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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old girl presents to the clinic with a 1-week history of headaches, nasal congestion, and facial pain which becomes worse upon leaning forward. Assuming that she's suffering from sinusitis, which sinus is most commonly the site of infection?
Your Answer: Ethmoidal
Correct Answer: Maxillary
Explanation:Based on the clinical scenario, the most probable diagnosis for this patient is maxillary sinusitis.The maxillary sinus drains from its superior aspect, leaving it prone to infections. It is the most commonly affected sinus in sinusitis.Common symptoms of maxillary sinusitis include postnasal discharge, pain, headache and toothache.Radiological imaging may show a fluid level in the antrum.Common organisms causing maxillary sinusitis include Haemophilus influenzae or Streptococcus pneumoniae.Treatment with antral lavage may facilitate diagnosis and relieve symptoms. Antimicrobial therapy has to be continued for long periods. Antrostomy may be needed.Other options:- Frontal sinusitis more commonly causes intracranial complications, but it is still less frequent than maxillary sinusitis.- The petrosal sinus is not a cavity within bone| rather, it is a venous structure located beneath the brain.- Frontoethmoidal sinusitis: It usually presents with frontal headache, nasal obstruction and altered sense of smell. Inflammation may progress to involve periorbital tissues. Ocular symptoms may occur, and secondary CNS involvement brought about by infection entering via emissary veins. CT scanning is the imaging modality of choice. Early cases may be managed with antibiotics. More severe cases usually require surgical drainage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 13-year-old girl was recently diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus about two weeks ago and started on an insulin pump. Which of the following complications is least likely to occur due to the treatment modality adopted?
Your Answer: Anaphylaxis
Correct Answer: Lipoatrophy
Explanation:Among the given options, lipoatrophy takes time to develop as it is a long-term complication of insulin therapy. Since it has only been two weeks since the initiation of insulin therapy, it is unlikely to occur so early.The risk of lipoatrophy is reduced with newer insulins and also can be avoided by site rotation.However, anaphylaxis, allergic reactions, infection and abscesses at the site of an insulin pump can occur in this patient as a complication of insulin therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old boy presents with poor development of secondary sex characteristics, colour blindness and a decreased sense of smell. On examination, his testes are small soft and located in the scrotum.What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Klinefelter’s syndrome
Correct Answer: Kallmann’s syndrome
Explanation:Classic Kallmann syndrome (KS) is due to isolated hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. Most patients have gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) deficiency, as suggested by their response to pulsatile GnRH therapy. The hypothalamic-pituitary function is otherwise normal in most patients, and hypothalamic-pituitary imaging reveals no space-occupying lesions. By definition, either anosmia or severe hyposmia is present in patients with Kallmann syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 5 week old boy presents with a history of jerky movements involving both upper and lower limbs. The parents admit that this happens 2-3 times during sleep, without waking him up. He feeds well and doesn’t seem to cry more than normally. He was a term baby, born without any perinatal complications. The neurological examination turns out normal. Parents worry he has seizures as they have a 3 year old nephew with epilepsy. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Benign neonatal sleep myoclonus
Explanation:Benign neonatal sleep myoclonus is a condition characterised by neonatal onset myoclonic jerks during NREM. Characteristic for this disorder is the absence of electroencephalographic findings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Which of the given medical conditions does NOT produce adrenal insufficiency?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypoparathyroidism
Explanation:Adrenal insufficiency is a serious medical condition that leads to inadequate secretion of corticosteroids. There are three main types of adrenal insufficiency: primary, secondary, and tertiary, based on the location of the abnormality. Primary adrenal insufficiency is caused by any pathology located inside the adrenal glands. The most common cause of primary adrenal insufficiency is Addison’s disease, which is an autoimmune condition. Adrenoleukodystrophy is an X-linked neurodegenerative disease that also causes primary adrenal insufficiency. Secondary adrenal insufficiency is caused by any pathological impairment of the pituitary gland or the hypothalamus. The important causes of secondary adrenal insufficiency include iatrogenic (steroid use), pituitary tumours like craniopharyngioma, and conditions leading to panhypopituitarism like Sheehan’s syndrome. Tertiary adrenal insufficiency is caused by the deficiency of the corticotropin-releasing hormone. Hypoparathyroidism does not cause adrenal insufficiency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old boy is brought to the hospital by his parents with complaints of pain in his legs when walking. Musculoskeletal and neurological examination is unremarkable. The blood pressure in his right arm is 160/90. His femoral pulses are present but were harder to feel than normal. On auscultation, you find an ejection click at the base, accompanied by an ejection systolic murmur heard loudest at the right upper sternal edge, but audible also at the mid-left sternal edge and back. His ECG has findings suggestive of left ventricular hypertrophy, but his chest X-ray is normal. What is the most probable diagnosis for this boy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Coarctation of the aorta
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis for this patient would be Coarctation of Aorta (CoA).Infants with CoA present within the first few weeks of life with signs suggestive of congestive cardiac failure and general circulatory shock. In these patients, the aorta is supplied by the right ventricle, via the ductus arteriosus. Pathophysiology:When the left ventricle supplies the aorta via the aortic isthmus, children are usually asymptomatic or may present with occasional complaints of leg pain. Associated cardiac anomalies are uncommon but for a bicuspid aortic valve, which is present in approximately 50% of cases. Good collateral circulation usually develops in these patients, which in the long term, causes notching of ribs. Clinical Presentation:Clinically, there may be hypertension in the upper limbs (or higher BP readings than in the lower limbs), and leg pulses are absent, or weak and delayed. A systolic click and aortic ejection systolic murmur are heard, caused by the bicuspid aortic valve. Management:The primary medical management is to treat hypertension. After stabilization, the patient can undergo definitive surgical repair. Transcatheter balloon angioplasty of the coarctation is controversial, but ballooning +/- stenting of re-coarctation following surgery is commonly performed.Systemic hypertension may occur following repair, even in the absence of re-coarctation necessitating the re-initiation/continuation of antihypertensive therapy in these patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Diffusion is the movement of molecules from a region of high concentration to a region of low concentration. Which of these changes will decrease the rate of diffusion of a substance?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: An increase in the molecular weight of the substance
Explanation:Unless given IV, a drug must cross several semipermeable cell membranes before it reaches the systemic circulation. Drugs may cross cell membranes by diffusion, amongst other mechanisms. The rate of diffusion of a substance is proportional to the difference in the concentration of the diffusing substance between the two sides of the membrane, the temperature of the solution, the permeability of the membrane and, in the case of ions, the electrical potential difference between the two sides of the membrane.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Fluid And Electrolytes
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is true regarding eczema herpeticum?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Is usually associated with lymphadenopathy
Explanation:Eczema herpeticum (also called Kaposi varicelliform eruption) is a disseminated viral illness usually associated with lymphadenopathy.It is most often caused by Herpes Simplex type 1 or type 2. Occasionally, other viruses such as coxsackievirus A16 may cause eczema herpeticum. Affected children usually develop itchy blisters and fever after coming in contact with an affected individual who may or may not display cold sores.It is characterised by an itchy and sometimes painful cluster of blisters most commonly on the face initially. This spreads over one to several weeks resulting in further crops of blisters which can become confluent. Lymphadenopathy and fever are common in these patients.The severity varies from mild illness to life-threatening, especially in immunocompromised children or young infants. It is markedly more common in children with atopic dermatitis. It is one of the few dermatological emergencies, and oral antivirals are often indicated. Referral to an ophthalmologist may be needed if there is eyelid or eye involvement. Occasionally, superadded skin infections caused by staphylococci and streptococci can occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old doctor who has recently been diagnosed with melanoma asks about survival rates associated with this condition. Which of the following statistical methods is employed to predict the survival rates?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Kaplan-Meier estimator
Explanation:The Kaplan–Meier estimator, also known as the product limit estimator, is a non-parametric statistic used to estimate the survival function from lifetime data. In medical research, it is often used to measure the fraction of patients living for a certain amount of time after treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Achondroplasia is NOT associated with which of the following cranial abnormalities?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prominent maxilla
Explanation:Achondroplasia is one of the commonest forms of skeletal dysplasias that lead to dwarfism. Multiple skeletal deformities are associated with it but the common cranial abnormalities are macrocephaly, frontal bossing, depressed nasal bridge, narrowed foramen magnum, and the presence of communicating hydrocephalus. A prominent maxilla is not associated with achondroplasia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old girl was brought to the hospital with complaints of fever. 5 days ago, she was taken to her GP with lower abdominal pain and leukocytes 3+ on urine dipstick. She was treated with trimethoprim. On examination, she is found to have a low-grade pyrexia, a CRP of 254 mg/L, and a palpable mass in the right iliac fossa. She is able to consume both solids and liquids. Based on the clinical scenario, what is the probable diagnosis and most appropriate management for this child?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: This is an appendix mass and intravenous antibiotics where observation is the initial treatment
Explanation:The most appropriate diagnosis for this patient is appendicular mass. The initial treatment, according to the Ochsner-Sherren regimen recommended by Hamilton Bailey, would be the initiation of intravenous antibiotics.RationaleThe presentation is highly suggestive of appendicular mass. The correct management is broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics such as co-amoxiclav and amikacin plus observation. Conservative management is the preferred treatment as surgical exploration at this stage can result in increased morbidity.The child should be allowed to eat and drink. If there are on-going temperature spikes, signs of obstruction or severe colicky abdominal pain, then surgery is required. The majority of patients respond to conservative management.Other options:- This is a partially treated appendicitis which has formed an appendix mass. Rather than planning appendectomy immediately| Hamilton Bailey recommended interval appendectomy after 6 weeks post-discharge. However, the need for interval appendectomy is still under debate.- Drainage via interventional radiology is not recommended in this patient as it can lead to swinging pyrexia secondary to peritonitis secondary to the collection.- The patient would have high-grade pyrexia and be constitutionally unwell if the patient was a patient of pyelonephritis. The presentation of the patient is more suggestive of appendicular mass.- The history would be more extended with symptoms of weight loss and altered bowel habit if the patient had Crohn’s disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old female presents to the emergency department with recurrent epistaxis and a history of menorrhagia. The physician suspects Von Willebrand disease and requests for blood tests. Lab investigations reveal a prolonged bleeding time and thrombocytopenia. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bernard - Soulier syndrome
Explanation:Bernard- Soulier Syndrome results from a deficiency of platelet glycoprotein protein Ib, which mediates the initial interaction of platelets with the subendothelial components via the von Willebrand protein. It is a rare but severe bleeding disorder. Platelets do not aggregate to ristocetin. The platelet count is low, but, characteristically, the platelets are large, often the size of red blood cells, and may be missed on complete blood counts because most automatic counters do not count them as platelets.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Tuberous sclerosis is associated with all, EXCEPT which of the given clinical findings?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lisch nodules of the iris
Explanation:Tuberous sclerosis is an autosomal dominant neurocutaneous condition associated with increased psychiatric co-morbidity. It results from the mutation of TSC1 or TSC2 tumour suppressor genes. Multiple benign tumours of the brain and other vital organs are characteristic of this disease. Important findings include subependymal nodules, bone cysts, cardiac rhabdomyoma, and learning difficulties. Lisch nodules of the iris occur in neurofibromatosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 2-day old baby who suffered from voiding difficulties is diagnosed with hypospadias. Which of the following abnormalities is most often associated with this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cryptorchidism
Explanation:Hypospadias is an abnormality of anterior urethral and penile development. The urethral opening is located on the ventral aspect of the penis proximal to the tip of the glans penis, which, in this condition, is open. The urethral opening may be located as proximal as in the scrotum or perineum. The penis may also have associated ventral shortening and curvature, called chordee, with more proximal urethral defects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 9 year old boy was admitted with gastroenteritis. The boy's symptoms started two days ago with profound diarrhoea and emesis. Blood exams show the following: Sodium=148mmol/l, Potassium=2.2mmol/l, Urea=20mmol/l, Glucose=4.3mmol/l. What would be the best management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: V normal saline and potassium supplement
Explanation:The boy needs re-hydration and hydro-electrolytic re-balancing due to fluid losses from the gastroenteritis and subsequent dehydration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 6 year old boy presents with severe gastroenteritis and dehydration. He is receiving IV fluids and a routine blood test is done to evaluate kidney function and look for signs of acute kidney injury. All of the following are being used to evaluate for kidney injury, except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Potassium >6mmol/l
Explanation:Hyperkalaemia is not to evaluate or detect AKI but rather the result of it. If one of the rest of the options is present, then AKI would be suspected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Which of the following is incorrect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The embryonic phase is the first 20 weeks in utero
Explanation:The embryonic period comprises of the first 8 weeks of pregnancy. It is divided into a preembryonic phase (from the 1st to the 3rd week), in which the three germinal layers arise, and into the embryonic phase proper (from the 4th to 8th week), in which the embryonic organ anlagen arise.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Which is true regarding the histopathology of psoriasis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Histological features seen in psoriasis include acanthosis and parakeratosis
Explanation:Histology of psoriasis is characterised by parakeratosis (cell nuclei within stratum corneum) and thickened projections of the prickle cell layer of keratinocytes (psoriasiform hyperplasia or acanthosis). Orthokeratosis refers to the formation of a pathological anuclear keratin layer in the skin.The stratum granulosum is actually thinned or absent in patients with psoriasis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old male fell whilst playing football and was injured by a sharp wooden splinter sustaining a cut to his left shin. His immunisation history is up to date. In relation to tetanus prevention, select the most suitable management step.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No action is required
Explanation:According to the US immunisation schedule, the child is immunised. So this boy does not need any extra immunisation for tetanus now.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 20
Incorrect
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In females, precocious puberty may be defined as the development of secondary sexual characteristics before which of the following ages?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 8 years of age
Explanation:Precocious puberty is the development of secondary sexual characteristics before the age of 8 in females, and 9 in males. The first sign of early puberty in females is breast enlargement, followed by the appearance of pubic and axillary hair, and finally menarche, 2-3 years after the onset of thelarche. Precocious puberty is caused by the premature activation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis where FSH and LH levels are raised. Less common is the gonadotrophin independent form, which is due to excess sex hormones, but low FSH and LH levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Which of the following cellular components is neuron-specific?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nissl substance
Explanation:Nissl body is a neuron-specific cellular structure. It is composed of rough endoplasmic reticulum and fine granules. The rough endoplasmic reticulum contains free ribosomes, and are the hub of protein synthesis. When these substances are exposed to a cresyl violet solution, they show selective-staining by turning purple-blue. In pathologic processes, they may undergo chromatolysis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Which of the following descriptions qualifies as a diagnostic criteria for Neurofibromatosis type 1?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: > 6 cafe au lait spots or hyperpigmented macules which are >5mm in children under age 10, and >15mm in children over 10
Explanation:Clinical diagnosis of neurofibromatosis type 1 requires the presence of at least 2 of 7 criteria. Many of these signs do not appear until later childhood or adolescence, and thus confirming the diagnosis often is delayed despite a suspicion of NF1. The 7 clinical criteria used to diagnose NF1 are as follows:- Six or more café-au-lait spots or hyperpigmented macules greater than 5 mm in diameter in prepubertal children and greater than 15 mm in postpubertal- Axillary or inguinal freckles (>2) – Two or more typical neurofibromas or one plexiform neurofibroma- Optic nerve glioma- Two or more iris hamartomas (Lisch nodules), often identified only through slit-lamp examination by an ophthalmologist- Sphenoid dysplasia or typical long-bone abnormalities such as pseudarthrosis- A first-degree relative (e.g., mother, father, sister, brother) with NF1
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Which ectopic tissue is usually contained in the Meckel's diverticulum?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gastric
Explanation:The Meckel’s diverticulum is a vestigial remnant of the omphalomesenteric duct. This structure is also referred to as the vitelline and contains two types of ectopic tissue, namely| gastric and pancreatic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A new-born has several strawberry naevi. You're concerned about internal haemangiomas. How many naevi should warrant further investigation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: More than 5
Explanation:Eight percentage of infantile haemangiomas are focal and solitary. Sixty percent of cutaneous haemangiomas occur on the head and neck, 25% on the trunk, and 15% on the extremities. Haemangiomas also can occur in extracutaneous sites, including the liver, gastrointestinal tract, larynx, CNS, pancreas, gall bladder, thymus, spleen, lymph nodes, lung, urinary bladder, and adrenal glands.Guidelines on the management of infantile haemangioma were released in December 2018 by the American Academy of Paediatrics stating that:Imaging is not necessary unless the diagnosis is uncertain, there are five or more cutaneous infantile haemangiomas present, or there is suspicion of anatomic abnormalities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old child was found to have orchidomegaly and splenomegaly. Blood tests show a WBC = 1.7 X 104/L, Hb = 7.1 g/dl and platelets = 44 X 104g/dl. His parents mention that he suffers from fatigue while at presentation he looks pale and has a fever. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
Explanation:Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is an aggressive type of blood and bone marrow cancer which can appear in childhood. Signs of childhood ALL include: Fever, Easy bruising, Petechiae, Bone or joint pain, Painless lumps in multiple areas of the body, Weakness, fatigue or paleness, and Loss of appetite. Blood tests may show elevated white blood cells, decreased values of red blood cells and low platelet count.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Mature human milk contains how many calories?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 70kcal/100ml
Explanation:Human breast milk composition changes with the progressive age of the infant. Breastmilk produced for a preterm baby often has a higher caloric content than breastmilk for a term baby. After the production of colostrum in the first days of life, the milk continues to mature. by week 4-6 milk can be considered fully mature. The average calories found in mature breastmilk are about 70kcal/100ml
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nutrition
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Which of the following conditions is NOT a recognized cause of respiratory distress syndrome (SDLD)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Maternal hypertension
Explanation:Insufficient surfactant production in premature infants leads to respiratory distress syndrome or surfactant deficient lung disease (SDLD), characterized by structurally immature lungs. There are many risk factors of this disease, some of them include male gender, caesarean section, infants of diabetic mothers, being the second born of the premature twins, perinatal asphyxia, sepsis, and hypothermia. Maternal hypertension is not a recognized risk factor for respiratory distress syndrome| instead, pregnancy-induced hypertension and chronic maternal hypertension are the protective factors against this disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 14-month-old girl was brought to the hospital by her mother, with complaints of a 0.5 cm cystic lump on the lateral aspect of her eyebrow. It has been present since birth but is slowly increasing in size. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: External angular dermoid
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis for this patient would be external angular dermoid.External angular dermoids typically form where there are overlapping tissue planes such as the midline. They contain a caseous material. The cysts are essentially benign in nature and are excised for cosmetic purposes or when they encroach on vision.Other options:- Branchial remnant typically presents as a supraclavicular pit.- Sebaceous cysts tend to be present on the scalp.- There is nothing in the clinical scenario to suggest a vascular malformation such as pigment change or ‘bag of worms’.- Lymphatic malformations are typically found in the neck or under the axilla.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Which is not true relating to growth in the normal child?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Full growth hormone responsiveness develops in puberty
Explanation:Most healthy infants and children grow predictably, following a typical pattern of progression in weight, length, and head circumference. Normal human growth is pulsatile| periods of rapid growth (growth spurts) are separated by periods of no measurable growth Growth hormone levels and responsiveness’ develop in late infancy, increase during childhood and peak during puberty.Typical milestones — General guidelines regarding length or height gain during infancy and childhood include the following:- The average length at birth for a term infant is 20 inches (50 cm)- Infants grow 10 inches (25 cm) during the first year of life- Toddlers grow 4 inches (10 cm) between 12 and 24 months, 3 inches (7.5 cm) between 24 and 36 months, and 3 inches (7.5 cm) between 36 and 48 months- Children reach one-half of their adult height by 24 to 30 months- Children grow 2 inches per year (5 cm per year) between age four years and puberty- There is a normal deceleration of height velocity before the pubertal growth spurt.Growth continues past pubertal growth spurt as there is increase in spinal length.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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In the treatment of infants with gastroenteritis, which of the following statements is the most accurate one?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Should be admitted to hospital if they are unable to tolerate fluid orally
Explanation:The main problem with infants having gastroenteritis is dehydration. So they should be admitted to the hospital for IV fluids if they are not tolerating oral fluids.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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