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  • Question 1 - Which of the following describes the mechanism of action of erythromycin? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following describes the mechanism of action of erythromycin?

      Your Answer: Inhibit 50S subunit of ribosomes

      Explanation:

      Erythromycin binds to the 50s subunit of bacterial rRNA complex and inhibits protein synthesis.

      Gentamicin is a broad-spectrum antibiotic whose mechanism of action involves inhibition of protein synthesis by binding to 30s ribosomes. Its major adverse effect is nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity

      Aminoglycoside bind to 30s subunit of ribosome causing misreading of mRNA

      Tetracyclines inhibit protein synthesis through reversible binding to bacterial 30s ribosomal subunits, which prevent binding of new incoming amino acids (aminoacyl-tRNA) and thus interfere with peptide growth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Regarding management of chronic pain, which of the following describes the mode of...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding management of chronic pain, which of the following describes the mode of action of gabapentin?

      Your Answer: Binding to GABAB receptors

      Correct Answer: Modulation of voltage dependent calcium channels and NMDA receptor transmission

      Explanation:

      Gabapentin is an amino acid-like molecules that was originally synthesized as an analogue of GABA but is now known not to act through GABA mechanisms. It is used in the treatment of focal seizures and various nonepilepsy indications, such as neuropathic pain, restless legs syndrome, and anxiety disorders.

      Despite its close structural resemblance to GABA, gabapentin does not act through effects on GABA receptors or any other mechanism related to GABA-mediated neurotransmission. Rather gabapentin binds avidly to ?2?, a protein that serves as an auxiliary subunit of voltage-gated calcium channels. Moreover, it binds to NMDA receptor to modulate its transmission.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      26.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following statements is true regarding ketamine? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding ketamine?

      Your Answer: It is contraindicated for epidural administration

      Correct Answer: Can be used in the management of refractory status epilepticus

      Explanation:

      Ketamine is a phencyclidine (hallucinogenic) derivative that is administered in a dose of 2 mg/kg and acts by blocking NMDA (N-methyl-D-aspartate) receptors of glutamate.

      It is a powerful bronchodilator agent and is, therefore, an intravenous anaesthetic of choice in bronchial asthma (halothane is an inhalational anaesthetic agent of choice for bronchial asthma). It is also used in the management of refractory status epilepticus.

      It is an acid solution with an elimination half-life of three hours.

      It has S (+) enantiomer and R (-) enantiomer. the S(+) enantiomer is two to four times more potent than the R(-) and is less likely to produce hallucinations.

      Its use is contraindicated in patients with ischaemic heart disease because it increased sympathetic outflow leading to tachycardia and increased cardiac output which in turn increases the myocardial oxygen demand.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      118.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Drug toxicity when using bupivacaine is most likely to occur when this local...

    Incorrect

    • Drug toxicity when using bupivacaine is most likely to occur when this local anaesthetic technique is performed.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intercostal nerve block

      Explanation:

      An intercostal nerve block is used for therapeutic and diagnostic purposes. Intercostal nerve blocks manage acute and chronic pain in the chest area. Common indications are chest wall surgery and shingles or postherpetic neuralgia.

      An intercostal nerve block is also an effective option for the management of pain associated with chest trauma and rib fractures. These blocks have been shown to improve oxygenation and respiratory mechanics, and offer pain relief that is comparable to that of epidural analgesia.

      This technique, however, is limited by the relatively large doses of local anaesthetic required, and relatively high intravascular uptake from the intercostal space, increasing risk of local anaesthetic toxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following statement is false regarding dopamine? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statement is false regarding dopamine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urine output decreases due to inhibition of proximal tubule Na+ reabsorption

      Explanation:

      Dopamine (DA) is a dopaminergic (D1 and D2) as well as adrenergic ? and?1 (but not ?2 ) agonist.

      The D1 receptors in renal and mesenteric blood vessels are the most sensitive: i.v. infusion of a low dose of Dopamine dilates these vessels (by raising intracellular cAMP). This increases g.f.r. In addition, DA exerts a natriuretic effect by D1 receptors on proximal tubular cells.

      Moderately high doses produce a positive inotropic (direct?1 and D1 action + that due to NA release), but the little chronotropic effect on the heart.

      Vasoconstriction (?1 action) occurs only when large doses are infused.

      At doses normally employed, it raises cardiac output and systolic BP with little effect on diastolic BP. It has practically no effect on nonvascular ? and ? receptors; does not penetrate the blood-brain barrier—no CNS effects.

      Dopamine is less arrhythmogenic than adrenaline

      Regarding dopamine part of the dose is converted to Noradrenaline in sympathetic nerve terminals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following correctly explains the mechanism of sevoflurane preconditioning? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following correctly explains the mechanism of sevoflurane preconditioning?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Opening of mitochondrial KATP channels

      Explanation:

      Sevoflurane is highly fluorinated methyl isopropyl ether widely used as an inhalational anaesthetic. It is suggested that sevoflurane preconditioning occurs via the opening of mitochondrial Potassium ATP dependent channel similar to that of Ischemic Preconditioning protection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 26-year old male patient was admitted to the surgery department for appendectomy....

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year old male patient was admitted to the surgery department for appendectomy. Medical history revealed that he has major depressive disorder and was on Phenelzine. Aside from abdominal pain, initial assessment was unremarkable. However, thirty minutes after, the patient was referred to you for generalized seizures. He was given an analgesic and it was noted that, during the first 15 minutes of administration, he became anxious, with profuse sweating, which later developed into seizures. Upon physical examination, he was febrile at 38.3°C.

      Which of the following statements is the best explanation for the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Drug interaction with pethidine

      Explanation:

      The clinical picture best describes a probable drug interaction with pethidine.

      Phenelzine, a monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitor, when given with pethidine, an opioid analgesic, may lead to episodes of hypertension, rigidity, excitation, hyperpyrexia, seizures, coma and death. Studies have shown that pethidine reacts more significantly with MAO inhibitors than morphine.

      When pethidine is metabolised to normeperidine, it acts as a serotonin reuptake inhibitor and cause an increase in serotonin levels in the brain. MAO inhibitors can also lead to elevated levels of serotonin because of its mechanism of action by inhibiting the enzyme monoamine oxidase that degrades serotonin.

      The excess serotonin levels may lead to serotonin syndrome, of which some of the common precipitating drugs are selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, MAO inhibitors, tricyclic antidepressants, meperidine, and St. John’s Wort. Onset of symptoms is within hours, which includes fever, agitation, tremor, clonus, hyperreflexia and diaphoresis.

      Drug interaction between phenelzine and paracetamol do not commonly precipitate serotonin syndrome.

      Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is due to dopamine antagonism, precipitated commonly by antipsychotics. Its onset of symptoms occur in 1 to 3 days, and is characterized by fever, encephalopathy, unstable vitals signs, elevated CPK, and rigidity.

      Altered mental status is the most common manifestation of sepsis-associated encephalopathy. Patient also exhibit confusional states and inappropriate behaviour. In some cases, this may lead to coma and death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - All of the following statements about calcium channel antagonists are incorrect except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statements about calcium channel antagonists are incorrect except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: May cause potentiation of muscle relaxants

      Explanation:

      Calcium channel blocker (CCB) blocks L-type of voltage-gated calcium channels present in blood vessels and the heart. By inhibiting the calcium channels, these agents decrease the frequency of opening of calcium channels activity of the heart, decrease heart rate, AV conduction, and contractility.

      Three groups of CCBs include
      1) Phenylalkylamines: Verapamil, Norverapamil
      2) Benzothiazepines : Diltiazem
      3) Dihydropyridine : Nifedipine, Nicardipine, Nimodipine, Nislodipine, Nitrendipine, Isradipine, Lacidipine, Felodipine and Amlodipine.

      Even though verapamil as good absorption from GIT, its oral bioavailability is low due to high first-pass metabolism.

      Nimodipine is a Cerebro-selective CCB, used to reverse the compensatory vasoconstriction after sub-arachnoid haemorrhage and is more lipid soluble analogue of nifedipine

      Calcium channel antagonist can potentiate the effect of non-depolarising muscle relaxants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - The physiological properties of a fast glycolytic (fast twitch) muscle fibre are characterised...

    Incorrect

    • The physiological properties of a fast glycolytic (fast twitch) muscle fibre are characterised by which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Synthesis of ATP is brought about by anaerobic respiration

      Explanation:

      Muscle fibre myosin ATPase histochemistry is used to divide the biochemical classification into two groups: type 1 and type II.

      Type I (slow twitch) muscle fibres rely on aerobic glycolytic and aerobic oxidative metabolism to function. They have a lot of mitochondria, a good blood supply, a lot of myoglobin, and they don’t get tired easily.

      Because they contain more motor units, Type II (fast twitch) muscle fibres are thicker. They are more easily fatigued, but produce powerful bursts. The capillary networks and mitochondria are less dense in these white muscle fibres than in type I fibres. They have a low myoglobin content as well.

      Muscle fibres of type II (fast twitch) are divided into three types:

      Type IIa – aerobic/oxidative metabolism is used.
      Type IIb – anaerobic/glycolytic metabolism is used by these fibres.

      When compared to skeletal muscle, cardiac and smooth muscle twitch at a slower rate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 54-year-old man weighing 70kg, underwent mesh repair for inguinal hernia under general...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man weighing 70kg, underwent mesh repair for inguinal hernia under general anaesthesia. He was given intravenous co-amoxiclav (Augmentin) following which the patient developed widespread urticarial ras, became hypotensive (61/30 mmHg), and showed clinical signs of bronchospasm. Anaphylaxis is suspected in this patient.

      Which one of the following is considered as best initial pharmacological treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intravenous adrenaline 50 mcg

      Explanation:

      The drug of choice for the treatment of anaphylaxis is adrenaline. It has an intravenous route of administration. Since the patient already has intravenous access, the intramuscular route is not appropriate.

      Second-line pharmacological intervention includes the use of chlorpheniramine 10mg intravenous, Hydrocortisone 200mg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - All of the following statements about dopamine are FALSE except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statements about dopamine are FALSE except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Dopamine (DA) is a dopaminergic (D1 and D2) as well as adrenergic ? and ?1 (but not ?2 )agonist.

      The D1 receptors in renal and mesenteric blood vessels are the most sensitive: i.v. infusion of a low dose of DA dilates these vessels (by raising intracellular cyclic adenosine monophosphate).

      Moderately high doses produce a positive inotropic (direct ?1 and D1 action + that due to NA release), but the little chronotropic effect on the heart.

      Vasoconstriction (?1 action) occurs only when large doses are infused.

      At doses normally employed, it raises cardiac output and systolic BP with little effect on diastolic BP. It has practically no effect on nonvascular ? and ? receptors; does not penetrate the blood-brain barrier – no Central nervous system effects.

      Dopamine is less arrhythmogenic than adrenaline

      Regarding dopamine part of the dose is converted to Noradrenaline in sympathetic nerve terminals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which of the following statement is true regarding the mechanism of action of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statement is true regarding the mechanism of action of macrolides?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibits protein synthesis

      Explanation:

      The mechanism of action of macrolides is inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis by preventing peptidyltransferase from adding to the growing peptide which is attached to tRNA to the next amino acid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which of the following best explains the statement Epinephrine is formulated as 1...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following best explains the statement Epinephrine is formulated as 1 in 1000 solution

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1000 mg per 1000 ml solution

      Explanation:

      The statement Epinephrine is formulated as 1 in 1000 solution means 1 gm epinephrine is present in 1000 ml of solution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - About the mechanism of action of bendroflumethiazide, Which of the following is correct?...

    Incorrect

    • About the mechanism of action of bendroflumethiazide, Which of the following is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sodium-chloride symporter inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Sodium-chloride symporter inhibitor.

      The thiazide sensitive sodium chloride symporter is inhibited by thiazides at the proximal portion of the distal convoluted tubule leading to increased sodium and water excretion. Increased delivery of sodium to the distal portion of the distal convoluted tubule promotes potassium loss. This is why thiazides are associated with hyponatraemia and hypokalaemia.

      Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors are used mainly in the treatment of glaucoma. They act on the proximal convoluted tubule to promote bicarbonate, sodium and potassium loss.

      Sodium potassium chloride symporter is inhibited by Loop diuretics.
      Epithelial sodium channels are inhibited by Amiloride.
      Drugs which lead to nephrogenic diabetes insipidus such as lithium and demeclocycline, are Inhibitors of vasopressin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following organism is highly resistant to penicillin? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following organism is highly resistant to penicillin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Escherichia coli

      Explanation:

      Penicillinase is a narrow spectrum ?-lactamase that opens the ?-lactam ring and inactivates Penicillin G and some closely related congeners. The majority of Staphylococci and some strains of gonococci, B. subtilis, E. coli, and a few other bacteria produce penicillinase.

      N. meningitidis is sensitive to penicillin and less than 20% resistance is found in pseudomonas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Prior to an urgent appendicectomy, a 49-year-old man requires a rapid sequence induction.

    His...

    Incorrect

    • Prior to an urgent appendicectomy, a 49-year-old man requires a rapid sequence induction.

      His BMI is equal to 50.

      Which of the following formulas is the most appropriate for calculating a suxamethonium dose in order to achieve optimal intubating conditions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1-1.5 × actual body weight (mg)

      Explanation:

      The usual method of calculating the dose of a drug to be given to patients of normal weight is to use total body weight (TBW). This is because the lean body weight (LBW) and ideal body weight (IBW) dosing scalars are similar in these patients.

      Because the LBW and fat mass do not increase in proportion in patients with morbid obesity, this is not the case. Drugs that are lipid soluble, such as propofol or thiopentone, can cause a relative overdose. Lean body mass is a better scalar in these situations.

      Suxamethonium has a small volume of distribution, so the dose is best calculated using the TBW to ensure optimal and deep intubating conditions. The higher dose was justified because these patients’ plasma cholinesterase activity was elevated.

      Other scalars include:

      The dose of highly lipid soluble drugs like benzodiazepines, thiopentone, and propofol can be calculated using lean body weight (LBW). The formula LBW = IBW + 20% can be used on occasion.

      Fentanyl, rocuronium, atracurium, vecuronium, morphine, paracetamol, bupivacaine, and lidocaine are all administered with LBW.

      Formulas can be used to calculate the ideal body weight (IBW). There are a number of drawbacks, including the fact that patients of the same height receive the same dose, and the formulae do not account for changes in body composition associated with obesity. Because IBW is typically lower than LBW, administering a drug based on IBW may result in underdosing. The body mass index (BMI) isn’t used to calculate drug dosage directly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following statements is true regarding Adrenaline or Epinephrine? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding Adrenaline or Epinephrine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stimulates ACTH secretion

      Explanation:

      Adrenaline is released by the adrenal glands, acts on ? 1 and 2, ? 1 and 2 receptors, and is responsible for fight or flight response.

      It acts on ? 2 receptors in skeletal muscle vessels-causing vasodilation.

      It acts on ? adrenergic receptors to inhibit insulin secretion by the pancreas. It also stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver and muscle, stimulates glycolysis in muscle.

      It acts on ? adrenergic receptors to stimulate glucagon secretion in the pancreas
      It also stimulates Adrenocorticotrophic Hormone (ACTH) and stimulates lipolysis by adipose tissue

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 74-year-old man presents to a hospital for manipulation of Colles fracture. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 74-year-old man presents to a hospital for manipulation of Colles fracture. The patient is 50 kg and the anaesthetic plan is to perform an intravenous regional (Bier's) block.

      Which of the following is the appropriate dose of local anaesthetic for the procedure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0.5% prilocaine (40 ml)

      Explanation:

      Prilocaine is the drug of choice for intravenous regional anaesthesia. 0.5% prilocaine (40 ml) is indicated for this condition.
      Lidocaine is another alternative for this condition but volume and dose are likely to be inadequate for the procedure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 26-year-old male was diagnosed with hypovolaemic shock following a road traffic accident....

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old male was diagnosed with hypovolaemic shock following a road traffic accident. On clinical examination:
      Heart rate: 125 beats/min
      Blood pressure: 120/105 mmHg.

      On physical examination, his abdomen was found to be tense and tender. Which of the following receptors is responsible for the compensation of blood loss?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alpha 1 adrenergic

      Explanation:

      Alpha 1 adrenergic receptor stimulation results in vasoconstriction of peripheral arteries mainly of those of skin, gut and kidney arterioles. This would cause and increase in total peripheral resistance and mean arterial pressure and as a result the perfusion of vital organs i.e. brain, heart and lungs are maintained.

      Muscarinic M2 receptor also known as cholinergic receptor are located in heart, where they act to slow the heart rate down to normal sinus rhythm after negative stimulatory actions of parasympathetic nervous system. They also reduce contractile forces of the atrial cardiac muscle, and reduce conduction velocity of AV node. This could worsen the compensation.

      Stimulation of beta 2 adrenergic receptor result in dilation of smooth muscle as in bronchodilation.

      Beta 3 adrenergic receptors are present on cell surface f both white and brown adipocytes and are responsible for lipolysis, thermogenesis, and relaxation of intestinal smooth muscle.

      Alpha 2 adrenergic receptor stimulation results in inhibition of the release of noradrenaline in a form of negative feedback.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which of the following is true regarding the mechanism of action of daptomycin?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true regarding the mechanism of action of daptomycin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Interferes with the outer membrane of gram positive bacteria resulting in cell death

      Explanation:

      Daptomycin alters the curvature of the membrane, which creates holes that leak ions. This causes rapid depolarization, resulting in loss of membrane potential. Thus it interferes with the outer membrane of gram-positive bacteria resulting in cell death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which one of the following pharmacokinetic models is most suitable for target-controlled infusion...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following pharmacokinetic models is most suitable for target-controlled infusion (TCI) of propofol in paediatric patients?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Kataria

      Explanation:

      Marsh (adult) model, when used with children caused over-estimation of plasma concentration. To address this issue Kataria et al developed a three-compartmental model for propofol in children. The pharmacokinetic models used by Target controlled infusion (TCI) systems are used to calculate the relative sizes of the central (vascular), vessel-rich peripheral, and vessel-poor peripheral compartments. The relative volumes of these compartments are different in young children when compared to adults.

      Kataria, therefore, is the correct option as described above.

      The Maitre model is a three-compartmental model for alfentanil TCI.

      The Marsh model describes a propofol TCI model for adults

      The Minto model applies to TCI remifentanil.

      The Schnider model is also an adult model for propofol that incorporates age and lean body mass as covariates.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
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  • Question 22 - Which of the following antihypertensive drugs is an alpha-blocker? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following antihypertensive drugs is an alpha-blocker?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Doxazosin

      Explanation:

      Doxazosin is selective alpha 1 blocker (it causes less tachycardia than a non-selective alpha-blocker) and is the drug of choice for a patient with hypertension and benign hyperplasia of the prostate (BHP).

      The major adverse effect of an alpha-blocker is first-dose hypotension.

      Atenolol and Labetalol are beta blockers. It works by relaxing blood vessels and slowing heart rate to improve blood flow and decrease blood pressure.

      Clonidine is an α2A-adrenergic agonist used to treat high blood pressure, ADHD, drug withdrawal (alcohol, opioids, or nicotine), menopausal flushing, diarrhea, spasticity, and certain pain conditions.

      Methyldopa is a centrally-acting alpha-2 adrenergic agonist used to manage hypertension alone or in combination with hydrochlorothiazide, and to treat hypertensive crises.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which of the following statements is true regarding alfentanil? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding alfentanil?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Is less lipid soluble than fentanyl

      Explanation:

      Alfentanil is less lipid-soluble than fentanyl and thus is less permeable to the membrane making it less potent.

      Alfentanil is a phenylpiperidine opioid analgesic with rapid onset and shorter duration of action.

      Alfentanil has less volume of distribution due to its high plasma protein binding (92%)

      It can cause respiratory depression and can cause sedation

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 24 - All the following statements are false regarding local anaesthetic except ...

    Incorrect

    • All the following statements are false regarding local anaesthetic except

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Potency is directly related to lipid solubility

      Explanation:

      The potency of local anaesthetics is directly proportional to lipid solubility because they need to penetrate the lipid-soluble membrane to enter the cell.

      Protein binding has a direct relationship with the duration of action because the higher the ability of the drug to bind with membrane protein, the higher is the duration of action.

      Higher the pKa of a drug, slower the onset of action. Because a drug with higher pKa will be more ionized than the one with lower pKa at a given pH. Local anaesthetics are weak bases, and unionized form diffuses more rapidly across the nerve membrane than the protonated form. As a result drugs with higher pKa will be more ionized will diffuse less across the nerve membrane.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
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  • Question 25 - All of the following statements are false regarding insulin except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statements are false regarding insulin except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Can be detected in the lymph

      Explanation:

      Insulin is secreted from the ? cells of the pancreas. It consists of 51 amino acids arranged in two chains. It interacts with cell surface receptors (not the nuclear receptors and thus mechanism of action is not similar to steroids).
      Since insulin can pass from plasma to interstitium and lymphatics, it can be measured in lymph but the concentrations here can be up to 30% less than that of plasma.

      It decreases blood glucose by stimulating the entry of glucose in muscle and fat (by increasing the synthesis of Glucose transporters)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
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  • Question 26 - What does therapeutic index in humans mean? ...

    Incorrect

    • What does therapeutic index in humans mean?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The TD50 divided by the ED50

      Explanation:

      Therapeutic index is a measure which relates the dose of a drug required to produce a desired effect to that which produces an undesired effect.

      In humans, it is usually defined as the ratio of the toxic dose for 50% of the population (TD50) to the minimum effective dose for 50% of the population (ED50) for some therapeutically relevant effect. In animal studies, the therapeutic index can be defined as the ratio of the median lethal dose (LD50) to the ED50.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
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  • Question 27 - Which of the following antibiotics inhibits protein synthesis in bacteria? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following antibiotics inhibits protein synthesis in bacteria?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erythromycin

      Explanation:

      Erythromycin binds to the 50s subunit of bacterial rRNA complex and inhibits protein synthesis.

      Vancomycin binds to the acyl-D-ala-D-ala portion of the growing cell wall in a susceptible gram-positive bacterium. After binding, it prevents the cell wall from forming the cross-linking.

      Trimethoprim binds to dihydrofolate reductase and inhibits the reduction of dihydrofolic acid to tetrahydrofolic acid. Tetrahydrofolic acid is an essential precursor in the thymidine synthesis pathway and interference with this pathway inhibits bacterial DNA synthesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
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  • Question 28 - Which of the following drugs can have significant clinical effects on neonates when...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following drugs can have significant clinical effects on neonates when used in appropriate doses for a caesarean section?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alfentanil

      Explanation:

      Opioid should be avoided in the caesarean section as it crosses the placental membrane and causes respiratory depression.

      Even though inhalational and intravenous anaesthetic agents readily cross the placenta, they do not have significant effects on APGAR score when used in clinical doses.

      Vecuronium and suxamethonium are highly polar molecules and thus do not cross the placenta in significant amounts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 29 - Which of the following is true regarding Noradrenaline (Norepinephrine)? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true regarding Noradrenaline (Norepinephrine)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sympathomimetic effects work mainly through ?1 but also ? receptors

      Explanation:

      Noradrenaline acts as a sympathomimetic effect via alpha as well as a beta receptor. However, they have weak ?2 action.

      Natural catecholamines are Adrenaline, Noradrenaline, and Dopamine

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
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  • Question 30 - A 50-year old female came to the Obstetric and Gynaecology department for an...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year old female came to the Obstetric and Gynaecology department for an elective hysterectomy under general anaesthesia. Upon physical examination, she was noted to be obese (BMI = 40).

      Regarding the optimal dose of thiopentone, which of the following parameters must be considered for the computation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lean body weight

      Explanation:

      Using a lean body weight metric encompasses a more scientific approach to weight-based dosing. Lean body weight reflects the weight of all ‘non-fat’ body components, including muscle and vascular organs such as the liver and kidneys. As lean body weight contributes to approximately 99% of a drug’s clearance, it is useful for guiding dosing in obesity.

      This metric has undergone a number of transformations. The most commonly cited formula derived by Cheymol is not optimal for dosing across body compositions and can even produce a negative result. A new formula has been developed that appears stable across different body sizes, in particular the obese to morbidly obese.

      A practical downfall of the calculation of lean body weight (and other body size descriptors) is the numerical complexity, which may not be palatable to a busy clinician. Often limited time is available for prescribing and an immediate calculation is required. Lean body weight calculators are available online, for example in the Therapeutic Guidelines.

      Using total body weight assumes that the pharmacokinetics of the drug are linearly scalable from normal-weight patients to those who are obese. This is inaccurate. For example, we cannot assume that a 150 kg patient eliminates a drug twice as fast as a 75 kg patient and therefore double the dose. Clinicians are alert to toxicities with higher doses, for example nephro- and neurotoxicity with some antibiotics and chemotherapeutics, and bleeding with anticoagulants. Arbitrary dose reductions or ‘caps’ are used to avoid these toxicities, but if too low can result in sub-therapeutic exposure and treatment failure.

      Body surface area is traditionally used to dose chemotherapeutics. It is a function of weight and height and has been shown to correlate with cardiac output, blood volume and renal function. However, it is controversial in patients at extremes of size because it does not account for varying body compositions. As a consequence, some older drugs such as cyclophosphamide, paclitaxel and doxorubicin were ‘capped’ (commonly at 2 m^2) potentially resulting in sub-therapeutic treatment. Recent guidelines suggest that unless there is a justifiable reason to reduce the dose (e.g. renal disease), total body weight should be used in the calculation of body surface area, until further research is done. Little research into dosing based on body surface area has been conducted for other medicines.

      Ideal body weight was developed for insurance purposes not for drug dosing. It is a function of height and gender only and, like body surface area, does not take into account body composition. Using ideal body weight, all patients of the same height and sex would receive the same dose, which is inadequate and generally results in under-dosing. For example a male who has a total body weight of 150 kg and a height of 170 cm will have the same ideal body weight as a male who is 80 kg and 170 cm tall. Both could potentially receive a mg/kg dose based on 65 kg (ideal body weight).

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