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  • Question 1 - A 22-year-old female presents with a history of a whitish discharge from her...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old female presents with a history of a whitish discharge from her vagina. She previously underwent a dental procedure and completed a 7 day antibiotic course prior to it. Which of the following microorganisms has most likely lead to this?

      Your Answer: Candida

      Explanation:

      Candida albicans is the most common cause of candidiasis and appears almost universally in low numbers on healthy skin, in the oropharyngeal cavity, and in the gastrointestinal and genitourinary tracts. In immunocompetent individuals, C. albicans usually causes minor localized infections, including thrush (affecting the oral cavity), vaginal yeast infections (if there is an underlying pH imbalance), and infections of the intertriginous areas of skin (e.g., the axillae or gluteal folds). More widespread and systemic infections may occur in immunocompromised individuals (e.g., neonates, diabetics, and HIV patients), with the oesophagus most commonly affected (candida esophagitis). Localized cutaneous candidiasis infections may be treated with topical antifungal agents (e.g., clotrimazole). More widespread and systemic infections require systemic therapy with fluconazole or caspofungin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 60-year-old man with atrial fibrillation (AF) who is on warfarin and is...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man with atrial fibrillation (AF) who is on warfarin and is awaiting tooth extraction. Recent INR was 2.7 and his target INR was 2.0-3.0. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Admit to hospital + switch to intravenous heparin prior to extraction

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      The latest reserches say that simple tooth extraction in patients on warfarin treatment can be performed safely without high risk of bleeding, providing that the INR is equal to or less than 3.5 on the day of extraction. A close follow-up and monitoring of patients taking warfarin is mandatory after dental extraction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      55.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 25-year-old previously well female, in her 10th week of pregnancy presented with...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old previously well female, in her 10th week of pregnancy presented with a left sided painful calf swelling. An ultrasound scan revealed deep venous thrombosis (DVT) of her left leg. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Initiate and then continue treatment with heparin until delivery

      Explanation:

      Warfarin is contraindicated during pregnancy due to its teratogenic effects. She should be given heparin throughout her pregnancy. It can be converted to warfarin if necessary after the delivery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      30.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 35-year-old male is admitted following a collapse while competing in an iron...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old male is admitted following a collapse while competing in an iron man triathlon. His blood results are as follows:
      Na+ 122 mmol/l
      K+ 3.4 mmol/l
      Urea 3.2 mmol/l
      Creatinine 69 umol/l

      During assessment he becomes increasingly obtunded and goes on to have multiple tonic clonic seizures. What is the most appropriate treatment from the list below to improve his neurological status?

      Your Answer: Hypertonic saline

      Explanation:

      Over consumption of fluids, prolonged race duration and inadequate training all can predispose to acute hyponatraemia.
      Mild symptoms include a decreased ability to think, headaches, nausea, and an increased risk of falls. Severe symptoms include confusion, seizures, and coma. Normal serum sodium levels are 135 – 145 mEq/liter (135 – 145 mmol/L). Hyponatremia is generally defined as a serum sodium level of less than 135 mEq/L and is considered severe when the level is below 120 mEq/L.
      The correct treatment to give is hypertonic saline. Decompressive craniotomy would help alleviate raised intracranial pressure due to cerebral oedema however is not an appropriate first line treatment. Demeclocycline is used for SIADH and mannitol is more likely to be used in the context of traumatic brain injury.
      Hyponatremia is corrected slowly, to lessen the risk of the development of central pontine myelinolysis (CPM), a severe neurological disease involving a breakdown of the myelin sheaths covering parts of nerve cells. During treatment of hyponatremia, the serum sodium (salt level in the blood) should not rise by more than 8 mmol/L over 24 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency & Critical Care
      26.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 34-year-old man who is HIV positive has started treatment for Burkitt lymphoma....

    Correct

    • A 34-year-old man who is HIV positive has started treatment for Burkitt lymphoma. His chemotherapy regime includes cyclophosphamide, vincristine, methotrexate, and prednisolone. After one day of starting chemotherapy, he becomes confused and complains of muscle cramps in his legs.

      Which one of the following is most likely to have occurred?

      Your Answer: Tumour lysis syndrome

      Explanation:

      Tumour lysis syndrome (TLS), triggered by the introduction of chemotherapy, has resulted in the aforementioned symptoms in this patient.

      TLS is a potentially fatal condition occurring as a complication during the treatment of high-grade lymphomas and leukaemias. It occurs from the simultaneous breakdown (lysis) of the tumour cells and subsequent release of chemicals into the bloodstream. This leads to hyperkalaemia and hyperphosphatemia in the presence of hyponatraemia. TLS can occur in the absence of chemotherapy, but it is usually triggered by the introduction of combination chemotherapy. Awareness of the condition is critical for its prophylactic management.

      Rasburicase should be given prior to chemotherapy in order to reduce the risk of tumour lysis syndrome (TLS). Rasburicase is a recombinant version of urate oxidase which is an enzyme that metabolizes uric acid to allantoin. Allantoin is 5-10 times more soluble than uric acid, hence, renal excretion is more effective.

      Burkitt lymphoma is a high-grade B-cell neoplasm. There are two major forms:
      1. Endemic (African) form: typically involves maxilla or mandible.
      2. Sporadic form: abdominal (e.g. ileocaecal) tumours are the most common form. More common in patients with HIV.

      Burkitt lymphoma is associated with the c-myc gene translocation, usually t(8;14). The Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is strongly implicated in development of the African form of Burkitt lymphoma and to a lesser extent, the sporadic form.

      Management of the lymphoma is with chemotherapy. This tends to produce a rapid response which may cause TLS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      76.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 72-year-old man presents to the emergency department with dyspnoea and low exercise...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man presents to the emergency department with dyspnoea and low exercise tolerance. He's known to have a history of ischemic heart disease on medication. Which drug most probably caused his presenting complaint?

      Your Answer: Atenolol

      Correct Answer: Diclofenac Sodium

      Explanation:

      Diclofenac sodium is a non-selective reversible and competitive inhibitor of cyclooxygenase (COX), subsequently blocking the conversion of arachidonic acid into prostaglandin precursors. This leads to an inhibition of the formation of prostaglandins that are involved in pain, inflammation and fever. Clinical trials of several COX-2 selective and non-selective NSAIDs of up to three years duration have shown an increased risk of serious cardiovascular (CV) thrombotic events, including myocardial infarction (MI), and stroke, which can be fatal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      36.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 43-year-old police officer is admitted with a history of unsteadiness and slurring...

    Correct

    • A 43-year-old police officer is admitted with a history of unsteadiness and slurring of speech. This has worsened over a period of three months. He complains of a tremor affecting his right hand and diplopia on right lateral gaze. He smokes 30 cigarettes a day and takes regular diclofenac for his arthritis. On examination, he is dysarthric and feels nauseated. Fundoscopy is normal, however there is marked horizontal nystagmus and evidence of a right VI nerve palsy. There also appears to be some mild facial weakness on the right side. Upon conducting Weber's test, a louder tone is heard in the left ear. On conducting the Rinne test, both ears are normal. On examination of the upper limb, there is a right intention tremor and dysdiadochokinesis. Tone, power and reflexes are normal. On examination of the lower limb, tone, power and reflexes are normal, however he appears to walk with a broad-based gait and is leaning to the right.

      Lumbar puncture:

      Opening pressure 13 cm H20 (5-18)
      Protein 0.67 g/l (0.15-0.45)
      WCC 3 cells/ml (<5)
      Red cell count (RCC) 2 cells/ml (<5)
      Glucose 3.2 mmol/l (3.3-4.4)
      Blood glucose 5.8 mmol/l (3.0-6.0)
      Oligoclonal bands Present
      Serum oligoclonal bands Present

      Magnetic resonance scan shows a calcified lesion broadly attached to the petrous part of the temporal bone. In view of the above history and findings, what is the likely cause of this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Meningioma of the cerebellar pontine angle

      Explanation:

      This patient has a combination of right cerebellar dysfunction with right-sided cranial nerve palsies (VI, VII, and VIII). The magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) shows a calcified meningioma within the right cerebellar pontine area, which would account for these findings. The cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis shows oligoclonal bands, however, these are matched in the serum, which reflects a systemic inflammatory response from his rheumatoid arthritis.

      The MRI scan and CSF analysis would not be consistent with progressive multiple sclerosis. The progressive nature of her symptoms would be against a diagnosis of brainstem infarct, and one would expect more pyramidal signs in the peripheral nervous system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      173.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - An 80-year-old woman with advanced COPD has been admitted to the medicine ward...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old woman with advanced COPD has been admitted to the medicine ward in an unconscious state. She appears to have an acute lower respiratory tract infection. After consulting with an anaesthesiologist it was concluded that she was not a candidate for intensive care unit admission and thus, a decision was made to start the patient on doxapram therapy. Which of the following best fits the characteristics of doxapram?

      Your Answer: It is contraindicated in hyperthyroidism

      Explanation:

      The two statements that fit the characteristics of doxapram are, epilepsy is a contraindication for doxapram use and concurrent use with theophylline may increase agitation.

      Doxapram is a central respiratory stimulant. In clinical practice, doxapram is usually used for patients who have an acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who are unsuitable for admission to the intensive therapy unit for ventilatory support. Doxapram infusion may buy an extra 24 h to allow for recovery.

      Contraindications include: ischaemic heart disease, epilepsy, cerebral oedema, acute stroke, asthma, hypertension, hyperthyroidism, and pheochromocytoma.
      The infusion may worsen agitation and dyspnoea and lead to hypertension, nausea, vomiting and urinary retention.

      Drug interactions:
      Concomitant administration of doxapram and aminophylline (theophylline) can cause increased skeletal muscle activity, agitation, and hyperactivity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatric Medicine
      68.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 42-year-old patient has been admitted with a very swollen and painful right...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old patient has been admitted with a very swollen and painful right knee. He was unable to walk on it so came into hospital. It is currently being treated as gout with non steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. You notice he is of short stature, has shortened arms and legs and a flat nasal bridge. A mutation in which gene is responsible for this condition?

      Your Answer: Fibroblast growth factor receptor

      Explanation:

      Achondroplasia is a common cause of dwarfism. It is caused by a mutation in fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 (FGFR3). In normal development FGFR3 has a negative regulatory effect on bone growth. In achondroplasia, the mutated form of the receptor is constitutively active and this leads to severely shortened bones. The effect is genetically dominant, with one mutant copy of the FGFR3 gene being sufficient to cause achondroplasia, while two copies of the mutant gene are invariably fatal. A person with achondroplasia thus has a 50% chance of passing dwarfism to each of their offspring. People with achondroplasia can be born to parents that do not have the condition due to spontaneous mutation. It occurs as a sporadic mutation in approximately 80% of cases (associated with advanced paternal age) or it may be inherited as an autosomal dominant genetic disorder.
      People with achondroplasia have short stature, with an average adult height of 131 centimeters (52 inches) for males and 123 centimeters (48 inches) for females.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System
      50.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A man was admitted with galactorrhoea. History reveals that the patient has been...

    Correct

    • A man was admitted with galactorrhoea. History reveals that the patient has been having problems with getting and maintaining an erection. He also admits he's noticed a decrease in the quantity of his facial hair. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hyper prolactinaemia

      Explanation:

      Increased levels of prolactin in men can lead to erectile dysfunction, reduced facial and body hair and on rare occasion gynecomastia with galactorrhoea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      30.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which one of the following interventions has the least role in management of...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following interventions has the least role in management of acne rosacea?

      Your Answer: Low-dose topical corticosteroids

      Explanation:

      Mild cases are often not treated at all, or are simply covered up with normal cosmetics and avoiding sun exposure. Therapy for the treatment of rosacea is not curative, and is best measured in terms of reduction in the amount of facial redness and inflammatory lesions. The two primary modalities of rosacea treatment are topical and oral antibiotic agents (including metronidazole and tetracyclines). Laser therapy may be appropriate for patients with prominent telangiectasia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • The Skin
      24.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 28-year-old woman is referred to the endocrinology clinic. She has been trying...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman is referred to the endocrinology clinic. She has been trying to conceive for the last 3 years without any success. Her prolactin level is 2600 mU/l (normal <360). The Endocrinologist arranges pituitary magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) that demonstrates a microprolactinoma.

      Which two of the following pharmacological agents may be appropriate treatment choices?

      Your Answer: Carbergoline

      Explanation:

      Cabergoline, an ergot derivative, is a long-acting dopamine agonist. It is usually better tolerated than Bromocriptine (BEC), and its efficacy profiles are somewhat superior to those of BEC. It offers the convenience of twice-a-week administration, with a usual starting dose of 0.25 mg biweekly to a maximum dose of 1 mg biweekly. Some studies have shown efficacy even with once-a-week dosing. Cabergoline appears to be more effective in lowering prolactin levels and restoring ovulation. Up to 70% of patients who do not respond to BEC respond to cabergoline.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      36.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which of the following is not associated with right axis deviation? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not associated with right axis deviation?

      Your Answer: Left posterior hemiblock

      Correct Answer: Wolf-Parkinson-White syndrome with right-sided accessory pathway

      Explanation:

      Causes for right axis deviation:
      -Right ventricular hypertrophy and Left posterior fascicular block
      -Lateral myocardial infarction.
      -Acute or chronic lung diseases: Pulmonary embolism, pulmonary hypertension, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), cor pulmonale.
      -Congenital heart disease (e.g., dextrocardia, secundum atrial septal defect).
      -Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome.
      -Ventricular ectopic rhythms (e.g., ventricular tachycardia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      23.7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 32-year-old patient that has just returned from India, complains of dyspnoea. On...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old patient that has just returned from India, complains of dyspnoea. On examination, you notice grey membranes on the uvula and tonsils and a low-grade fever. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Diphtheria

      Explanation:

      Characteristic findings on patients suffering from diphtheria are the grey membrane on the uvula and tonsils together with the low grade fever and dyspnoea. It’s of great importance that the patient has recently been to India where there is a know prevalence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      15.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 30-year-old agitated male was brought to the emergency department by his friend....

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old agitated male was brought to the emergency department by his friend. Though there is little previous history, the friend believes that he has been suffering from depression for several years, and his medications have been changed by his general practitioner quite recently.
      On examination the patient is agitated and confused, his pupils are dilated. He also has tremors, excessive sweating, and grinding of teeth. His heart rate is 118 beats/min, which is regular, and is febrile with a temperature of 38.5°C.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Malignant hyperthermia

      Correct Answer: Serotonin syndrome

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis in this patient is serotonin syndrome.

      The serotonin syndrome is a cluster of symptoms and signs (range from barely perceptible tremor to life-threatening hyperthermia and shock).
      It may occur when SSRIs such as citalopram, escitalopram, fluoxetine, fluoxetine, paroxetine, and sertraline that impair the reuptake of serotonin from the synaptic cleft into the presynaptic neuron are taken in combination with monoamine oxidase inhibitors or tricyclic antidepressants. It has also been reported following an overdose of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) alone.

      Treatment:
      Most cases of serotonin syndrome are mild and will resolve with removal of the offending drug alone.
      After stopping all serotonergic drugs, management is largely supportive and aimed at preventing complications.
      Patients frequently require sedation, which is best facilitated with benzodiazepines.
      Antipsychotics should be avoided because of their anticholinergic properties, which may inhibit sweating and heat dissipation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency & Critical Care
      60.5
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 24-year-old male was involved in a traffic collision. X-rays indicated that the...

    Correct

    • A 24-year-old male was involved in a traffic collision. X-rays indicated that the neck of the humerus had suffered a fracture. Choose the single most associated nerve injury from the list of options.

      Your Answer: Axillary nerve

      Explanation:

      Fractures in the neck of the humerus are well documented to cause damage to the auxiliary nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - In the case of absent tibial and popliteal pulses, which artery is most...

    Correct

    • In the case of absent tibial and popliteal pulses, which artery is most likely injured?

      Your Answer: Femero-popliteal

      Explanation:

      The popliteal artery is the continuation of the femoral artery. It passes deeply, through the adductor hiatus and continues through the popliteal fossa to reach the lower border of the popliteus muscle, where it branches into the anterior and posterior tibial arteries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System
      19.2
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 40-year-old male returning from an African country, presented with lower abdominal pain...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old male returning from an African country, presented with lower abdominal pain and haematuria. Bladder calcifications were detected on abdominal x-ray. Which of the following is the most probable cause?

      Your Answer: Schistosoma haematobium

      Explanation:

      Schistosoma haematobium characteristically causes urinary tract disease. S.mansoni, S. mekongi, S. intercalatum, and S. japonicum cause intestinal tract and liver disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 55-year-old male with a history of myocardial infarction 4 years ago, was...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male with a history of myocardial infarction 4 years ago, was admitted with a history of fever for the past 2 weeks. On investigation, his echocardiography revealed a small vegetation around the mitral valve. His blood culture was positive for Streptococcus viridans. Which of the following is the most appropriate antibiotic therapy?

      Your Answer: IV vancomycin + rifampicin + gentamicin

      Correct Answer: IV benzylpenicillin

      Explanation:

      According to the American Heart Association (AHA) penicillin-susceptible S viridans, S bovis, and other streptococci (MIC of penicillin of ≤0.1 mcg/mL) should be treated with penicillin G or ceftriaxone or penicillin G + a gentamicin combination or vancomycin (if allergy to penicillin).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      49
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 19-year-old male presents with a 1-year history of diarrhoea as well as...

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old male presents with a 1-year history of diarrhoea as well as abdominal discomfort. He has 10 episodes of loose stools per day and 3 episodes of loose stools per night. He reports weight loss in the past few months. On examination of the abdomen, tenderness was present in the right lower quadrant. Endoscopy revealed cobblestone mucosa in the ileum. Which of the following conditions is he most likely suffering from?

      Your Answer: Crohn's Disease

      Explanation:

      Cobblestone mucosa is characteristic of Crohn’s Disease. It is not a feature of any of the other options mentioned. Crohn’s disease is a condition of IBD (Inflammatory Bowel Disease).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      31.2
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which among the following antihypertensives is centrally acting? ...

    Correct

    • Which among the following antihypertensives is centrally acting?

      Your Answer: Moxonidine

      Explanation:

      Moxonidine and alpha-methyl dopa are centrally acting antihypertensives and modify blood pressure through modifying sympathetic activity.

      Other options:
      Verapamil is a calcium antagonist.
      Minoxidil and hydralazine are both vasodilators.
      Phenoxybenzamine is an alpha-blocker.

      Adverse effects:
      Dry mouth and somnolence were the most frequently reported adverse events, followed by headache, dizziness, nausea and allergic skin reactions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      15.5
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A patient with chronic renal failure, treated with regular haemodialysis, attends the renal...

    Incorrect

    • A patient with chronic renal failure, treated with regular haemodialysis, attends the renal clinic. He has been treated for six months with oral ferrous sulphate, 200 mg three times a day. His haemoglobin at this clinic attendance is 7.6. His previous result was 10.6 six months ago.
       
      Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer: Commence SC erythropoietin

      Correct Answer: IV iron and subcutaneous erythropoietin

      Explanation:

      The patient should be prescribed IV iron and subcutaneous erythropoietin to enhance erythropoiesis to address the dropped haemoglobin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      36.1
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 65 year old gentleman presented with 4 months history of a non...

    Correct

    • A 65 year old gentleman presented with 4 months history of a non healing lesion over the right ear. It is about 1cm in size and bleeds when palpated. The most likely diagnosis will be?

      Your Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Squamous cell carcinoma like other skin cancers mostly arise on photo exposed sites. A patient usually presents with a history of a non healing lesion or wound. Confirmatory diagnosis requires a skin biopsy and histopathological screening. It is rarely metastatic and treatment of choice is surgical excision.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • The Skin
      18.9
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 30-year-old man with type-1 diabetes mellitus on insulin presents in the A&E...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old man with type-1 diabetes mellitus on insulin presents in the A&E with fever, cough, vomiting and abdominal pain.
      Examination reveals a dry mucosa, decreased skin turgor and a temperature of 37.8 °C.
      Chest examination reveals bronchial breathing in the right lower lobe, and a chest X-ray shows it to be due to a right lower zone consolidation.
      Other investigations show:
      Blood glucose: 35 mmol/l
      Na+: 132 mmol/l
      K+: 5.5 mmol/l
      urea: 8.0 mmol/l
      creatinine: 120 μmol/l
      pH: 7.15
      HCO3: 12 mmol/l
      p(CO2): 4.6 kPa
      chloride: 106 mmol/l.
      Urinary ketones are positive (+++).

      The patient is admitted to the hospital and treated. Which of the following should not be used while treating him?

      Your Answer: Bicarbonate

      Explanation:

      Bicarbonate therapy is not indicated in mild and moderate forms of DKA because metabolic acidosis will correct with insulin therapy. The use of bicarbonate in severe DKA is controversial due to a lack of prospective randomized studies. It is thought that the administration of bicarbonate may actually result in peripheral hypoxemia, worsening of hypokalaemia, paradoxical central nervous system acidosis, cerebral oedema in children and young adults, and an increase in intracellular acidosis. Because severe acidosis is associated with worse clinical outcomes and can lead to impairment in sensorium and deterioration of myocardial contractility, bicarbonate therapy may be indicated if the pH is 6.9 or less.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      38.5
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 60-year-old man with a history of recent thyrotoxicosis underwent major surgery a...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man with a history of recent thyrotoxicosis underwent major surgery a week ago. He now presents with altered mental status, tachycardia, high-grade fever, vomiting and cardiac failure. A diagnosis of thyroid storm (crisis) is made.
      What is the most important next step in management?

      Your Answer: Potassium iodide should be given immediately before propylthiouracil

      Correct Answer: Transfer the patient to ITU

      Explanation:

      Thyroid storm, also referred to as thyrotoxic crisis, is an acute, life-threatening, hypermetabolic state induced by excessive release of thyroid hormones (THs) in individuals with thyrotoxicosis.
      Patients with thyroid storm should be treated in an ICU setting for close monitoring of vital signs and for access to invasive monitoring and inotropic support, if necessary.
      – Supportive measures
      If needed, immediately provide supplemental oxygen, ventilatory support, and intravenous fluids. Dextrose solutions are the preferred intravenous fluids to cope with continuously high metabolic demand.
      – Correct electrolyte abnormalities.
      – Treat cardiac arrhythmia, if necessary.
      – Aggressively control hyperthermia by applying ice packs and cooling blankets and by administering acetaminophen (15 mg/kg orally or rectally every 4 hours).
      – Antiadrenergic drugs.
      – Thionamides: Correct the hyperthyroid state. Administer antithyroid medications to block further synthesis of thyroid hormones (THs).
      High-dose propylthiouracil (PTU) or methimazole may be used for treatment of thyroid storm.
      – Administer glucocorticoids to decrease peripheral conversion of T4 to T3. This may also be useful in preventing relative adrenal insufficiency due to hyperthyroidism and improving vasomotor symptoms.
      – Bile acid sequestrants prevent reabsorption of free THs in the gut (released from conjugated TH metabolites secreted into bile through the enterohepatic circulation).
      – Treat the underlying condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      51.1
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 60 year-old patient known with stable angina was advised to have a...

    Correct

    • A 60 year-old patient known with stable angina was advised to have a contrast coronary angiography. Before the procedure, what will be the most appropriate step to take?

      Your Answer: IV 0.9% Saline

      Explanation:

      Contrast material poses a greater threat for contrast induced nephropathy. In order to decrease the chance of contrast nephropathy, IV 0.9% saline is considered as the best fluid to maintain blood pressure. Normal Saline helps to expand intravascular volume and decrease the renin angiotensin system activity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      31.9
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 50-year-old female was examined after complaining of weak limbs. It was discovered...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old female was examined after complaining of weak limbs. It was discovered she had burn marks on her fingers, diminished reflexes, and wasted and weak hands. Additionally, she has dissociated sensory loss and weak spastic legs. What is the diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Freidriech's ataxia

      Correct Answer: Syringomyelia

      Explanation:

      All of the symptoms experienced by this patient are consistent with Syringomyelia. The sensory features are as follows: loss of temperature and pain sensation; sensory loss in the arms, shoulders, and upper body; touch, vibration, and position senses are affected in the feet as the syrinx enlarges into the dorsal column. Motor features are as follows: muscle wasting and weakness which begins in the hand, and moves onto the forearms and shoulders; loss of tendon reflexes. Autonomic involvement, such as the bladder and bowel, can occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      63
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 50-year-old male patient with Pulmonary Tuberculosis is taking Ethambutol, Isoniazid, Pyrazinamide, Pyridoxine,...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old male patient with Pulmonary Tuberculosis is taking Ethambutol, Isoniazid, Pyrazinamide, Pyridoxine, and Rifampicin. Which of the above drugs is associated with peripheral neuropathy?

      Your Answer: Isoniazid

      Explanation:

      Isoniazid is associated with peripheral neuropathy, which occurs due to deficiency of biologically active pyridoxine. The deficiency is caused by the combination of isoniazid and pyridoxine to form a hydrazone which is excreted in the urine. Pyridoxine supplementation reduces the risk associated with Isoniazid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 39-year-old accountant with long-standing gastro-oesophageal reflux disease is reviewed in clinic. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old accountant with long-standing gastro-oesophageal reflux disease is reviewed in clinic. He has recently switched from ranitidine to omeprazole.

      What is the main benefit of omeprazole compared to ranitidine?

      Your Answer: Decreased post-prandial acid production

      Correct Answer: Irreversible blockade of H+/K+ ATPase

      Explanation:

      Proton pump inhibitors can reduce gastric acid secretion by up to 99%. Acid production resumes following the normal renewal of gastric parietal cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      38.4
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 58-year-old male attends a doctor's surgery to get help with quitting drinking...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old male attends a doctor's surgery to get help with quitting drinking alcohol. He expressed that he wishes to avoid the unpleasant alcohol craving experiences. From the following options, what should be prescribed to the patient?

      Your Answer: Methadone

      Correct Answer: Acamprosate

      Explanation:

      Acamprosate (calcium acetyl-homotaurine) helps to restore the normal activity of glutaminergic neurons, which usually become hyperexcited following chronic alcohol exposure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency & Critical Care
      26.5
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Infectious Diseases (3/3) 100%
Cardiovascular System (1/5) 20%
Emergency & Critical Care (1/3) 33%
Haematology & Oncology (1/1) 100%
Nervous System (2/3) 67%
Geriatric Medicine (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal System (2/2) 100%
Endocrine System & Metabolism (3/4) 75%
The Skin (2/2) 100%
Gastrointestinal System (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (2/3) 67%
Renal System (1/2) 50%
Passmed