:

      All are true except for A) Lyonization which is the inactivation of the X chromosomes in a female. It is not a chromosomal abnormality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 33 year old female presents with dyspnoea, myalgia, arthralgia and a skin...

    Incorrect

    • A 33 year old female presents with dyspnoea, myalgia, arthralgia and a skin rash. The presence of which of the following antibodies would be the most specific for SLE?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anti-Sm

      Explanation:

      Anti-Sm antibodies are essential for diagnosis of SLE, especially in anti-dsDNA-negative patients. ANA are also found in 95% of the patients with SLE but they may also occur with other conditions like Juvenile inflammatory arthritis, chronic activity hepatitis, and Sjogren’s syndrome. Anti-Ro, although also found with SLE are more characteristic of Sjogren Syndrome. RF is usually associated with rheumatoid arthritis and cANCA with Wegener’s granulomatosis, Churg Strauss, and microscopic polyangiitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which of the following limits the duration of inspiration and increases respiratory rate?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following limits the duration of inspiration and increases respiratory rate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pneumotaxic centre

      Explanation:

      The mechanism of control of ventilation is an interplay of multiple regions in the brain. The medullary respiratory centre sets the basic rhythm of breathing and the pons modifies the output of the medullary centres. There are two pontine centres: apneustic and pneumotaxic.

      The pnuemotaxic centre controls inspiratory time. Increased signals to this area increases respiratory rate. The dorsal respiratory group (DRG) integrates input from the stretch receptors and the chemoreceptors in the periphery and is composed mainly of inspiratory neurons. The DRG controls the basic rhythm of breathing by triggering inspiratory impulses. The ventral respiratory group (VRG) generates breathing rhythm and integrates data coming into the medulla and contains both inspiratory and expiratory neurons. They are primarily active in exercise and stress.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which glucose transporter is responsible for the uptake of glucose in ß cells?...

    Incorrect

    • Which glucose transporter is responsible for the uptake of glucose in ß cells?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: GLUT 2

      Explanation:

      Glucose transporter 2, also known as GLUT2 is a transmembrane carrier protein which is not insulin dependent. It is found in the liver and the pancreatic islet ß cells, where it functions as the primary glucose transporter that allows the transfer of glucose between these organs and blood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which neurotransmitter is found in the postganglionic parasympathetic synaptic cleft? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which neurotransmitter is found in the postganglionic parasympathetic synaptic cleft?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acetylcholine

      Explanation:

      Acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter released from the postganglionic parasympathetic neuron into the synaptic cleft and also by some postganglionic sympathetic neurons as well.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Where does one find the thyroid receptors? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where does one find the thyroid receptors?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cell nucleus

      Explanation:

      Unlike many of the steroid receptors, inactive receptors for T3 are located in the nucleus. T4 is first converted into T3 within the cytoplasm of the cell, T3 then enters the nucleus and binds to its receptor. The hormone-receptor complex can now bind to DNA and activate specific genes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 31 year old female complains of bilateral proximal muscle weakness. There is...

    Incorrect

    • A 31 year old female complains of bilateral proximal muscle weakness. There is marked blanching of fingers especially in response to cold weather. Lab results are as follows: Anti Jo-1: positive ANA: positiveCK: 2000 U/LESR: 60mm/hrEMG: myopathic changesPresence of which of the following signifies the worst prognosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Interstitial lung disease

      Explanation:

      Polymyositis is an inflammatory disorder causing symmetrical, proximal muscle weakness. It is thought to be a T-cell mediated cytotoxic process directed against muscle fibres. It may be idiopathic or associated with connective tissue disorders. It may also be associated with malignancy for example small cell lung carcinoma.Dermatomyositis is a variant of the disease where skin manifestations are prominent, for example a purple (heliotrope) rash on the cheeks and eyelids.It typically affects middle-aged, female: male 3:1. Features include proximal muscle weakness +/- tenderness, Raynaud’s phenomenon, respiratory muscle weakness, interstitial lung disease: e.g. fibrosing alveolitis or organising pneumonia, dysphagia, dysphonia. Investigations: elevated creatine kinase, other muscle enzymes (lactate dehydrogenase (LD), aldolase, AST and ALT) are also elevated in 85-95% of patients, EMG, muscle biopsy. Anti-Jo-1 antibodies are seen in pattern of disease associated with lung involvement, Raynaud’s and fever. Interstitial lung disease plays a major role in morbidity and mortality in patients with polymyositis and is considered a major risk factor for premature death in patients with myositis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which statement about X linked dominant disorders is FALSE? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement about X linked dominant disorders is FALSE?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Heterozygous females tend to have the disease more severely than affected males.

      Explanation:

      Women who have the affected X chromosome will be affected, but the severity will be less than that in males as they have a normal X chromosome to counter the effect of the mutated X chromosome. Affected males will pass on the defect to their daughters 100% of the time but not to their sons.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which statement is incorrect regarding nociceptor C fibers… ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement is incorrect regarding nociceptor C fibers…

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: They are thinly myelinated

      Explanation:

      Group C nerve fibers are unmyelinated and have a small diameter, which means they conduct impulses at a low velocity. They carry sensory information and nociception.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which one of these features is typical of dermatomyositis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of these features is typical of dermatomyositis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gottron's papules over knuckles of fingers

      Explanation:

      Dermatomyositis is a long-term inflammatory disorder which affects muscles. Its symptoms are generally a skin rash and worsening muscle weakness in the proximal muscles (for example, the shoulders and thighs) over time. These may occur suddenly or develop over months. Other symptoms may include weight loss, fever, lung inflammation, or light sensitivity. Complications may include calcium deposits in muscles or skin.The skin rash may manifest as aheliotrope (a purplish color) or lilac, but may also be red. It can occur around the eyes along with swelling, as well as the upper chest or back ( shawl sign) or V-sign above the breasts and may also occur on the face, upper arms, thighs, or hands. Another form the rash takes is called Gottron’s sign which are red or violet, sometimes scaly, slightly raised papules that erupt on any of the finger joints (the metacarpophalangeal joints or the interphalangeal joints)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 39 year old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis has recently...

    Incorrect

    • A 39 year old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis has recently been switched from methotrexate to leflunomide. Monitoring of full blood count and LFTs has been carried out. Which of the following parameters should also be monitored in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Blood pressure

      Explanation:

      Blood pressure should be routinely measured as leflunomide may cause hypertension and thus an increase in BP. It doesn’t cause changes in blood sugar levels, peak expiratory flow rate or haematuria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - With regard to the endothelial structure, the epithelium constitute: ...

    Incorrect

    • With regard to the endothelial structure, the epithelium constitute:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Simple squamous

      Explanation:

      The single layer of squamous epithelium lining the heart and blood vessels is known as the endothelium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Where on the surface of the chest is the normal site of auscultation...

    Incorrect

    • Where on the surface of the chest is the normal site of auscultation for the mitral area?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 4th left intercostal space in the mid-clavicular line

      Explanation:

      The mitral valve is situated in the left 4th intercostal space just beneath the sternum, in the mid clavicular line.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 70-year-old male with advanced COPD currently on treatment with salbutamol (as required)...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old male with advanced COPD currently on treatment with salbutamol (as required) presents for review. After a complete history and examination, you conclude that he requires to be stepped up in his inhalational therapy. The decision to add tiotropium bromide to his regime was taken. Which of the following best describe the mechanism of action of tiotropium?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is a long-acting anticholinergic agent

      Explanation:

      Tiotropium is a specific long-acting antimuscarinic agent indicated as maintenance therapy for patients with COPD (chronic obstructive pulmonary disease). It should be used cautiously in patients with narrow-angle glaucoma, prostatic hyperplasia or bladder neck obstruction.The most frequently encountered adverse effects of tiotropium include pharyngitis, bronchitis, sinusitis, dry mouth, cough, and headaches. Paradoxical bronchospasm may also occur as a rare side-effect. Dry mouth occurs in up to 14% of patients taking tiotropium, in keeping with its anticholinergic profile. Rarer side-effects include tachycardia, blurred vision, urinary retention, and constipation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which cells secrete insulin? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which cells secrete insulin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: B cells of the pancreatic islets

      Explanation:

      Insulin is synthesised and stored by the B cells of the pancreatic islets (70% of islet cells), glucagon is synthesised and stored in the A cells (20%) and somatostatin is synthesised and stored in the D cells (10%).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 20 year old male student presents to the clinic with swelling of...

    Incorrect

    • A 20 year old male student presents to the clinic with swelling of his face, hands and feet along with diffuse abdominal pain. He has a history of similar recurrent episodes since he was 10 years old, with each episode lasting 2-3 days. Examination reveals swelling on face, hands, feet but no sign of urticaria. Family history is significant for similar episodes in the mother who experienced these since childhood, and a brother who passed away following respiratory distress at age of 8 during one such episode. Which of the following tests would be the most helpful in reaching the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: C1 esterase inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Hereditary C1 inhibitor deficiency leads to recurrent angioedema without urticaria or pruritus. Physical triggers include dental work, surgery or intubation. Medical triggers include angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, tamoxifen, oestrogen-containing medications (e.g., hormone replacement therapy and oral contraceptives). It is diagnosed on the basis of low levels of C1 esterase inhibitor or elevated levels of dysfunctional C1 esterase inhibitor. C4 levels are low between attacks. IgE levels, eosinophils, skin prick tests and RASTs are helpful in other allergic conditions and asthma but not of use in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 50-year-old woman under treatment for manic-depressive psychosis presents in an unconscious state...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman under treatment for manic-depressive psychosis presents in an unconscious state after an episode of seizure on the street. Her husband who accompanied her into the ER reported that they argued about 6-7 hours ago. On examination, she is found to be hypertonic with a GCS of 8, BP: 90/60 mmHg and a pulse of 105 bpm. Blood investigations revealed a lithium level of 3.2 mmol/L. She was intubated and ventilated. Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate management in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: N saline should be started iv

      Explanation:
      1. Normal saline (N saline) should be started IV: Intravenous normal saline is recommended to enhance renal excretion of lithium. Adequate hydration is crucial because lithium is primarily excreted by the kidneys, and maintaining good urine output can help reduce lithium levels.
      2. Dialysis: This is considered the most effective treatment for severe lithium toxicity, especially when serum levels are significantly elevated (typically >2.5 mmol/L) and the patient presents with severe symptoms such as seizures, altered mental status, or renal impairment. Given the patient’s lithium level of 3.2 mmol/L and her critical condition, dialysis is necessary to rapidly reduce lithium levels.

      The other options are less appropriate or ineffective in this context:

      • Gastric lavage should be considered: This is not typically recommended for lithium poisoning because lithium is rapidly absorbed and lavage is unlikely to be effective several hours post-ingestion.
      • Activated charcoal is likely to be effective: Activated charcoal does not effectively bind lithium and is not recommended for lithium poisoning.
      • 5% dextrose should be started IV: While maintaining hydration is important, normal saline is preferred over dextrose solutions in this context to promote renal excretion of lithium.
      • Dialysis is not normally required unless levels are above 5 mmol/L: This statement is incorrect. Dialysis is often required at lower levels, particularly in cases of severe toxicity or if the patient is symptomatic, as seen in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - With regards to splenic micro-architecture which is not contained within the red pulp...

    Incorrect

    • With regards to splenic micro-architecture which is not contained within the red pulp

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Malpighian corpuscles

      Explanation:

      Red pulp is responsible for mechanical filtration of red blood cells and is composed of sinusoids, which are filled with blood, splenic cords of reticular fibers and a marginal zone bordering on white pulp. White pulp provides an active immune response through humoral and cell-mediated pathways. Composed of nodules, called Malpighian corpuscles. These are composed of: lymphoid follicles, rich in B-lymphocytes and periarteriolar lymphoid sheaths (PALS), rich in T-lymphocytes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Regarding the surface anatomy of the orifices of the heart, where is the...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the surface anatomy of the orifices of the heart, where is the aortic valve located?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Opposite the left 3rd intercostal space to the left of the sternum

      Explanation:

      The aortic valve is situated in the left 3rd intercostal space just beneath the sternum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which is the commonest cardiovascular abnormality seen in an adult patient with Marfan’s...

    Incorrect

    • Which is the commonest cardiovascular abnormality seen in an adult patient with Marfan’s syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aortic aneurysm

      Explanation:

      Marfan syndrome (MFS) is a genetic disorder of connective tissue. The degree to which people are affected varies. People with Marfan’s tend to be tall, and thin, with long arms, legs, fingers and toes. They also typically have flexible joints and scoliosis. The most serious complications involve the heart and aorta with an increased risk of mitral valve prolapse and aortic aneurysm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular (0/1) 0%
Medicine (0/3) 0%
Haematology (0/1) 0%
Gastrointestinal (0/1) 0%
Passmed