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Question 1
Incorrect
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Lisa is a 75-year-old female rushed into the emergency department by first-aid responders. The ambulance team give a history of vomiting, homonymous hemianopia, weakness of the left upper and lower limb, and dysphasia. Lisa adds that she has a headache that keeps worsening.
Lisa takes Warfarin as she is a known case of atrial fibrillation. Her INR is 4.3 despite the ideal target being 2-3.
CT scan of the head suggests anterior cerebral artery haemorrhage.
What areas of the brain are affected by an anterior cerebral artery stroke?Your Answer: Parietal and temporal lobes
Correct Answer: Frontal and parietal lobes
Explanation:The anterior cerebral artery supplies the midline portion of the frontal lobe and the superior medial parietal lobe of the brain. It also supplies the front four-fifths of the corpus callosum and provides blood to deep structures such as the anterior limb of the internal capsule, part of the caudate nucleus, and the anterior part of the globus pallidus.
The cerebral hemispheres are supplied by arteries that make up the Circle of Willis. The Circle of Willis is formed by the anastomosis of the two internal carotid arteries and two vertebral arteries.
Clinically, the internal carotid arteries and their branches are often referred to as the anterior circulation of the brain. The anterior cerebral arteries are connected by the anterior communicating artery. Near their termination, the internal carotid arteries are joined to the posterior cerebral arteries by the posterior communicating arteries, completing the cerebral arterial circle around the interpeduncular fossa, the deep depression on the inferior surface of the midbrain between the cerebral peduncles.
The middle cerebral artery supplies part of the frontal, temporal and parietal lobes.
The posterior cerebral artery supplies the occipital lobe.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 2
Correct
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When an inotrope is given to the body, it has the following effects on the cardiovascular system:
The automaticity of the sino-atrial node increases
Lusitropy is accelerated
Dromotropy is increased
Chronotropy is increased
Inotropy increases
There is increased excitability of the conducting system
The most probably mechanism of action of this compound is?Your Answer: Increase in intracellular calcium influenced by a conformational change of a Gs protein
Explanation:A beta-1 adrenoreceptor agonist is most likely the ligand that causes increased automaticity, increased chronotropy, increased excitability, and increased inotropy on the sino-atrial node. However, alpha-1 adrenoreceptor effects may cause an increase in systemic vascular resistance. Noradrenaline, adrenaline, dopamine, and ephedrine are examples of drugs with mixed alpha and beta effects.
Adrenaline, noradrenaline, dopamine, dopexamine, dobutamine, ephedrine, and isoprenaline are examples of drugs that have some beta-1 activity. The beta-1 receptor is a G protein-coupled metabotropic receptor. When the beta-1 agonist binds to the cell surface membrane, it causes a conformational change in the Gs unit, which triggers a cAMP-dependent pathway and a calcium influx into the cell.
Catecholamines also help to relax the heart muscle (positive lusitropy). Dromotropy is the ability to increase the atrioventricular (AV) node’s conduction velocity.
Inodilators cause an increase in intracellular calcium as a result of phosphodiesterase III (PDIII) inhibition. Milrinone, enoximone, and amrinone are some examples. Positive inotropy is caused by increased calcium entry into the myocytes. Lusitropy is also increased by phosphodiesterase inhibitors. Increased cAMP inhibits myosin light chain kinase, resulting in reduced phosphorylation of vascular smooth muscle myosin, lowering systemic and pulmonary vascular resistance.
The mechanism of action of alpha-1 adrenoreceptor agonists is an increase in intracellular calcium caused by an increase in inositol triphosphate (IP3). IP3 is a second messenger that causes an increase in systemic vascular resistance by stimulating the influx of Ca2+ into smooth muscle cells. Reflex bradycardia can occur as a result of the subsequent increase in blood pressure. Phenylephrine and metaraminol are examples of pure alpha-1 agonists.
Levosimendin is a novel inotrope that makes myocytes more sensitive to intracellular Ca2+. It causes a positive inotropy without changing heart rate or oxygen consumption significantly.
The Na-K-ATPase membrane pump in the myocardium is inhibited by digoxin. This inhibition promotes sodium-calcium exchange, resulting in an increase in intracellular Ca2+ and increased contraction force. The parasympathetic effects of digoxin on the AV node result in bradycardia. Systemic vascular resistance will not be affected by it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 3
Correct
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The SI unit of measurement is kgm2s-2 in the System international d'unités (SI).
Which of the following derived units of measurement has this format?Your Answer: Energy
Explanation:The derived SI unit of force is Newton.
F = m·a (where a is acceleration)
F = 1 kg·m/s2The joule (J) is a converted unit of energy, work, or heat. When a force of one newton (N) is applied over a distance of one metre (Nm), the following amount of energy is expended:
J = 1 kg·m/s2·m =
J = 1 kg·m2/s2 or 1 kg·m2·s-2The unit of velocity is metres per second (m/s or ms-1).
The watt (W), or number of joules expended per second, is the SI unit of power:
J/s = kg·m2·s-2/s
J/s = kg·m2·s-3Pressure is measured in pascal (Pa) and is defined as force (N) per unit area (m2):
Pa = kg·m·s-2/m2
Pa = kg·m-1·s-2 -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 4
Correct
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All of the following are causes of hypalbuminaemia except:
Your Answer: Starvation
Explanation:Major surgery induces the systemic inflammatory response and this causes endothelial leakage and a low albumin level.
Albumin is a single polypeptide which is made but not stored in the liver. Therefore, levels are a reflection of synthetic activity. It is negatively charged and very soluble.
Only 40% of albumin is intravascular, and the rest in the in interstitial compartment.
If there was normal liver function during starvation, albumin will be maintained and proteolysis will occur elsewhere.
It is not catabolised during starvation.
Starvation and malnutrition may, however, present as part of other disease processes that are associated with hypalbuminaemia.Causes of low albumin are
1. Decreased production (hepatic dysfunction)
2. Increased loss (renal dysfunction)
3. Redistribution (endothelial leak/damage)
4. Increased catabolism (very rare) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 5
Correct
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When nitrous oxide is stored in cylinders at room temperature, it is a gas.
Which of its property is responsible for this?
Your Answer: Critical temperature
Explanation:The temperature above which a gas cannot be liquefied no matter how much pressure is applied is its critical temperature. The critical temperature of nitrous oxide is 36.5°C
The minimum pressure that causes liquefaction is the critical pressure of that gas.
The Poynting effect refers to the phenomenon where mixing of liquid nitrous oxide at low pressure with oxygen at high pressure (in Entonox) leads to formation of gas of nitrous oxide.
There is no relevance of molecular weight to this question. it does not change with phase of a substance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 6
Correct
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A surgeon infiltrates the tissue layers with local anaesthetic (bupivacaine 0.125%) with 1 in 120,000 adrenaline in a patient weighing 50 kg as part of an enhanced recovery programme for primary hip replacement surgery.
What is the maximum volume of local anaesthetic that is permissible in this patient?Your Answer: 100 mL
Explanation:The maximum safe amount of bupivacaine is 2mg/kg. Addition of adrenaline slows down absorption of the local anaesthetic and allows a maximum dose of 2.5mg/kg to be used.
The maximum safe dose of bupivacaine for this patient is 125 mg.
A 0.125% solution will contain 0.125g/100mL or 125mg/100 mL.
The maximum volume of local anaesthetic is approximately 80-100 mL.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 19-year-old woman presents to the emergency department. She complains of symptoms indicative of an acute exacerbation of known 'brittle' asthma. On history, she reveals her asthma is normally controlled using inhalers and she has never had an acute exacerbation requiring hospitalisation.
On her admission into the ICU, further examination and diagnostic investigations are conducted. Her readings are:
Physical state: Alert, anxious and non-cyanotic.
Respiratory rate: 30 breaths/min
Pulse: 120 beats/min
Blood pressure: 150/90 mmHg
SPO2: 95% on air
Auscultation: Quiet breath sounds at both lung bases
What is the next most important step of investigation?Your Answer: Peak expiratory flow rate
Explanation:Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) is the maximum speed of air flow generated during a single forced exhaled breath. It is most useful when expressed as a percentage of the best value obtained from the patient.
Forced expiratory volume over 1 second (FEV1) is a lung parameter measured using spirometry. It is the amount of air forced out of the lung in one exhaled breath. It is a more accurate measure of lung obstructions as it doesn’t rely on effort like PEFR
PEFR and FEV1 are usually similar, but become more different in asthmatic patients as airflow becomes increasingly obstructed.
Acute severe asthma is most often diagnosed on history taking and examinations:
Respiratory rate: >25 breaths/min
Heart rate: >110 beats/min
PEFR: 33 – 50% predicted (<200L/min)
Patient state: Unable to complete a sentence in a single breath.A chest x-ray is not routinely required, and is only indicated in specific circumstances, which are:
If a pneumomediastinum or pneumothorax is suspected
Possible life threatening asthma
Possible consolidation
Unresponsive asthma
If ventilation is required.An echocardiograph (ECG) is not necessary in this case
Routine haematological and biochemical investigations are not urgent in this case as any abnormalities they detect will be secondary to the patient’s presentation.
An arterial blood gas (ABG) will only be indicated if SPO2 was <92% or if patient presented with life threatening symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old female, known case of diabetes, has come in for a check-up at the diabetic foot clinic. The pulses of her feet are examined. The posterior tibial pulse and dorsalis pedis pulses are palpated.
Which of the following artery continues as the dorsalis pedis artery?Your Answer: Popliteal artery
Correct Answer: Anterior tibial artery
Explanation:At the ankle joint, midway between the malleoli, the anterior tibial artery changes names, becoming the dorsalis pedis artery (dorsal artery of the foot).
The dorsalis pedis artery is palpated against the underlying tarsals, immediately lateral to the tendon of extensor hallucis longus, from the midpoint between the malleoli to the proximal end of the first intermetatarsal space.
The popliteal artery forms the anterior tibial artery.
The tibioperoneal trunk is a branch of the popliteal artery.
The peroneal artery (also known as the fibular artery) supplies the lateral compartment of the leg.
The external iliac artery is formed from the common iliac artery at the level of the pelvis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 9
Correct
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How data is collected for the Delphi survey technique?
Your Answer: Questionnaires
Explanation:The Delphi is a group facilitation technique that seeks to obtain consensus on the opinions of `experts’ through a series of structured questionnaires (commonly referred to as rounds). By using successive questionnaires, opinions are considered in a non-adversarial manner, with the current status of the groups’ collective opinion being repeatedly fed back. Studies employing the Delphi make use of individuals who have knowledge of the topic being investigated
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is correct about a characteristic that is normally distributed in a population?
Your Answer: Ten percent of individuals will be beyond two standard deviations from the mean
Correct Answer: There will be approximately equal numbers who have more or less of the characteristic than the mean
Explanation:68% of the population will be found in one standard deviation (SD) above plus one SD below the mean. Two SDs above plus two SDs below the mean will include 95% of the population.
The median can be greater or less than the mean as it is simply the mid point of the data after the data is arranged. Half the data are above and half below the median .
The mode is a true score, unlike the mean or the median. It is the most common score or the score obtained from the largest number of subjects in any given data.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 11
Correct
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While administering a general anaesthetic to a 65-year-old man booked for a hip hemiarthroplasty, with a weight 70 kg, and an ASA 1 score, you give 1 g of paracetamol IV but notice that he had received the same dose on the ward one hour prior.
What is the most appropriate subsequent management of this patient?Your Answer: Do nothing and give the next doses of paracetamol at standard 6 hour intervals
Explanation:After ingestion of more than 150 mg/kg paracetamol within 24 hours, hepatotoxicity can occur but can also develop rarely after ingestion of doses as low as 75 mg/kg within 24 hours. Hepatocellular damage will not occur in this patient and therefore no need to engage management pathway for paracetamol overdose. If his weight was <33 kg or he already had a history of impaired liver function, then the management would bde different. Subsequent post-operative doses will be a standard dose of 1 g 6 hourly. This is a drug administration error and should be reported as an incident even though the patient will not be harmed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 12
Correct
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Which of the following statements is true regarding oxygen?
Your Answer: Forms molecules containing either two or three atoms
Explanation:Oxygen is formed by a molecule of oxygen and two molecules of hydrogen with a molecular formula of H2O
The critical temperature is defined as a temperature above which the substance cannot be liquefied, no matter how much pressure is applied.
Water has a critical temperature of -118.6oC. So, it cannot be liquified at room temperature.Medical oxygen cylinder is stored in a cylinder with a white shoulder and black body. Meanwhile, medial air is stored in cylinders with a white and black shoulder and a French grey body.
The partial pressure of air at a high altitude is less but the relative concentration remains constant.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Physics
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Question 13
Correct
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A 26-year old male patient was admitted to the surgery department for appendectomy. Medical history revealed that he has major depressive disorder and was on Phenelzine. Aside from abdominal pain, initial assessment was unremarkable. However, thirty minutes after, the patient was referred to you for generalized seizures. He was given an analgesic and it was noted that, during the first 15 minutes of administration, he became anxious, with profuse sweating, which later developed into seizures. Upon physical examination, he was febrile at 38.3°C.
Which of the following statements is the best explanation for the patient's symptoms?Your Answer: Drug interaction with pethidine
Explanation:The clinical picture best describes a probable drug interaction with pethidine.
Phenelzine, a monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitor, when given with pethidine, an opioid analgesic, may lead to episodes of hypertension, rigidity, excitation, hyperpyrexia, seizures, coma and death. Studies have shown that pethidine reacts more significantly with MAO inhibitors than morphine.
When pethidine is metabolised to normeperidine, it acts as a serotonin reuptake inhibitor and cause an increase in serotonin levels in the brain. MAO inhibitors can also lead to elevated levels of serotonin because of its mechanism of action by inhibiting the enzyme monoamine oxidase that degrades serotonin.
The excess serotonin levels may lead to serotonin syndrome, of which some of the common precipitating drugs are selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, MAO inhibitors, tricyclic antidepressants, meperidine, and St. John’s Wort. Onset of symptoms is within hours, which includes fever, agitation, tremor, clonus, hyperreflexia and diaphoresis.
Drug interaction between phenelzine and paracetamol do not commonly precipitate serotonin syndrome.
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is due to dopamine antagonism, precipitated commonly by antipsychotics. Its onset of symptoms occur in 1 to 3 days, and is characterized by fever, encephalopathy, unstable vitals signs, elevated CPK, and rigidity.
Altered mental status is the most common manifestation of sepsis-associated encephalopathy. Patient also exhibit confusional states and inappropriate behaviour. In some cases, this may lead to coma and death.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 14
Correct
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Which of these statements regarding the basilar artery and its branches is not true?
Your Answer: The posterior inferior cerebellar artery is the largest of the cerebellar arteries arising from the basilar artery
Explanation:The posterior inferior cerebellar artery is the largest branch arising from the distal portion of the vertebral artery which forms the basilar artery. It is one of the arteries responsible for providing blood supply to the brain’s cerebellum.
The labyrinthine artery (auditory artery) is a long and slender artery which arises from the basilar artery and runs alongside the facial and vestibulocochlear nerves into the internal auditory meatus.
The posterior cerebellar artery is one of two cerebral arteries supplying the occipital lobe with oxygenated blood. It is usually bigger than the superior cerebellar artery. It is separated from the vessel near its origin by the oculomotor nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Regarding the plateau phase of the cardiac potential, which electrolyte is the main determinant?
Your Answer: K-
Correct Answer: Ca2+
Explanation:The cardiac action potential has several phases which have different mechanisms of action as seen below:
Phase 0: Rapid depolarisation – caused by a rapid sodium influx.
These channels automatically deactivate after a few msPhase 1: caused by early repolarisation and an efflux of potassium.
Phase 2: Plateau – caused by a slow influx of calcium.
Phase 3 – Final repolarisation – caused by an efflux of potassium.
Phase 4 – Restoration of ionic concentrations – The resting potential is restored by Na+/K+ATPase.
There is slow entry of Na+into the cell which decreases the potential difference until the threshold potential is reached. This then triggers a new action potentialOf note, cardiac muscle remains contracted 10-15 times longer than skeletal muscle.
Different sites have different conduction velocities:
1. Atrial conduction – Spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibres at 1 m/sec2. AV node conduction – 0.05 m/sec
3. Ventricular conduction – Purkinje fibres are of large diameter and achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec, the fastest conduction in the heart. This allows a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 16
Correct
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The fluids with the highest osmolarity is?
Your Answer: 0.45% N. Saline with 5% glucose
Explanation:The concentration of solute particles per litre (mosm/L) = the osmolarity of a solution. Changes in water content, ambient temperature, and pressure affects osmolarity. The osmolarity of any solution can be calculated by adding the concentration of key solutes in it.
Individual manufacturers of crystalloids and colloids may have different absolute values but they are similar to these.
0.45% N. Saline with 5% glucose:
Tonicity – hypertonic
Osmolarity – 405 mosm/L
Kilocalories (kCal) – 1070.9% N. Saline:
Tonicity – isotonic
Osmolarity – 308 mosm/L
Kilocalories (kCal) – 05% Dextrose:
Tonicity – isotonic
Osmolarity – 253 mosm/L
Kilocalories (kCal) – 170Gelofusine (154 mmol/L Na, 120 mmol/L Cl):
Tonicity – isotonic
Osmolarity – 274 mosm/L
Kilocalories (kCal) – 0Hartmann’s solution:
Tonicity – isotonic
Osmolarity – 273 mosm/L
Kilocalories (kCal) – 9 -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 17
Correct
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Heights of 100 individuals(adults) who were administered steroids at any stage during childhood was studied. The mean height was found to be 169cm with the data having a standard deviation of 16cm. What will be the standard error associated with the mean?
Your Answer: 1.6
Explanation:Standard error can be calculated by the following formula:
Standard Error= (Standard Deviation)/√(Sample Size)
= (16) / √(100)
= 16 / 10
= 1.6 -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 18
Incorrect
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An inguinal hernia repair under general anaesthesia is scheduled for a fit 36-year-old man (75 kg). For perioperative and postoperative analgesia, you decide to perform an inguinal field block.
Which of the following local anaesthetic solutions is the most appropriate?Your Answer: 60 mL bupivacaine 0.25%
Correct Answer: 30 mL bupivacaine 0.5%
Explanation:Perioperative and postoperative analgesia can both be provided by an inguinal hernia field block. The Iliohypogastric and ilioinguinal nerves, as well as the skin, superficial fascia, and deeper structures, must be blocked for maximum effectiveness. The local anaesthetic should ideally have a long duration of action, be highly concentrated, and have a volume of at least 30 mL.
Plain bupivacaine has a maximum safe dose of 2 mg/kg body weight.
Because the patient weighs 75 kg, 150 mg bupivacaine can be safely administered. Both 30 mL 0.5 percent bupivacaine (150 mg) and 60 mL 0.25 percent bupivacaine (150 mg) are acceptable doses, but 30 mL 0.5 percent bupivacaine represents the optimal volume and strength, potentially providing a denser and longer block.
The maximum safe dose of plain lidocaine has been estimated to be between 3.5 and 5 mg/kg. The patient weighs 75 kg and can receive a maximum of 375 mg using the higher dosage regimen:
There are 200 mg of lidocaine in 10 mL of 2% lidocaine (and therefore 11 mL contains 220 mg)
200 mg of lidocaine is contained in 20 mL of 1% lidocaine.While alternatives are available, Although the doses of 11 mL lidocaine 2% and 20 mL lidocaine 1% are well within the dose limit, the volumes used are insufficient for effective field block for this surgery.
With 1 in 200,000 epinephrine, the maximum safe dose of lidocaine is 7 mg/kg. The patient can be given 525 mg in this case. Even with epinephrine, 60 mL of 1% lidocaine is 600 mg, which could be considered an overdose.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 19
Correct
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Which vessel is the first to branch from the external carotid artery?
Your Answer: Superior thyroid artery
Explanation:The superior thyroid artery is the first branch of the external carotid artery. The other branches of the external carotid artery are:
1. Superior thyroid artery
2. Ascending pharyngeal artery
3. Lingual artery
4. Facial artery
5. Occipital artery
6. Posterior auricular artery
7. Maxillary artery
8. Superficial temporal arteryThe inferior thyroid artery is derived from the thyrocervical trunk.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 20
Correct
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A 76-year-old female, presents to her GP. She complains of fatigue and increased shortness of breath. On examination, she is noted to have pallor, an increased respiratory and heart rate. Her GP requests further diagnostic investigations, including a full blood count (FBC) which finds decreased MCV and MCHC.
What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?Your Answer: Iron deficiency
Explanation:The patient’s diagnosis is microcytic hypochromic anaemia which is often as a result of iron deficiency and thalassaemia.
Macrocytic anaemia is often caused by folate and B12 deficiencies and alcohol abuse.
Normocytic normochromic anaemia is often caused by acute blood loss, haemolytic anaemia, anaemia of chronic disease and leucoerythroblastic anaemias.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old woman with a medical history of ischaemic heart disease, hypertension, and hypothyroidism was brought to ER with a change in her mental state over the past few hours. Medications used by her were hydrochlorothiazide, aspirin, ramipril, and levothyroxine.
On physical examination, decreased skin turgor, orthostatic hypotension, and disorientation of time and place were found. There were no significant neurological signs.
Initial biochemical tests are as follows:
Na: 111 mmol/L (135-145)
K: 4.1 mmol/L (3.5-5.1)
Cl: 105 mmol/L (99-101)
Bic: 29 mmol/L (22-29)
Urea: 16.4 mmol/L (1.7-8.3)
Creatinine: 320µmol/L (44-80)
Glucose: 13.5mmol/L (3.5-5.5)
Plasma osmolality: 278mOsm/kg
Urinary osmolality: 450mOsm/kg
TSH: 6.2 miu/L (0.1-6.0)
Free T4: 10.1 pmol/L (10-25)
Free T3: 1.4nm/L (1.0-2.5)
Which of the following is most likely cause for this condition of the patient?Your Answer: Hypothyroidism
Correct Answer: Drug idiosyncrasy
Explanation:Based on the laboratory reports, the patient is suffering from significant hyponatremia. The symptoms of hyponatremia are mainly neurological and depend on the severity and rapidity of onset of hyponatremia.
Patient symptom according to the hyponatremia level is correlated below:
125 – 130mmol/L – Nausea and malaise
115 – 125mmol/L – Headache, lethargy, seizures, and coma
<120mmol/L - Up to 11% present with coma. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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The following statements are about the cervical plexus. Which one is true?
Your Answer: Is formed by the anterior primary rami of C2 - C5
Correct Answer: Recurrent laryngeal nerve block is a complication of a cervical plexus block
Explanation:The cervical plexus is a complex network of nerves within the head and neck region, providing nerve innervation to regions within the head, neck and trunk.
It is comprised of nerves arising from the anterior primary rami of the C1-C4 nerve roots.
The cervical plexus gives off superficial and deep branches. The superficial branches penetrate through the deep fascia at the centre point of the posterior border of the sternocleidomastoid. It provides sensory innervation from the lower border of the mandible to the 2nd rib. The deep branches provide motor innervation to the neck and diaphragmatic muscles.
Cervical plexus block is surgically relevant as it is used to provide regional anaesthesia for procedures in the neck region. The anaesthesia should be injected into the centre point of the posterior border of the sternocleidomastoid. Complications arise when anaesthesia is instead injected into the wrong point, including into the vertebral artery, subarachnoid and epidural spaces, blockade of phrenic and recurrent laryngeal nerves, and the cervical sympathetic plexus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A study was concerned with finding out the normal reference range of IgE levels in adults was conducted. Presuming that the curve follows a normal distribution, what is the percentage of individuals having IgE levels greater than 2 standard deviations from mean?
Your Answer: 5.00%
Correct Answer: 2.30%
Explanation:Since the data is normally distributed, 95.4% of the values lie with in 2 standard deviations from mean. The rest of the 4.6% are distributed symmetrically outside of that range which means 2.3% of the values lie above 2 standard deviations of the mean.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 24
Correct
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A 30-year old lady has a sub total thyroidectomy. On the 5th post-operative day, the wound becomes erythematous and there is a purulent discharge. The most likely organism causing this is:
Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:Staphylococcus aureus infection is the most likely cause.
Surgical site infections (SSI) occur when there is a breach in tissue surfaces and allow normal commensals and other pathogens to initiate infection. They are a major cause of morbidity and mortality.
SSI comprise up to 20% of healthcare associated infections and approximately 5% of patients undergoing surgery will develop an SSI as a result.
The organisms are usually derived from the patient’s own body.Measures that may increase the risk of SSI include:
-Shaving the wound using a single use electrical razor with a disposable head
-Using a non iodine impregnated surgical drape if one is needed
-Tissue hypoxia
-Delayed prophylactic antibiotics administration in tourniquet surgery, patients with a prosthesis or valve, in clean-contaminated surgery of in contaminated surgery.Measures that may decrease the risk of SSI include:
1. Intraoperatively
– Prepare the skin with alcoholic chlorhexidine (Lowest incidence of SSI)
-Cover surgical site with dressingIn contrast to previous individual RCT’s, a recent meta analysis has confirmed that administration of supplementary oxygen does not reduce the risk of wound infection and wound edge protectors do not appear to confer benefit.
2. Post operatively
Tissue viability advice for management of surgical wounds healing by secondary intentionUse of diathermy for skin incisions
In the NICE guidelines the use of diathermy for skin incisions is not advocated. Several randomised controlled trials have been undertaken and demonstrated no increase in risk of SSI when diathermy is used. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 25
Correct
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Which of the following is correct regarding nitric oxide?
Your Answer: Is produced by both inducible and constitutive forms of nitric oxide synthetase
Explanation:Nitric oxide is generated from L-arginine by nitric oxide synthase. It is produced in response to haemodynamic stress by the vascular endothelium, and it produces both smooth muscle relaxation and reduced vascular resistance.
Nitric oxide may be inactivated through interaction with other oxygen free radicals, (e.g. oxidised low-density lipoprotein (LDL)).
Nitric oxide causes the production of the second messenger, cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 26
Correct
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A radical neck dissection is being performed. The ENT surgeon wishes to expose the external carotid artery fully. He inserts a self-retaining retractor close to the origin of the external carotid artery.
What structure lies posterolaterally to the external carotid at this point?Your Answer: Internal carotid artery
Explanation:External carotid artery originates at the upper border of the thyroid cartilage. It ascends and lies anterior to the internal carotid arteries and posterior to the posterior belly of the digastric muscle and stylohyoid muscle.
The external carotid artery has eight important branches:
Anterior surface:
1. Superior thyroid artery (first branch)
2. Lingual artery
3. Facial artery
Medial branch
4. Ascending pharyngeal artery
Posterior branches
5. Occipital artery
6. Posterior auricular artery
Terminal branches
7. Maxillary artery
8. Superficial temporal artery -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old male presents to GP presenting an area of erythema which was around a recent cut on his right forearm. He was prescribed a short course of antibiotics and after 5 days again presented with progressive fatigue, headaches, and fevers.
On clinical examination:
Oxygen saturation: 98% on room air
Respiratory rate: 22 per minute
Heart rate: 100 beats per minute
Blood pressure: 105/76 mmHg
Temperature: 38.2 degree Celsius
On physical examination, a dramatic increase in the area of erythema was noted.
Blood culture was done in the patient and indicated the presence of bacterium containing beta-lactamase. Which of the following antibiotics was likely prescribed to the patient?Your Answer: Minocycline
Correct Answer: Amoxicillin
Explanation:Ciprofloxacin belongs to the quinolone group of antibiotics, and doxycycline and minocycline are tetracyclines. So, they are not affected by beta-lactamase.
However, amoxicillin is a beta-lactam antibiotic and beta-lactamase cleaves the beta-lactam ring present in amoxicillin. This results in the breakdown of the antibiotic and thus the area of erythema dramatically increased.
Co-amoxiclav contains amoxicillin and clavulanic acid which protects amoxicillin from beta-lactamase. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Regarding the Manley MP3 ventilator, which statement is true?
Your Answer: Has three sets of bellows
Correct Answer: Is a minute volume divider
Explanation:It’s a minute volume divider – True
The Manley MP3 ventilator is classed as a minute volume divider. The entire fresh gas flow or minute volume is delivered to the patient, having been divided into readily set tidal volumes.Can efficiently ventilate patients with poor pulmonary compliance – False
Ventilating patients with poor pulmonary compliance is not easily achieved, which makes it an unsuitable ventilator for a modern ICU.Can generate tidal volume up to 1500ml – False
It can generate tidal volumes up to 1000 ml (not 1500 ml), and the inflation pressure can be adjusted by sliding a weight along a rail.Functions like a Mapleson A system during spontaneous ventilation – False
The ventilator functions like a Mapleson D breathing system (not Mapleson A) during spontaneous ventilation.Has three sets of bellows – False
The fresh gas flow drives the ventilator which allows rapid detection of gas supply failure. It has two sets of bellows (not three) and three unidirectional valves. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 27-year old man loses 1000ml blood after being stabbed on his thigh.
The most impactful physiological response occurring at the start to combat the decline in the intravascular blood volume of this man is?Your Answer: Sodium and water retention
Correct Answer: Venoconstriction
Explanation:In contrast to the arterial system, which contains 15% of the circulating blood volume, the body’s veins contain 70% of it.
In severe haemorrhage, when sympathetic stimulation causes venoconstriction, venous tone is important in maintaining the return of blood to the heart.
Because the liver receives about 30% of the resting cardiac output, it is a very vascular organ. The hepatic vascular system is dynamic, which means it can store and release blood in large amounts – it acts as a reservoir within the general circulation.
In a normal situation, the liver contains 10-15% of total blood volume, with the sinusoids accounting for roughly 60% of that. The liver dynamically adjusts its blood volume when blood is lost and can eject enough blood to compensate for a moderate amount of haemorrhage.
In the portal venous and hepatic arterial systems, sympathetic nerves constrict the presinusoidal resistance vessels. More importantly, sympathetic stimulation lowers the portal system’s capacitance, allowing blood to flow more efficiently to the heart.
Net transcapillary absorption of interstitial fluid from skeletal muscle into the intravascular space compensates for blood loss effectively during haemorrhage. The decrease in capillary hydrostatic pressure (Pc), caused by reflex adrenergic readjustment of the ratio of pre- to postcapillary resistance, is primarily responsible for fluid absorption. Within a few hours of blood loss, these fluid shifts become significant, further diluting haemoglobin and plasma proteins.
Albumin synthesis begins to increase after 48 hours.
The juxtamedullary complex releases renin in response to a drop in mean arterial pressure, which causes an increase in aldosterone level and, eventually, sodium and water resorption. Increased antidiuretic hormone (ADH) levels also contribute to water retention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old male presented to an outpatient clinic with a complaint of a lump in his groin. Physical examination reveals the lumps increase in size while coughing and reduces in size after lying down flat. Based on his age and examination, a diagnosis of direct inguinal hernia was made.
Which structures does the bowel pass through in order to be classed as direct inguinal hernia?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hesselbach's triangle
Explanation:A hernia is a protrusion of the abdominal viscera through a defect in the abdominal wall. Inguinal hernias are of two types; Indirect inguinal hernia and Direct inguinal hernia.
– Indirect inguinal hernia is common at young age commonly due to a patent processes vaginalis and bowel passes through the deep inguinal ring lateral to the inferior epigastric artery.
– Direct hernia forms as a result of the weakening of the posterior wall of the inguinal canal more specifically within a region called ‘Hasselbach triangle. It is defined medially by the rectus abdominis muscle, laterally by the epigastric vessels, and inferiorly by the inguinal ligament.Direct and indirect hernias can be differentiated based on their relation to the inferior epigastric artery. Direct inguinal hernia lies medial to it while indirect inguinal hernia lies lateral to the inferior epigastric artery.
The femoral ring is the site of the femoral hernia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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