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  • Question 1 - You're assessing a 34-year-old lady who suffers from chronic pelvic pain. She experiences...

    Incorrect

    • You're assessing a 34-year-old lady who suffers from chronic pelvic pain. She experiences cyclic pain, mostly throughout her premenstrual and menstrual periods. She has been trying for 15 months to conceive without luck. Her pelvic check-up comes out normal.

      Which of the following tests would be most useful in diagnosing the source of her pain and planning preoperative disease staging?

      Your Answer: Transvaginal pelvic ultrasound

      Correct Answer: MRI

      Explanation:

      Endometriosis is a chronic gynaecological condition affecting women of reproductive age and may cause pelvic pain and infertility. It is characterized by the growth of functional ectopic endometrial glands and stroma outside the uterus and includes three different manifestations: ovarian endometriomas, peritoneal implants, deep pelvic endometriosis. The primary locations are in the pelvis; extra pelvic endometriosis may rarely occur.

      Diagnosis requires a combination of clinical history, invasive and non-invasive techniques. The definitive diagnosis is based on laparoscopy with histological confirmation. Diagnostic imaging is necessary for treatment planning. MRI is as a second-line technique after ultrasound. The MRI appearance of endometriotic lesions is variable and depends on the quantity and age of haemorrhage, the amount of endometrial cells, stroma, smooth muscle proliferation and fibrosis. The purpose of surgery is to achieve complete resection of all endometriotic lesions in the same operation.

      Owing to the possibility to perform a complete assessment of all pelvic compartments at one time, MRI represents the best imaging technique for preoperative staging of endometriosis, in order to choose the more appropriate surgical approach and to plan a multidisciplinary team work.

      Though ESR maybe elevated due to the presence of inflammation, it is not specific for endometriosis and has no role in preoperative staging. The same holds true for any possible CBC finding.

      Transvaginal ultrasound is preferred for diagnosis but doesn’t aid in preoperative staging of endometriosis.

      CA125 values are elevated in severe infiltrative endometriosis but unchanged in mild disease. Relaying on CA125 cause a high rate of false negatives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      174
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 27-year-old primigravida female presents to the emergency department at full term.

    6 hours...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old primigravida female presents to the emergency department at full term.

      6 hours ago, she spontaneously began labour. The membranes ruptured two hours ago and the liquor was stained with meconium.

      On cardiotocography (CTG) was conducted and it showed some intermittent late decelerations, from 140 to 110 beats/min.

      On vaginal examination, her cervix id 5 cm dilated. The foetus is in cephalic presentation, in the left occipitotransverse (LOT) position, with the bony head at the level of the ischial spines (IS).

      Due to the deceleration pattern, a fetal scalp pH estimation was performed and the pH was measured at 7.32.

      An hour later, the CTG showed the following pattern over a period of 30 minutes:

      Baseline 140/min
      Baseline variability 1/min
      Accelerations None evident
      Decelerations Two decelerations were evident, with the heart rate falling to 80/min, and with each lasting 4 minutes

      Another vaginal examination is conducted and her cervix is now 8cm dilated, but otherwise unchanged from one hour previously.

      What would be the next best line management?

      Your Answer: Immediate delivery by Caesarean section.

      Explanation:

      The next best line of management is immediate delivery via Caesarean section ( C section).

      This is because of the change in cardiotocography (CTG). The pattern became much more severe with a virtual lack of short-term variability and prolonged decelerations. These changes indicate the necessity for an immediate C section as the cervix is not fully dilated.

      As immediate delivery is indicated, another pH assessment is unnecessary as it would delay delivery and increase the likelihood of fetal hypoxia.

      Delivery by ventose, in a primigravida where the cervix is only 8cm dilated is not indicated as it would allow the labour to proceed or augmenting with Syntocinon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      410.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A baby with shoulder dystocia suffers a brachial plexus injury. The mother asks...

    Incorrect

    • A baby with shoulder dystocia suffers a brachial plexus injury. The mother asks you if this will be permanent. What percentage of babies will have permanent neurological dysfunction as a result of brachial plexus injury secondary to shoulder dystocia?

      Your Answer: <10%

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      of cases there is no permanent neurological disability. Shoulder dystocia is the most common cause of Erb’s palsy (Erb-Duchenne palsy) where there is injury to C5 and C6 of the brachial plexus (C5 to T1)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      236.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A pregnant patient with a chest infection is worried about the radiation risk...

    Incorrect

    • A pregnant patient with a chest infection is worried about the radiation risk of a chest X Ray. How many days of natural background radiation is equivalent to a chest X Ray?

      Your Answer: 28

      Correct Answer: 2.5

      Explanation:

      X-rays carry low levels of risk during pregnancy and are not a significant cause for concern if the total exposure to ionising radiation is less than 5 rads throughout the pregnancy; a chest X-ray is about 0.00007 rads. The amount of radiation generated from a chest X-ray is equivalent to 2.4 days of natural background radiation. Non-urgent radiological tests should, however, be avoided between 10-17 weeks gestation as there is a higher risk of central nervous system teratogenesis during this time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biophysics
      59.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - a 24 year old female patient comes to your office with a chief...

    Correct

    • a 24 year old female patient comes to your office with a chief complaint of painless vaginal bleeding of 1 week duration. She had 3 episodes of bleeding and is on contraceptive pills. Her Pap smear screening is up to date with normal findings.

      Which is the cause for her bleeding?

      Your Answer: A cervical ectropion

      Explanation:

      Cervical ectropion occurs when glandular cells develop on the outside of the cervix. Many individuals with cervical ectropion do not experience symptoms.
      However, the primary symptom of cervical ectropion is a red, inflamed patch at the neck of the cervix.
      The transformation zone appears this way because the glandular cells are delicate and irritate easily.
      Other symptoms a woman may experience include:
      pain and bleeding during or after sex
      pain during or after cervical screening
      light discharge of mucus
      spotting between periods
      Symptoms may range from mild to severe when they appear.

      This patient has normal pap smear and is unlikely to have cervical cancer. She has no fever and vaginal discharge which would be the presentation of Chlamydia infection.

      Endometrial cancer affects mainly post menopausal women and presents with vaginal bleeding, weight loss, dysuria and dyspareunia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      74.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) stimulates the release of: ...

    Correct

    • Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) stimulates the release of:

      Your Answer: Luteinizing hormone

      Explanation:

      Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) is the hormone responsible for the release of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) from the anterior pituitary gland.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      140.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 27-year-old G1P0 woman who is at 14 weeks of gestation presented to...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old G1P0 woman who is at 14 weeks of gestation presented to the medical clinic complaining of persistent nausea and vomiting. Upon history taking and interview, she reported that she frequently had poor appetite and felt lethargic. From her pre-pregnancy weight, it was also noted that she had 3% weight loss in difference. Upon further clinical observation, she looked dry, accompanied with coated tongue.

      If the diagnosis of “hyperemesis gravidarum” is to be considered, which of the following will most likely confirm that diagnosis?

      Your Answer: she looks dry with coated tongue

      Explanation:

      Hyperemesis gravidarum refers to intractable vomiting during pregnancy, leading to weight loss and volume depletion, resulting in ketonuria and/or ketonemia. There is no consensus on specific diagnostic criteria, but it generally refers to the severe end of the spectrum regarding nausea and vomiting in pregnancy.

      Hormone changes wherein hCG levels peak during the first trimester corresponds to the typical onset of hyperemesis symptoms. It is well-known that the lower oesophageal sphincter relaxes during pregnancy due to the elevations in estrogen and progesterone. This leads to an increased incidence of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) symptoms in pregnancy, and one symptom of GERD is nausea.

      Hyperemesis gravidarum refers to extreme cases of nausea and vomiting during pregnancy. The criteria for diagnosis include vomiting that causes significant dehydration (as evidenced by ketonuria or electrolyte abnormalities, and the dry with coated tongue) and weight loss (the most commonly cited marker for this is the loss of at least five percent of the patient’s pre-pregnancy weight) in the setting of pregnancy without any other underlying pathological cause for vomiting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      186.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - During her first month on OCPs, a patient had minimal bleeding at mid...

    Correct

    • During her first month on OCPs, a patient had minimal bleeding at mid cycle. What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Continue pills as usual.

      Explanation:

      Breakthrough bleeding, or spotting, refers to when vaginal bleeding occurs between menstrual cycles. It may look like light bleeding or brown discharge.

      Spotting is the most common side effect of birth control pills. It happens because the body is adjusting to changing levels of hormones, and the uterus is adjusting to having a thinner lining.

      Taking the pill as prescribed, usually every day and at the same time each day, can help prevent bleeding between periods.

      All other options are incorrect as this is a common side effect and will resolve on its own.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      36.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - All of the following features are associated with congenital uterine malformations except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following features are associated with congenital uterine malformations except:

      Your Answer: Spontaneous abortions

      Correct Answer: Pregnancy induced hypertension

      Explanation:

      Congenital uterine abnormalities are associated with an increased risk of spontaneous abortions, preterm delivery of the foetus, fetal growth retardation and malpresentation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      251.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - The median umbilical ligament is a remnant of what structure? ...

    Correct

    • The median umbilical ligament is a remnant of what structure?

      Your Answer: Urachus

      Explanation:

      MEDIAL umbilical ligament = remnant fetal umbilical arteries
      MEDIAN umbilical ligament = remnant of urachus

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      89
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gynaecology (2/3) 67%
Obstetrics (2/2) 100%
Clinical Management (0/1) 0%
Biophysics (0/1) 0%
Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Embryology (0/1) 0%
Anatomy (1/1) 100%
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