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  • Question 1 - Drug A has a 1 L/kg volume of distribution and a 0.1 elimination...

    Incorrect

    • Drug A has a 1 L/kg volume of distribution and a 0.1 elimination rate constant (k).

      Drug B has a 2 L/kg volume of distribution and a 0.2 elimination rate constant (k).

      Which of the following statements best describes the pharmacokinetics of drug A in a single compartment?

      Your Answer: Drug A has a higher clearance than drug B

      Correct Answer: Drug A has a lower clearance than drug B

      Explanation:

      The fall in plasma concentration of a drug with time decreases exponentially in a single compartment pharmacokinetic model (wash-out curve).

      A straight line is produced when the logarithm (ln) of a drug’s plasma concentration is plotted against time because a constant proportion of the drug is removed from the plasma per unit time. The line’s gradient or slope can be expressed mathematically as k. (the rate constant). The gradient is related to the half life (T1/2) because it can be used to predict a drug’s plasma concentration at any time.

      According to the following formula, clearance (CL), volume of distribution (Vd), and elimination rate constant (k) are mathematically related.

      CL = Vd x k

      For drug A, CL = 1 x 0.1 = 0.1units per minute

      For drug B, Cl = 2 x 0.2 = 0.4 units per minute

      Hence, it is proved that Drug A has a lower clearance than drug B.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      25.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 27-year-old woman takes part in a study looking into the effects of...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman takes part in a study looking into the effects of different dietary substrates on metabolism. She receives a 24-hour ethyl alcohol infusion.

      A constant volume, closed system respirometer is used to measure CO2 production and consumption. The production of carbon dioxide is found to be 200 mL/minute.

      Which of the following values most closely resembles her anticipated O2 consumption at the conclusion of the trial?

      Your Answer: 300 mL/minute

      Explanation:

      The respiratory quotient (RQ) is the ratio of CO2 produced by the body to O2 consumed in a given amount of time.

      CO2 produced / O2 consumed = RQ

      CO2 is produced at a rate of 200 mL per minute, while O2 is consumed at a rate of 250 mL per minute. An RQ of around 0.8 is typical for a mixed diet.

      The RQ will change depending on the energy substrates consumed in the diet. Granulated sugar is a refined carbohydrate that contains 99.999 percent carbohydrate and no lipids, proteins, minerals, or vitamins.

      Glucose and other hexose sugars (glucose and other hexose sugars):
      RQ=1

      Fats:
      RQ = 0.7

      Proteins:
      Approximately 0.9 RQ

      Ethyl alcohol is a type of alcohol.

      200/300 = 0.67 RQ

      For complete oxidation, lipids and alcohol require more oxygen than carbohydrates.

      When carbohydrate is converted to fat, the RQ can rise above 1.0. Fat deposition and weight gain are likely to occur in these circumstances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following vertebral levels is the site where the aorta perforates...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following vertebral levels is the site where the aorta perforates the diaphragm?

      Your Answer: T10

      Correct Answer: T12

      Explanation:

      The diaphragm divides the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity. Structures penetrate the diaphragm at different vertebral levels through openings in the diaphragm to communicate between the two cavities. The diaphragm has openings at three vertebral levels:

      T8: vena cava, terminal branches of the right phrenic nerve
      T10: oesophagus, vagal trunks, left anterior phrenic vessels, oesophageal branches of the left gastric vessels
      T12: descending aorta, thoracic duct, azygous and hemi-azygous vein

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - The external urethral sphincter arises from which nerve root? ...

    Incorrect

    • The external urethral sphincter arises from which nerve root?

      Your Answer: L5, S1, S2

      Correct Answer: S2, S3, S4

      Explanation:

      The external urethral sphincter functions to provide voluntary control of urine flow from the bladder to the urethra.

      It receives its innervation from the branches of the pudendal nerve which originate from S2, S3 and S4.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - During a critical liver resection surgery, a 65-year-old man suffers uncontrolled hepatic bleeding....

    Correct

    • During a critical liver resection surgery, a 65-year-old man suffers uncontrolled hepatic bleeding. The 'Pringle manoeuvre is performed to stop the bleeding where the hepatic artery, portal vein, and common bile duct are clamped. These structures form the anterior boundary of the epiploic foramen.

      Which of the following vessels also contributes to the boundary of this region?

      Your Answer: Inferior vena cava

      Explanation:

      The epiploic foramen (foramen of Winslow or aditus to the lesser sac) is found behind the free right border of the lesser omentum. A short, 3 cm slit serves as the entrance to the lesser sac from the greater sac.

      The epiploic foramen has the following boundaries:
      Anteriorly: hepatoduodenal ligament, the bile duct (anteriorly on the right), the hepatic artery (anteriorly on the left), and the portal vein (posteriorly) together with nerves and lymphatics
      Superiorly: the peritoneum of the posterior layer of the hepatoduodenal ligament runs over the caudate process of the liver
      Posteriorly: inferior vena cava
      Floor: upper border of the first part of the duodenum
      The anterior and posterior walls of the foramen are normally
      apposed, which partly explains why patients can develop large fluid
      collections isolated to the greater or lesser sac

      Rapid control of the hepatic artery and portal vein can be obtained by compression of the free edge of the lesser omentum (a ‘Pringle’ manoeuvre), which is a potentially useful technique in liver trauma and surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      50.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - One of the non-pharmacologic management of COPD is smoking cessation. Given a case...

    Incorrect

    • One of the non-pharmacologic management of COPD is smoking cessation. Given a case of a 60-year old patient with history of smoking for 30 years and a FEV1 of 70%, what would be the most probable five-year course of his FEV1 if he ceases to smoke?

      Your Answer: The FEV1 will return to normal within 6 months

      Correct Answer: The FEV1 will decrease at the same rate as a non-smoker

      Explanation:

      For this patient, his forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) will decrease at the same rate as a non-smoker.

      There is a notable, but slow, decline in FEV1 when an individual reaches the age of 26. An average reduction of 30 mls every year in non-smokers, while a more significant reduction of 50-70 mls is observed in approximately 20% of smokers.

      Considering the age of the patient, individuals who begin smoking cessation by the age of 60 are far less likely to achieve normal FEV1 levels, even in the next five years. It is expected that their FEV1 will be approximately 14% less than their peers of the same age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      34.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A radiologist is conducting an arch aortogram. She begins by entering the brachiocephalic...

    Incorrect

    • A radiologist is conducting an arch aortogram. She begins by entering the brachiocephalic artery using the angiography catheter. As she continues to advance the catheter, what vessels will the catheter enter?

      Your Answer: Left subclavian artery

      Correct Answer: Right subclavian artery

      Explanation:

      As there is no brachiocephalic artery on the left side, the artery is entered by the catheter on the right side.

      The brachiocephalic artery branches into the common carotid and the right subclavian artery, so the catheter is most likely to enter the right subclavian artery, or also possibly the right carotid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      31.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A study of blood pressure measurements is being performed in patients with chronic...

    Correct

    • A study of blood pressure measurements is being performed in patients with chronic kidney disease.

      Considering that the results are normally distributed, what percentage of values lie within two standard deviations of the mean blood pressure reading?

      Your Answer: 95.40%

      Explanation:

      Normal distribution, also called Gaussian distribution, the most common distribution function for independent, randomly generated variables, and describes the spread for many biological and clinical measurements.

      Properties of the Normal distribution

      symmetrical i.e. Mean = mode = median

      68.3% of values lie within 1 SD of the mean

      95.4% of values lie within 2 SD of the mean

      99.7% of values lie within 3 SD of the mean

      The empirical rule, or the 68-95-99.7 rule, tells you where most of the values lie in a normal distribution: Around 68% of values are within 1 standard deviation of the mean.

      Around 95% of values are within 2 standard deviations of the mean. Around 99.7% of values are within 3 standard deviations of the mean.
      the standard deviation (SD) is a measure of how much dispersion exists from the mean.

      SD = square root (variance)

      The empirical rule, or the 68-95-99.7 rule states where most of the values lie in a normal distribution. Around 68% of values fall within 1 S.D of the mean, about 95% within 2 S.D of the mean, and about 99.7% of values within 3 S.D of the mean. Therefore, 95.4% is the most reasonable answer if results are normally distributed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      22.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A new intravenous neuromuscular blocking agent has been developed. It has a hepatic...

    Correct

    • A new intravenous neuromuscular blocking agent has been developed. It has a hepatic extraction ratio of 0.25 and three quaternary nitrogen atoms in its structure. It has been discovered that it has a half-life of fifteen minutes in healthy volunteers.

      Which of the following elimination mechanisms is the most likely to explain this pharmacological behaviour?

      Your Answer: It is filtered and not reabsorbed by the renal tubules

      Explanation:

      The neuromuscular blocking agent is likely to be filtered and not reabsorbed by the renal tubules due to an exclusion process.

      Neuromuscular blocking agents that contain one or more quaternary nitrogen atoms are polar and ionised. As a result, the molecules have low lipid solubility, low membrane diffusion capacity, and low distribution volume.

      It’s unlikely that a compound with three quaternary nitrogen atoms is an ester. Its high polarity would prevent molecules from moving quickly into tissues.

      When drugs have a low hepatic extraction ratio (0.3), the venous and arterial drug concentrations are nearly identical. The liver is not the primary site of drug metabolism.

      Therefore:

      Changes in liver blood flow have no effect on clearance.
      Protein binding, intrinsic metabolism, and excretion are all very sensitive to changes in clearance.
      When taken orally, there is no first-pass metabolism.

      There is no reason for the lungs to eliminate any neuromuscular blocking agent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      62.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Ondansetron is serotonin antagonist indicated for post-operative nausea and vomiting.

    In which of the...

    Correct

    • Ondansetron is serotonin antagonist indicated for post-operative nausea and vomiting.

      In which of the following anatomic structures does ondansetron produce its effects?

      Your Answer: Nucleus tractus solitarius

      Explanation:

      Ondansetron is a serotonin antagonist at the 5HT3 receptor. 5HT3 receptors in the gastrointestinal tract and in the vomiting centre of the medulla participate in the vomiting reflex. They are particularly important in vomiting caused by chemical triggers such as cancer chemotherapy drugs.

      The nucleus solitarius is the recipient of all visceral afferents, and an essential part of the regulatory centres of the internal homeostasis, through its multiple projections with cardiorespiratory and gastrointestinal regulatory centres. It participates in the reflexes of the nerves innervating the nucleus, so it mediates cough reflex, carotid sinus reflex, gag reflex, and vomiting reflex.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - You draw a patient's blood sample from the median cubital vein in the...

    Correct

    • You draw a patient's blood sample from the median cubital vein in the antecubital fossa.

      Which of the following veins also connects to the cephalic vein other than the median cubital vein?

      Your Answer: Basilic vein

      Explanation:

      The upper limb venous drainage is divided into superficial and deep. The superficial veins are accessible to draw blood for investigations. The cephalic, basilic, and median cubital veins are superficial veins.

      The median cubital vein connects the cephalic vein and basilic vein. It is located anteriorly in the antecubital fossa and is preferred for venepuncture due to its palpability and ease of access.

      The basilic vein and cephalic vein are the primary veins that drain the upper limb. They begin as the dorsal venous arch. The basilic vein originates from the ulnar side, while the cephalic vein originates from the radial side of the dorsal arch of the upper limb.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which of the following is true about number needed to harm? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is true about number needed to harm?

      Your Answer: The number of patients that must receive a particular treatment for one additional patient to experience an adverse outcome.

      Explanation:

      Number needed to harm are a measure of the impact of a treatment or intervention that is often used to communicate results to patients, clinicians, the public and policymakers. It states how many patients need to be treated for one additional patient to experience an adverse outcome (e.g. a death). It is calculated as the inverse of the absolute risk reduction. It can equally well be applied to harmful outcomes as well as beneficial ones, where it becomes numbers needed to treat (NNT) instead.

      In this way, they are both calculated the same but NNT usually refers to a therapeutic treatment whereas NNH refers to a risk-factor for disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      22.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which oral hypoglycaemic agent has no effect on insulin sensitivity or secretion? ...

    Correct

    • Which oral hypoglycaemic agent has no effect on insulin sensitivity or secretion?

      Your Answer: Alpha glucosidase inhibitors

      Explanation:

      Because alpha glucosidase inhibitors slow starch digestion in the small intestine, glucose from a meal enters the bloodstream more slowly and can be matched more effectively by an impaired insulin response or sensitivity, glucose from a meal enters the bloodstream more slowly and can be matched more effectively by an impaired insulin response or sensitivity.

      Biguanides decrease hepatic glucose output while increasing glucose uptake in peripheral cells.

      The meglitinides are secretagogues that act on a different site of the KATP receptors.

      Insulin secretion is stimulated by sulphonylureas, which stimulate insulin secretion from pancreatic beta cells. The KATP channels are inhibited by these substances.

      Insulin-sensitive genes are influenced by thiazolidinediones, which increase the production of mRNAs for insulin-dependent enzymes. As a result, the cells make better use of glucose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A trail has analysed that a new screening test may increase the survival...

    Correct

    • A trail has analysed that a new screening test may increase the survival time of ovarian cancer patients. But analyst say that the apparent increase in the patients survival time is just because of earlier detection instead of actual improvement.

      What kind of bias is in this experiment?

      Your Answer: Lead time bias

      Explanation:

      Observation bias occurs when the behaviour of an individual changes that results from their awareness of being observed.

      Recall bias introduced when participants in a study are systematically more or less likely to recall and relate information on exposure depending on their outcome status.

      Attrition bias is a systematic error caused by unequal loss of participants from a randomized controlled trial (RCT). In clinical trials, participants might dropout due to unsatisfactory treatment or efficacy, intolerable adverse events, or even death.

      Selection bias introduced when the individuals are not chosen randomly to take a part in the study. It usually occurs when the research decides who is going to be studied, they are not the representative of the population.

      Lead-time bias occurs when a disease is detected by a screening test at an earlier time point rather than it would have been diagnosed by its clinical appearance. In this bias, earlier detection improves the survival time in the intervention group.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      3.6
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - When describing the surface anatomy of the sacrum, which of the following anatomical...

    Correct

    • When describing the surface anatomy of the sacrum, which of the following anatomical landmarks refers to the base of an equilateral triangle is formed by the sacral hiatus?

      Your Answer: A line connecting the posterior superior iliac spines

      Explanation:

      The apex of an equilateral triangle completed by the posterior superior iliac spines is where the sacral hiatus or sacrococcygeal membrane can normally located. The failure of posterior fusion of the laminae of the fourth and fifth sacral vertebrae allows the sacral canal to be accessible via the membrane.

      In adults, the spine of L4 usually lies on a line drawn between the highest points of the iliac crests (Tuffier’s line). A line connecting each anterior iliac spine, approximates to the L3/4 interspace in the sitting position. Both of these options are incorrect.

      A line connecting the greater trochanters is also incorrect.

      A line connecting the posterior superior iliac spines is correct, but in adults the presence of a sacral fat pad can still make identification of this landmark less straightforward.

      The processes of S5 are remnants only and form the sacral cornua, which are also used to help identify the sacral hiatus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      27.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the following statements best describes adenosine receptors? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements best describes adenosine receptors?

      Your Answer: The A1 and A2 receptors are present centrally and peripherally

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Adenosine receptors are expressed on the surface of most cells.
      Four subtypes are known to exist which are A1, A2A, A2B and A3.

      Of these, the A1 and A2 receptors are present peripherally and centrally. There are agonists at the A1 receptors which are antinociceptive, which reduce the sensitivity to a painful stimuli for the individual. There are also agonists at the A2 receptors which are algogenic and activation of these results in pain.

      The role of adenosine and other A1 receptor agonists is currently under investigation for use in acute and chronic pain states.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Conclusive evidence suggests that rate for the prevalence of schizophrenia in United Kingdom...

    Correct

    • Conclusive evidence suggests that rate for the prevalence of schizophrenia in United Kingdom is around 1%.

      Which term can be used to describe that?

      Your Answer: Endemic

      Explanation:

      An epidemic is declared when the increase in a give disease is above a certain level in a specific interval of time.

      An endemic is the general, usual level of a disease in a population at a particular time.

      A pandemic is an epidemic that is spread across many countries and continents.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which of the following is a correct match for reflex and their root...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is a correct match for reflex and their root value?

      Your Answer: Knee reflex: L3/L4

      Explanation:

      Reflexes are a routine part of clinical examination. Hyperreflexia (abnormally brisk reflexes) is the sign of upper motor neuron damage whereas diminished or absent jerks are most commonly due to lower motor neuron lesions. Reflexes may be Monosynaptic (deep tendon reflexes) or polysynaptic (superficial reflexes)

      Here are deep tendon reflexes with their nerve root
      Biceps = C5, C6
      Supinator (Brachioradialis) = C5, C6
      Triceps = C6, C7
      Knee reflex = L3,L4
      Ankle reflex = S1

      Polysynaptic superficial reflexes with their nerve root are listed below
      Planter response = S1-2
      Abdominal reflexes = T8-12
      Cremasteric reflex = L1-2

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which of the following statements is true regarding vecuronium? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding vecuronium?

      Your Answer: Has a similar structure to rocuronium

      Explanation:

      Vecuronium is used as a part of general anaesthesia to provide skeletal muscle relaxation during surgery or mechanical ventilation. It is a monoquaternary aminosteroid (not quaternary) non- depolarising neuromuscular blocking drug.

      It has a structure similar to both rocuronium and pancuronium. The only difference is the substitution of specific groups on the steroid structure.

      Vecuronium is not associated with the release of norepinephrine from sympathetic nerve endings. However, Pancuronium has norepinephrine releasing the property.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which type of muscle contains the highest amount of mitochondria? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which type of muscle contains the highest amount of mitochondria?

      Your Answer: Type IIa skeletal muscle

      Correct Answer: Cardiac muscle

      Explanation:

      Among the types of muscles, cardiac muscles have the greatest number if mitochondria due to the heart energy requirements.

      Approximately 35% of the cardiac muscle volume is due to the mitochondria. While in skeletal and smooth muscles, it comprises 3-8% of the muscle volume.

      Type I muscle fibre has a slow contraction velocity, with a red fibre colour, and predominantly uses oxidative phosphorylation to produce a sustained contraction. It contains more mitochondria and myoglobin than type II, and is often used for endurance training.

      Type II muscle fibre has a fast contraction velocity, a white fibre colour, and predominantly uses anaerobic glycolysis. It has fewer mitochondria and myoglobin, and is often used for weight or resistance training and sprinting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      17.1
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - The following is true about the extracellular fluid (ECF) in a normal adult...

    Incorrect

    • The following is true about the extracellular fluid (ECF) in a normal adult woman weighing 60 kg.

      Your Answer: Is isotonic throughout the body

      Correct Answer: Has a total volume of about 12 litres

      Explanation:

      Total body water (TBW) is about 50% to 70% in adults depending on how much fat is present. ECF is relatively contracted in an obese person.

      The simple rule is 60-40-20. (60% of weight = total body water, 40% of body weight is ICF and 20% is ECF)

      For this woman, the total body water is 36 litres (0.6 × 60). ECF is 12 litres (1/3 of TBW) and 24 litres (2/3 of TBW) is intracellular fluid .

      Sodium concentration is approximately 135-145 mmol/L in the ECF.

      The ECF is made up of both intravascular and extravascular fluid and plasma proteins is found in both.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      31.1
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Substitution at different positions of the barbituric ring give rise to different pharmacologic...

    Correct

    • Substitution at different positions of the barbituric ring give rise to different pharmacologic properties.

      Substitution with and at which specific site of the ring affects lipid solubility the most?

      Your Answer: Sulphur atom at position 2

      Explanation:

      Barbiturates are derived from barbituric acid, which itself is nondepressant, but appropriate side-chain substitutions result in CNS depressant activity that varies in potency and duration with carbon chain length, branching, and saturation.

      Oxybarbiturates retain an oxygen atom on number 2-carbon atom of the barbituric acid ring.

      Thiobarbiturates replace this oxygen atom with a sulphur atom, which confers greater lipid solubility. Generally speaking, a substitution such as sulphuration that increases lipid solubility is associated with greater hypnotic potency and more rapid onset, but shorter duration of action.

      Addition of a methyl group to the nitrogen atom of the barbituric acid ring, as with oxybarbiturate methohexital, also results in a compound with a short duration of action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      29.6
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 65-year-old man got operated on for carotid endarterectomy for his carotid artery...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man got operated on for carotid endarterectomy for his carotid artery disease. He is recovering well post-surgery. However, on follow-up in the ward, he has hoarseness of his voice.

      Which of the following explains the hoarseness?

      Your Answer: Damage to the vagus

      Explanation:

      During carotid endarterectomy, injury to the vagus nerve or its branches can cause hoarseness. Injury to the vagus nerve can result in adductor vocal cord paralysis. It can also cause other symptoms like dysphagia or even vocal cord immobility.

      Carotid endarterectomy is the procedure to relieve an obstruction in the carotid artery by opening the artery at its origin and stripping off the atherosclerotic plaque with the intima. Because of the internal carotid artery relations, there is a risk of cranial nerve injury during the procedure involving one or more of the following nerves: CN IX, CN X (or its branch, the superior laryngeal nerve), CN XI, or CN XII.

      However, only damage to the vagus would account for speech difficulties.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      106
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - All of the following statements about pH electrode are incorrect except: ...

    Correct

    • All of the following statements about pH electrode are incorrect except:

      Your Answer: A semi-permeable membrane reduces protein contamination

      Explanation:

      Pulse oximeters combine the principles of oximetry and plethysmography to noninvasively measure oxygen saturation in arterial blood. A sensor containing two or three light emitting diodes and a photodiode is placed across a perfused body part, commonly a finger, to be transilluminated. Oximetry depends on oxyhaemoglobin and deoxyhaemoglobin, and their ability to absorb the beams of light produced by the light emitting diodes: red light at 660 nm and infrared light at 960 nm.

      The isosbestic point is the point wherein two different substances absorb light to the same extent. For oxyhaemoglobin and deoxyhaemoglobin, the points are at 590 nm and 805 nm. These are considered reference points where light absorption is independent of the degree of saturation.

      Non-constant absorption of light is often due to the presence of an arterial pulsation, whilst constant absorption of light is seen in non-pulsatile tissues.

      Most pulse oximeters are inaccurate at low SpO2, but is accurate at +/- 2% within the range of 70% to 100% SpO2. All pulse oximeters demonstrate a delay in between changes in SaO2 and SpO2, and display average readings every 10 to 20 seconds, hence they are unable to detect acute desaturation episodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      14.7
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - In a study lasting over a period of two years, in which the...

    Incorrect

    • In a study lasting over a period of two years, in which the mean age of 800 patients was 82 years, the efficacy of hip protectors in reducing femoral neck fractures was discussed.

      Both experimental and control group had 400 members. Instances of fractures reported over the two year time duration were 10 for the control group (that were prescribed hip protector) and 20 for the control group.

      What is the value of Absolute Risk Reduction?

      Your Answer: 0.5

      Correct Answer: 0.025

      Explanation:

      ARR= (Risk factor associated with the new drug group) — (Risk factor associated with the currently available drug)

      So,

      ARR= (10/400)-(20/400)

      ARR= 0.025-0.05

      ARR= 0.025 (Numerical Value)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      18.3
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which compound is secreted only from the adrenal medulla? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which compound is secreted only from the adrenal medulla?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adrenaline

      Explanation:

      The adrenal medulla comprises chromaffin cells (pheochromocytes), which are functionally equivalent to postganglionic sympathetic neurons. They synthesize, store and release the catecholamines noradrenaline (norepinephrine) and adrenaline (epinephrine) into the venous sinusoids.
      The majority of the chromaffin cells synthesize adrenaline.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 50-year-old female, known case of diabetes, has come in for a check-up...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old female, known case of diabetes, has come in for a check-up at the diabetic foot clinic. The pulses of her feet are examined. The posterior tibial pulse and dorsalis pedis pulses are palpated.
      Which of the following artery continues as the dorsalis pedis artery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anterior tibial artery

      Explanation:

      At the ankle joint, midway between the malleoli, the anterior tibial artery changes names, becoming the dorsalis pedis artery (dorsal artery of the foot).

      The dorsalis pedis artery is palpated against the underlying tarsals, immediately lateral to the tendon of extensor hallucis longus, from the midpoint between the malleoli to the proximal end of the first intermetatarsal space.

      The popliteal artery forms the anterior tibial artery.
      The tibioperoneal trunk is a branch of the popliteal artery.
      The peroneal artery (also known as the fibular artery) supplies the lateral compartment of the leg.
      The external iliac artery is formed from the common iliac artery at the level of the pelvis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - All of the following statements are false regarding propranolol except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statements are false regarding propranolol except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Has a plasma half life of 3-6 hours.

      Explanation:

      Propranolol is a nonselective beta-blocker with a half-life of 3 to 6 hours.

      Since it is lipid-soluble it crosses the blood-brain barrier and causes Central Nervous System side effects like sedation, nightmares, and depression.

      They are contraindicated in asthma, Congestive heart failure, and diabetes.

      It has a large volume of distribution with no intrinsic sympathomimetic action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - The thyroid gland: ...

    Incorrect

    • The thyroid gland:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Internalises iodine through active transport

      Explanation:

      The thyroid gland is a gland shaped like a butterfly which lies at the base of the anterior neck. It controls metabolism using hormone secretion.

      Iodine is extremely important for the synthesis of hormones within the thyroid. It is internalised into the thyroid follicular cells via the sodium/iodide symporter (NIS).

      The parathyroid glands are found posterior to the thyroid gland, with the recurrent laryngeal nerves running posteromedially.

      The expected weight of a normal thyroid gland is about 30 grams.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 30 - Which of the following statement is false regarding dopamine? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statement is false regarding dopamine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urine output decreases due to inhibition of proximal tubule Na+ reabsorption

      Explanation:

      Dopamine (DA) is a dopaminergic (D1 and D2) as well as adrenergic ? and?1 (but not ?2 ) agonist.

      The D1 receptors in renal and mesenteric blood vessels are the most sensitive: i.v. infusion of a low dose of Dopamine dilates these vessels (by raising intracellular cAMP). This increases g.f.r. In addition, DA exerts a natriuretic effect by D1 receptors on proximal tubular cells.

      Moderately high doses produce a positive inotropic (direct?1 and D1 action + that due to NA release), but the little chronotropic effect on the heart.

      Vasoconstriction (?1 action) occurs only when large doses are infused.

      At doses normally employed, it raises cardiac output and systolic BP with little effect on diastolic BP. It has practically no effect on nonvascular ? and ? receptors; does not penetrate the blood-brain barrier—no CNS effects.

      Dopamine is less arrhythmogenic than adrenaline

      Regarding dopamine part of the dose is converted to Noradrenaline in sympathetic nerve terminals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Pharmacology (6/7) 86%
Physiology (1/4) 25%
Anatomy (5/8) 63%
Statistical Methods (4/4) 100%
Pathophysiology (1/2) 50%
Passmed