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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 33-year -old G2Pl woman who is at 10 weeks gestation presented to the medical clinic for antenatal visit. It was revealed that she has a twin pregnancy. She was known to have had a complicated previous pregnancy with placental abruption at 34 weeks.
Which of the following is considered the next step in best managing the patient in addition to routine antenatal care?Your Answer: Hospital admission after 34 weeks
Correct Answer: Increased iron and folic acid supplementation
Explanation:Twin pregnancies are at risk for iron deficiency due to significant maternal, fetal, and placental demands. Recommendations regarding the optimal iron dose in twin pregnancies are based on clinical expert opinions, advocating doubling the dose of iron from 30 mg of elemental iron to 60 mg routinely during the second and third trimester, regardless of maternal iron stores.
If pregnant with twins, patient should take the same prenatal vitamins she would take for any pregnancy, but a recommendation of extra folic acid and iron will be made. The additional folic acid and extra iron will help ward off iron-deficiency anaemia, which is more common when patient is pregnant with multiples.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 2
Correct
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A 22-year-old nulliparous otherwise healthy woman presents with lower abdominal pain at 16 weeks of gestation. Her body temperature is 37.8 degrees Celsius. She appears to be in good health and is eating properly. Her uterus had been discovered to be retroverted but of normal size at her prior antenatal check at 11 weeks of pregnancy. Which of the following diagnoses is the most likely?
Your Answer: Urinary tract infection.
Explanation:Lower abdominal pain can be caused by any of the conditions listed in the answers.
A urinary tract infection is the most likely cause.
Unless it was an abdominal ectopic or an interstitial pregnancy, an ectopic pregnancy.
will almost definitely have shown up before the 15th week of pregnancy.
A retroverted gravid uterus may impinge at 15 weeks of pregnancy, however, this is unlikely to be linked to a temperature of 37.8°C.
It’s also possible that it’s the source of acute urine retention.
Complications of the corpus luteum cyst normally manifest themselves considerably earlier in pregnancy, and severe appendicitis is far less likely to be the source of discomfort than a urinary tract infection. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old nulliparous woman presents with the complaint of malodorous vaginal discharge for the past one month. Patient has tried various over-the-counter vaginal douche products without any improvement. Her last menstrual period was 2 weeks ago, during which she noticed no change in her symptoms. In addition to the discharge, patient also experiences intermittent, crampy abdominal pain along with a feeling of gas passing through her vagina. Patient has had no history of surgeries in the past.
On examination her vital signs seems to be normal. Speculum examination shows a malodorous, tan vaginal discharge with an erythematous patch over the posterior vaginal wall. The cervix is nulliparous and has no visible lesions or areas of friability. A sinus with purulent drainage is found in the perianal skin.
Which among the following conditions will be the most likely underlying cause for this patient’s presentation?Your Answer: Retained foreign body within the vagina
Correct Answer: Transmural inflammation of the bowel
Explanation:Common risk factors for Rectovaginal fistula are Pelvic radiation, Obstetric trauma, Pelvic surgery, Colon cancer, Diverticulitis and Crohn disease. Uncontrollable passage of gas &/or feces from the vagina is considered the common clinical feature of Rectovaginal fistula.
Diagnosis is done with the help of physical examination, fistulography, Magnetic resonance imaging and Endosonography.This patient, mentioned in the case, presents with malodorous vaginal discharge (ie, stool), gas passing through the vagina, and a posterior vaginal lesion most likely has a rectovaginal fistula, which is an aberrant connection between bowel and vagina. Although development of rectovaginal fistula is commonly associated with obstetric trauma or pelvic surgery, patients without these risk factors are recommended to be evaluated for other additional causes like gastrointestinal conditions.
This patient’s intermittent, crampy abdominal pain and perianal sinus in the setting of a rectovaginal fistula is most likely due to an underlying Crohn disease. Crohn disease, is a transmural inflammation of the gastrointestinal tract, which predisposes patients to bowel abscess, fissure, and fistula formation. Although the rectum is typically spared in Crohn disease, a non-healing, transmural ulcer present in the anal canal can progress to form a rectovaginal fistula.
In addition to standard Crohn disease management like anti-TNF inhibitors, glucocorticoids, etc patients with a rectovaginal fistula may require surgical correction.Bartholin gland cysts or abscesses can present with malodorous vaginal discharge; however, patients typically have a posterior vulvar mass located at the 4 or 8 o’clock position. In addition, Bartholin gland cysts will not present with crampy abdominal pain or passage of flatus or stool through the vagina.
Hidradenitis which is the chronic occlusion and inflammation of hair follicles, can cause groin abscesses with sinus tracts and associated purulent drainage. However, it is not associated with abdominal pain or malodorous vaginal discharge. In addition, this condition is typically multifocal and located in more than one intertriginous areas like axillary, inguinal or gluteal regions.
Cervical cancer or a retained foreign body in the vagina can cause malodorous vaginal discharge and abdominal pain. However, patients will typically have visible findings like cervical lesion, foreign body etc on speculum examination, and these neither are associated with the passage of flatus through the vagina.
Complications of Crohn disease include perianal disease like abscess, fissure and fistula like rectovaginal fistula, due to transmural inflammation of the gastrointestinal tract. Patients with a rectovaginal fistula typically presents with malodorous, tan vaginal discharge, passage of flatus through the vagina and a posterior vaginal lesion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Yasmin®, which contains 3 mg of drospirenone and 30 mcg of ethinyl oestradiol, has been approved for usage in South Africa.
Which of the following factors has contributed to it becoming the most popular oral contraceptive pill among South African women?Your Answer: It has a protective effect against cervical cancer
Correct Answer: It has not weight gain as an adverse effect and may be associated with weight loss
Explanation:Yasmin has been linked to decreased fluid retention and weight gain as a side effect of COCs, which is why most women who experience this side effect prefer Yasmin®.
Due to its anti-mineralocorticoid properties, drospirenone, unlike earlier progestogens, is associated with no weight gain or even moderate weight loss.
Yasmin has a similar failure rate to other COCs. No evidence using Yasmin is linked to a lower risk of cervical cancer as a long-term side effect of COCs. Yasmin, like all COCs, can cause spotting and irregular bleeding in the first few months of use.
Drospirenone, a progesterone component, has antiandrogenic properties and is slightly more successful in treating acne, but the difference is not big enough to make it preferable in terms of acne therapy or prevention when compared to other COCs. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 66-year-old lady comes to your clinic complaining of a brownish vaginal discharge that has been bothering her for the previous three months. Atrophic vagina is seen on inspection.
Which of the following diagnoses is the most likely?Your Answer: Vaginal atrophy
Explanation:Endometrial cancer should always be the first diagnosis to rule out in a 65-year-old lady with brownish vaginal discharge. The inquiry focuses on the most likely source of the symptoms, rather than the most significant diagnosis to explore.
Blood typically causes the dark hue of vaginal discharge. The uterine cavity or the vagina can both be the source of bleeding. Only 5-10% of postmenopausal women with vaginal bleeding were found to have endometrial cancer. Around 60% of the women had atrophic vaginitis.Urogenital atrophy is caused by oestrogen insufficiency in postmenopausal women. Urogenital atrophy can cause the following symptoms:
– Dry vaginal skin
– Vaginal inflammation or burning
– Vaginal lubrication is reduced during sexual activity.
– Vulvar or vaginal pain, as well as dyspareunia (at the introitus or within the vagina)
– Vaginal or vulvar bleeding (e.g. postcoital bleeding. fissures)
– Vaginal discharge from the cervix (leukorrhea or yellow and malodorous)
– A vaginal bulge or pelvic pressure
– Symptoms of the urinary tract (e.g. urinary frequency, dysuria, urethral discomfort, haematuria). -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Following parturition uterine contractions called Afterpains may typically continue for how long?
Your Answer: 12-24 hours
Correct Answer: None of the above
Explanation:Afterpains may continue for 2-3 days (so none of the above). Breastfeeding may intensify pain due to stimulation of Oxytocin which causes uterine contractions
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 7
Correct
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Which ONE among the following factors does not increase the risk for developing postpartum endometritis?
Your Answer: Advanced maternal age
Explanation:The most common clinical findings in a postpartum women with endometritis are postpartum fever, with tachycardia relative to the rise in temperature, midline lower abdominal pain and uterine tenderness from the 2nd to 10th day of postpartum.
Most common risk factors for the development of postpartum endometritis are:
– Cesarean deliveries are considered as the most important risk factor for postpartum endometritis, especially those performed after the onset of labour.
– Young maternal age.
– Multiple digital cervical examinations.
– Prolonged rupture of membranes.
– Retention of placental products.
– Prolonged labour.
– Chorioamnionitis.
Advanced maternal age is not considered as a risk factor for development of postpartum endometritis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 8
Incorrect
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After 2 years of marriage, a 36-year-old morbidly obese lady with a BMI of 41 has been unable to conceive. Her husband's sperm analysis is normal, and he has no additional abnormalities. The fallopian tube looks to be blocked.
What is the best course of action for her management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Suggest her to lose weight
Explanation:This patient has been unable to conceive for over a year, and her fallopian tubes are blocked. Her body mass index is 42.
Because she has obstructed Fallopian tubes, in-vitro fertilisation (IVF) is an alternative to getting pregnant for this patient.
A woman with a BMI over 35, on the other hand, will need twice as many IVF rounds to conceive as a woman of normal weight.
As a result, the greatest advise for successful IVF would be to decrease weight as the first step in management.
Obese (BMI less than 40) patients’ IVF success chances are reduced by 25% and 50%, respectively. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A baby with shoulder dystocia suffers a brachial plexus injury. The mother asks you if this will be permanent. What percentage of babies will have permanent neurological dysfunction as a result of brachial plexus injury secondary to shoulder dystocia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:of cases there is no permanent neurological disability. Shoulder dystocia is the most common cause of Erb’s palsy (Erb-Duchenne palsy) where there is injury to C5 and C6 of the brachial plexus (C5 to T1)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 46-year-old mother of three teenagers has been using the combination oestrogen/progestogen contraceptive pill for ten years and has had regular light menstrual cycles during that time. She stopped taking it three months ago. She hasn't had a period since then, except the one she had right after she stopped. She is quite worried and believes she is pregnant, even though she has no additional symptoms that point to this conclusion. A large retroverted uterus is discovered during a vaginal examination. Which of the following is the most appropriate piece of advice?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A pregnancy test should be performed.
Explanation:Despite the fact that pregnancy at her age is uncommon, the best advise you can give her is to take a pregnancy test.
If the test results show she is not pregnant, she can next decide whether to restart the oral contraceptive pill (0CP) or simply weep until the post-pill amenorrhoea goes away.
Although an increased follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) level may indicate ovarian failure, it does not guarantee that no more periods will occur and does not rule out the possibility of a future pregnancy.
Obviously, she should be recommended to use a contraceptive method like condoms until the cause of her amenorrhoea is determined.
Other hormonal tests, such as luteinizing hormone and prolactin testing, may be required. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Regarding cardiac examination during pregnancy which of the following findings should be considered pathological
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diastolic murmur
Explanation:Diastolic murmurs should be considered pathological until proven otherwise. The following are common and typically benign findings in pregnancy: A third heart sound after mid-pregnancy. Systolic flow murmurs are common. Left axis deviation on ECG is common, Sagging ST segments and inversion or flattening of the T wave in lead III may also occur
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old female presented with a lump in the upper outer quadrant of her left breast, which is 1.5cm in size and tender. What is the initial investigation to be done?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ultrasound
Explanation:Tenderness is usually suggestive of a benign breast mass such as a breast abscess. Ultrasound is used to distinguish solid from cystic structures and to direct needle aspiration for abscess drainage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman admitted with per vaginal bleeding and left sided pelvic pain for 2 days. There was no history of fever. She gave a history of absent periods for past 8 weeks. Abdominal examination revealed guarding and rebound tenderness in left iliac region. There was left sided cervical excitation on vaginal examination. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ectopic Pregnancy
Explanation:History of amenorrhoea, abdominal and vaginal examination are more favour of ectopic pregnancy. Endometriosis usually has a chronic cause and dysmenorrhoea. Salpingitis usually presents with fever. Ovarian torsion and ovarian tumours have different clinical presentations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, at 14 weeks of gestation comes to the office for a routine prenatal visit. She is feeling well and has no concerns. The patient had daily episodes of nausea and vomiting for the first few weeks of her pregnancy and those symptoms resolved 2 weeks ago. She has had no pelvic pain or vaginal bleeding, and is yet to feel any fetal movements.
Her first pregnancy ended in a cesarean delivery at 30 weeks of gestation due to breech presentation, complicated with severe features of preeclampsia. Patient has no other significant chronic medical conditions and her only medication is a daily dose of prenatal vitamin and have not reported of any medication allergies. The patient does not use tobacco, alcohol or other illicit drugs.
On examination her blood pressure is 112/74 mm of Hg and BMI is 24 kg/m2. Fetal heart rate is found to be 155/min. The uterus is gravid and nontender and the remainder of the examination is unremarkable.
Which of the following is considered to be the next best step in management of this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Low-dose aspirin
Explanation:Preeclampsia prevention
Preeclampsia is defined as a new-onset hypertension along with other features like proteinuria &/or end-organ damage at >20 weeks of gestation.
Patients with the following histories are at high risk for preeclampsia:
– Those with prior history of preeclampsia
– Those with chronic kidney disease
– Those with chronic hypertension
– Those with diabetes mellitus
– Multiple gestation
– Autoimmune disease
Patients belonging in the following criteria are at moderate risk for preeclampsia:
– Obesity
– Advanced maternal age
– NulliparityPreeclampsia is considered as the leading cause for maternal and fetal morbidity and mortality. This is due to its increased risk for complications such as stroke, placental abruption and disseminated intravascular coagulation. It is most likely caused due to abnormal vasoconstriction and increased platelet aggregation, which thereby results in placental infarction and ischemia. The condition can be effectively prevented by the administration of low-doses of aspirin at 12 weeks of gestation.
Patients with predisposing factors, such as chronic kidney disease, chronic hypertension and a history of preeclampsia, particularly with severe features or at <37 weeks gestation as in this patient, are at higher risk for developing preeclampsia.
In high risk patients, the only therapy proven to decrease the risk of preeclampsia is a daily administration of low-dose aspirin, as it inhibits platelet aggregation and helps in preventing placental ischemia. Treatment is initiated at 12 – 28 weeks of gestation, optimally before 16 weeks and is continued till delivery.Betamethasone is a drug used to accelerate fetal lung maturity in patients who are prone to imminent risk of preterm delivery before 37 weeks of gestation. In this case, if the patient develops pre-eclampsia requiring an urgent preterm delivery betamethasone will be indicated.
High-doses (4 mg) of folic acid is indicated in patients with high risk for a fetus with neural tube defects, as in those who have a history of any prior pregnancies affected or those patients who use any folate antagonist medications. In the given case patient is at average risk and requires only a regular dose of 0.4 mg which is found in most prenatal vitamins.
Intramuscular hydroxyprogesterone is indicated in pregnant patients with prior spontaneous preterm delivery due to preterm prelabor rupture of membranes, preterm labor, etc to decrease the possible risk for any recurrence. In patients who underwent preterm delivery due to other indications like preeclampsia with severe features, fetal growth restriction, etc it is not indicated.
Vaginal progesterone is administered to decrease the risk of preterm delivery in patients diagnosed with a shortened cervix, which is usually identified incidentally on anatomy ultrasound scan done between 16 and 24 weeks of gestation. This patient is currently at her 14 weeks, so this is not advisable.
Patients at high risk for pre-eclampsia, like those with preeclampsia in a prior pregnancy, are advised to start taking a daily low-dose aspirin as prophylaxis for prevention of pre-eclampsia during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A pregnant woman who is a heavy smoker, observed some thick white patches on the inside of her mouth. Her oral cavity appears inflamed on examination. Which diagnosis is most likely correct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Candidiasis
Explanation:During pregnancy, the chances for a woman to develop oral candidiasis double. An aphthous ulcer has a yellowish floor which is surrounded by an erythematous halo while in lichen planus, the lesions do not have the appearance of a thick white mark but are more or less lace-like. The lesions in leucoplakia have raised edges and they appear as bright white patches which are sharply defined and cannot be rubbed out. Smoking may affect the tongue, producing tongue coating. In this case the tongue is just inflamed which is a sign of infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Which of the following leaves the pelvis via the greater sciatic foramen?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pudendal Nerve
Explanation:The pudendal nerve arises from the S2-S4 nerve roots and it lies medial to the internal pudendal artery while exiting the pelvis via the greater sciatic foramen. It curves around the sacrospinous ligament and re-enters the pelvis via the lesser sciatic foramen and from there it runs medial to the ischial tuberosity over the obturator internus in the pudendal canal to the deep perineal pouch.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Warfarin embryopathy is typically the result of the mother taking warfarin during which stage of pregnancy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 6-12 weeks
Explanation:Warfarin is teratogenic if it is used in the first trimester. It causes bone defects and haemorrhages in the developing foetus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 21 year old patient presents to the clinic with a 48 hour history of unprotected sexual intercourse. She is not on any form of contraception. After discussion you prescribe a dose of Ulipristal 30 mg stat. Which of the following would be the appropriate advice regarding vomiting?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: If vomiting occurs within 3 hours a repeat dose should be taken
Explanation:Ulipristal acetate is a selective progesterone receptor modulator which regulates the luteinizing hormone (LH) surge, preventing ovulation. This emergency contraceptive can be used up to five days after unprotected sexual intercourse and is given as a 30mg oral dose. If vomiting occurs within three hours, then a second tablet is needed to ensure its effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 19
Incorrect
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All of the following organs are involved in oestrogen production except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anterior pituitary
Explanation:Oestrogen can be produced by variety of organs including the corpus leuteum, placenta, adrenal glands and testes. However it is not produced by the anterior pituitary. The anterior pituitary produces LH and FSH which in turn causes oestrogen secretion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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What type of virus is the Rubella virus?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Single stranded RNA (ssRNA)
Explanation:Rubella virus is the only member of the genus Rubivirus and is a type of Togavirus (Togaviridae). It is a single stranded RNA virus. Note for the exam if you are unsure – most RNA viruses encountered in clinical practice are single stranded. The exception is rotavirus which is dsRNA virus. RNA viruses that use DNA during their replication are classed as retroviruses (HIV is an example)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A patient attends clinic with a vaginal prolapse. On examination the vaginal prolapse is visible 1.5cm above the plane of the hymen. According to the POPQ classification what grade is this prolapse?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Grade 1
Explanation:This is a grade 1 prolapse
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 22
Incorrect
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What is the most common causative organism in Fitzhugh Curtis syndrome and ophthalmic neonatorum?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chlamydia trachomatis
Explanation:A rare complication of pelvic inflammatory disease is Fitz Hugh Curtis syndrome which is perihepatitis leading to the formation of adhesions between the liver and the peritoneal surface. It is most commonly caused by chlamydia and gonorrhoea. Ophthalmia neonatorum is conjunctivitis which is also caused by these pathogens.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Sensory supply to the clitoris is via branches of which nerve?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pudendal nerve
Explanation:The Pudendal nerve divides into inferior rectal, perineal and dorsal nerve of the clitoris (or penis in males). The dorsal nerve of clitoris supplies sensory innervation to the clitoris. The perineal branch supplies sensory innervation to the skin of the labia majora and minora and the vestibule.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 24
Incorrect
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In her first pregnancy, a 27-year-old lady suffered a fever and malaise around 10 weeks of pregnancy. She had come into touch with a youngster who had been diagnosed with rubella two weeks prior. Which of the following would be the best next step in your management career?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Serial blood samples for rubella antibody assessment.
Explanation:If the patient already has immunity (IgG positive) and if maternal rubella infection is the cause of the current symptoms (initial lgG and IgM negative, but IgM positive on a second sample 2-3 weeks later), amniocentesis may be required to confirm fetal infection.
Ultrasound may reveal growth limitation in late pregnancy, but a fetal congenital defect is rare when the infection begins at 10 weeks of pregnancy, and ultrasound testing at 12 weeks of pregnancy is unlikely to detect abnormalities, while it may discover one from 18-20 weeks. Given the well-known deleterious fetal effects of rubella infection in early pregnancy, gamma-globulin is unlikely to be beneficial at this point in the infective process, and pregnancy termination would certainly be considered by some individuals.
On the basis of prenatal rubella infection, this would not be recommended unless the infection was shown to have occurred. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Which of the following is contained within the deep perineal pouch?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Proximal portion of urethra
Explanation:The proximal portion of urethra in females or membranous urethra in males is in the deep perineal pouch
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old woman is under your care during her pregnancy.
She has had only one previous pregnancy in which her foetus had spina bifida.
Identify the most appropriate assessment, from the following choices, that would aid in detection of spina bifida in her current pregnancy.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ultrasound of the fetal spine at 16-18 weeks of gestation.
Explanation:An ultrasound of the foetal spine at 16-18 weeks of gestation is the most appropriate assessment (correct answer).
Ultrasound performed at 11-12 weeks of gestation can diagnose anencephaly, another neural tube defect, however; any vertebral column defect is unlikely to be detected.
In most cases of neural tube defects in the foetus, elevations will be noted in maternal alpha-fetoprotein levels at 12 to 15 weeks. However, it may not be possible to detect all such abnormalities and a confirmed diagnosis cannot be made.
Additionally, elevations in alpha-fetoprotein levels do not always correlate to the presence of foetal neural tube defects.
Nuchal translucency scans do not detect neural tube defects. They are performed to identify the risk of chromosomal abnormalities in the foetus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 39-year-old woman comes to your clinic for assessment and advice as she is planning to conceive over past three months with no success.
She has a history of obesity with BMI 40 and type 2 diabetes mellitus with latest HbA1c value of 11%. She had her last eye check six months ago which shows no evidence of retinopathy, and she does not have diabetic nephropathy.
Among the following which is a contraindication to pregnancy in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: History of type 2 diabetes mellitus with HBA1C above 10
Explanation:In patients who have an HbA1C value above 10%, it is better to postpone pregnancy until diabetes is under control. Also in those patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus, who are suffering from severe gastroparesis, those with advanced retinopathy, with severe diabetic renal disease and severe ischemic heart disease with uncontrolled hypertension pregnancy is contraindicated.
All the other options mentioned are incorrect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old menopausal woman complained of regular hot flushes that interfered with her sleep and job. She had a ten-year history of oestrogen-dependent breast cancer.
What is the most effective treatment for her symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Paroxetine
Explanation:Paroxetine is an SSRI used for hot flushes in women with contraindication for hormonal therapy.
Hormonal or other pharmacotherapy is usually needed for women with bothersome hot flashes. For most women with moderate to very severe hot flashes and no contraindications, we suggest MHT. Women with an intact uterus need both oestrogen and a progestin, while those who have undergone hysterectomy can receive oestrogen only. For women interested in MHT, the first step is to determine the potential risks for the specific individual.
The majority of perimenopausal and recently menopausal women are good candidates for short-term hormone therapy for symptom relief. However, for women with a history of breast cancer, coronary heart disease (CHD), a previous venous thromboembolic event (VTE) or stroke, or those at moderate or high risk for these complications, alternatives to hormone therapy should be suggested. For women with moderate to severe hot flashes who are not candidates for hormone therapy based upon their breast cancer, CHD, or VTE risk and for those who choose not to take MHT, we suggest nonhormonal agents. The agents most commonly used include SSRIs, serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs), antiepileptics, and centrally acting drugs.
Black Cohosh is found to be no more significant than placebo.
Long-term use of mefenamic acid is controversial and not recommended. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Herpes Simplex is which type of virus
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: double stranded DNA
Explanation:Herpes simplex is a double stranded DNA virus. There are two viral types, HSV-1 and HSV-2. The majority of orolabial infections are caused by HSV-1. These infections are usually acquired during childhood through direct physical contact such as kissing. Genital herpes is a sexually transmitted infection and is most commonly caused by HSV-2.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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What percentage of pregnant women have asymptomatic vaginal colonisation with candida?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 40%
Explanation:Vulvovaginal candidiasis is the most common genital infections and it is caused by candida albicans in 80-92% of the cases. It colonise the vaginal flora in 20% of non pregnant and 40% pregnant women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents with moderately severe pain in her left groin and thigh. She had recently travelled by airplane from overseas and is at 18 weeks of gestation of her second pregnancy. The only incidence of trauma she can think of is when she hit her left knee on a table yesterday.
On physical examination, it is found that she has some swelling of her left ankle that is not present on the right side. Her first pregnancy was unremarkable except for development of some symptoms that were believed to be related to pelvic symphyseal separation around 28 weeks of gestation.
Which one of the following is the mostly cause for this patient's pain?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: deep venous Thrombosis (DVT) in her left leg
Explanation:For this pregnant patient who recently travelled overseas most likely has a deep venous thrombosis (DVT). It would also be expected that the patient would have oedema in the symptomatic leg and account for the swelling described.
Though they could cause unilateral leg pain, neither symphyseal separation nor sciatica due to a prolapsed intervertebral disc usually occur as early as 18 weeks of gestation. This patient’s symptoms also do not suggest either diagnosis.
Pain due to trauma would usually be maximal at the site where the trauma took place, which would be in the knee for this patient. Traumatic pain and house cleaning also would not cause the pain described or result in ankle swelling.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 32
Incorrect
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In twin deliveries: Which is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: There is increased risk of postpartum haemorrhage
Explanation:Twin gestations are at increased risk for postpartum haemorrhage (PPH). A number of maternal and peripartum factors are associated with PPH requiring blood transfusion in twin gestations. Reducing the rate of caesarean delivery in twin pregnancies may decrease maternal hemorrhagic morbidity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 33
Incorrect
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What is the definition of hypertension in pregnancy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:The NICE guidelines on Hypertension in pregnancy define blood pressure in pregnancy as follows:
Mild hypertension: DBP=90-99 mmHg, SBP=140-149 mmHg. Moderate hypertension: DBP=100-109 mmHg, SBP=150-159 mmHg.
Severe hypertension: DBP=110 mmHg or greater, SBP=160 mmHg or greater. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A patient with amenorrhoea is seen in clinic. History and examination reveal the patient runs 10-20 miles every day and her BMI is 17.8. Which of the following is likely to explain her symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: WHO type I Ovulation Disorders
Explanation:World Health Organization (WHO) Group I ovulation disorder is due to hypothalamic pituitary failure. This is sometimes termed hypothalamic amenorrhoea or hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. Women can improve frequency of ovulation, conception and an uncomplicated pregnancy by increasing their body weight (if BMI of <19) and/or moderating their exercise levels (if they undertake high levels of exercise). GnRH and LH may be administered in these patients. PCOS falls under type II ovulation disorders. WHO Group III ovulation disorder is due to ovarian failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman at 37 weeks of gestation, who has been fine antenatally, presented with a history of sudden onset of severe abdominal pain with vaginal bleeding, and cessation of contractions after 18 hours of active pushing at home.
On examination, she is conscious and pale.
Her vital signs include blood pressure of 70/45 mm of Hg and a pulse rate of 115 beats per minute which is weak.
Her abdomen is irregularly distended, with both shifting dullness and fluid thrill present. Fetal heart sounds are not audible.
What will be the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Uterine rupture
Explanation:Patient’s presentation is classic for uterine rupture, were she developed sudden abdominal pain followed by cessation of contractions, termination of urge to push and vaginal bleeding.
Abdominal examination shows no fetal cardiac activity and signs of fluid collection like fluid thrill and shifting dullness. The fluid collected will be blood, which usually enters the peritoneum after the rupture of the uterus. In such patients vaginal examination will reveal a range of cervical dilatation with evidences of cephalopelvic disproportion.
Anterior lower transverse segment is the most common site for spontaneous uterine rupture. Patient in the case presenting with tachycardia and hypotension is in shock due to blood loss and will require urgent resuscitation.Placenta previa presents with painless bleeding from the vagina and Placental abruption will present with painful vaginal bleeding with tender and tense uterine wall, however, in contrary to that of uterine rupture, uterine contractions will continue in both these cases.
Shoulder dystocia is more likely to present in a prolonged labour with a significant delay in the progress of labour. However, in this case, there is no mention of shoulder dystocia.
Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is a condition which is causes due to abnormal and excessive generation of thrombin and fibrin in the circulating blood which results in bleeding from every skin puncture sites. It results in increased platelet aggregation and consumption of coagulation factors which results in bleeding at some sites and thromboembolism at other sites. Placental abruption, or retained products of conception in the uterine cavity are the causes for DIC.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A 28 year old patient is treated for hydatidiform mole with methotrexate. What is the mechanism of action of methotrexate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase
Explanation:Methotrexate is a folic acid antagonist. It inhibits dihydrofolate reductase (DHFR). DHFR catalyses the conversion of dihydrofolate to the active tetrahydrofolate which is required for DNA synthesis. It is either administered as a single intramuscular injection or multiple fixed doses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 37
Incorrect
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Which of the following muscles is NOT a constituent of the pelvic floor (diaphragm)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Piriformis
Explanation:The pelvic floor or diaphragm is composed of Coccygeus and Levator Ani. Levitator Ani is composed of 3 muscles: puborectalis, pubococcygeus and iliococcygeal. Although Piriformis assists in closing the posterior pelvic outlet it is not considered a component of the pelvic floor
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 38
Incorrect
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Menstrual irregularities and hirsutism affect a 15-year-old girl. All of the syndromes listed below have been linked to obesity in children.
Select the syndrome with which the other clinical symptoms in this patient are most likely to be linked.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Polycystic ovary syndrome
Explanation:Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is a condition in which the ovaries produce an abnormal amount of androgens, male sex hormones that are usually present in women in small amounts. The name polycystic ovary syndrome describes the numerous small cysts (fluid-filled sacs) that form in the ovaries. However, some women with this disorder do not have cysts, while some women without the disorder do develop cysts.
The symptoms of PCOS may include:
– Missed periods, irregular periods, or very light periods
– Ovaries that are large or have many cysts
– Excess body hair, including the chest, stomach, and back (hirsutism)
– Weight gain, especially around the belly (abdomen)
– Acne or oily skin
– Male-pattern baldness or thinning hair
– Infertility
– Small pieces of excess skin on the neck or armpits (skin tags)
– Dark or thick skin patches on the back of the neck, in the armpits, and under the breastsThe so-called Laurence-Moon-Biedl syndrome is a fairly rare condition characterized by six cardinal signs, namely obesity, atypical retinitis pigmentosa, mental deficiency, genital dystrophy, polydactylism and familial occurrence.
Froehlich syndrome is characterized by increased or excessive eating that leads to obesity, small testes, and a delay in the onset of puberty. It is also common for children with Froehlich syndrome to experience the delay in physical growth and the development of secondary sexual characteristics.
Cushing’s syndrome is a disorder that occurs when your body makes too much of the hormone cortisol over a long period of time. Cortisol is sometimes called the “stress hormone” because it helps your body respond to stress. Cortisol also helps. maintain blood pressure. regulate blood glucose, also called blood sugar.
Pseudohypoparathyroidism is characterized by short stature, a round face, short neck, and shortened bones in the hands and feet. Intelligence usually ranges from low normal to mentally retarded. Headaches, weakness, tiring easily, lethargy, cataracts and blurred vision or hypersensitivity to light may also be present.
This patient’s condition can only be explained by PCOS. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A woman in her 27 weeks of gestation presents to your clinic with gushing of clear yellow vaginal fluid.
Premature rupture of membrane (PPROM ) is confirmed on speculum examination, and the cervical os is closed.
Which of the following would be the most appropriate management, in addition to transfer to a tertiary center?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Systemic corticosteroids
Explanation:Cases with spontaneous rupture of membrane before the onset of labour, prior to 37 weeks of gestation is defined as preterm premature rupture of membranes(PPROM). It complicates almost 2-4% of all singleton and 7- 20% of twin pregnancies and is commonly associated with more than 60% of all preterm births.
Management of PPROM In the absence of chorioamnionitis, depends on the gestational age. That is in cases of PPROM before 23 weeks, labor may be induced or the patient be sent home for bed rest and is asked to wait until any signs of spontaneous delivery to start. Between 23 and 34 + 0/7 weeks, the patient should be transferred to a tertiary hospital and be admitted there as it is very important to administer systemic corticosteroids, for the fetal lung to attain maturity. It is also mandatory the patient gets adequate bed rest, cervical and vaginal swabs for microscopy and culture, along with prophylactic antibiotics for prevention of chorioamnionitis.
NOTE – regardless of the gestational age, chorioamnionitis is said to be an absolute indication for the termination of pregnancy.In the given case, patient is currently in her 28th week of gestation, so she should be immediately transferred to a tertiary hospital and given systemic steroids to promote fetal lung maturation in case preterm delivery ensues.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 21-year old female, gravida 1 para 0, term pregnancy, comes in due to labour for eight hours. Two hours prior to onset of contractions, her membranes have allegedly ruptured. Fetal heart rate is at 144/min. Contractions are of good quality, noted every 2-3 minutes, with a duration of 45 seconds. On examination, her cervix is fully dilated and the patient has been pushing all throughout. Vertex is palpated in the occipito-anterior (OA) position and has descended to station 2 cm below the ischial spines in the previous hour. Which of the following most likely depicts the current condition of the patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Normal progress.
Explanation:The patient’s condition can be described as a normal progress of labour. The scenario shows a normal descent of the head in the pelvic cavity, with a favourable position, and occurring within an hour of the second stage of labour. A normal second stage of labour in a nulliparous individual occurs at a maximum of two hours, which is consistent with this patient. Hence, there is no delay in the second stage.
There is evident progress of labour in this patient, hence, obstructed labour or cephalopelvic disproportion is ruled out.
No signs of maternal distress such as tachycardia or pyrexia is described in this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 41
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman visited your clinic at her 30th week of gestation, complaining of left lower limb pain.
The doppler ultrasound findings had confirmed proximal deep vein thrombosis and she was treated with low molecular weight heparin.
Now she is at her 34 weeks of gestation, and is expecting delivery in next four weeks. What would be your advice for her today?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Low molecular weight heparin should be switched to unfractionated heparin
Explanation:This patient has developed deep vein thrombosis during pregnancy and required anti-coagulation as part of treatment for up to 3-6 months. Enoxaparin, which is a low molecular weight heparin, is preferred over heparin due to the once or twice a day therapeutic dosing. Also monitoring of aPTT is not required in this case.
There is an association between Enoxaparin and an increased risk for epidural hematoma in women receiving epidural anaesthesia during labour. Considering that the patient mentioned is expected to go for delivery in 4 weeks and the possibility of her needing an epidural anaesthesia or general anaesthesia in case of undergoing a cesarean section, enoxaparin should be switched to unfractionated heparin, four weeks prior to the anticipated delivery. This is because of the fact that heparin can be antidoted with protamine sulphate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 42
Incorrect
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Which of the following arteries branches directly from the aorta?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ovarian
Explanation:The ovarian artery takes its origin directly from the aorta. While the uterine and the vaginal arteries are all branches of the internal iliac artery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 43
Incorrect
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Question 44
Incorrect
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Which of the following is/are needed by women in increased amounts during pregnancy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: All of the options given
Explanation:The nutritional status of a woman before and during pregnancy is important for a healthy pregnancy outcome. Pregnancy is a state of increased requirement of macro and micronutrients, and malnourishment or inadequate dietary intake before and during pregnancy, can lead to adverse perinatal outcomes. Many nutritional interventions have been proposed for pregnant mothers. These include multiple micronutrients (MMN), iron/folate, balanced protein energy, calcium, zinc and folic acid supplementation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 45
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements regarding the vaginal artery is typically TRUE?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It arises from the Internal iliac artery
Explanation:The vaginal artery is the homolog to the inferior vesical artery in males. In most of the cases it arises from the internal iliac artery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A 26 year old patient with PCOS has been trying to conceive for 2 years. Her BMI is 26 kg/m2. She is a non-smoker. Which of the following is the most appropriate first line treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clomiphene
Explanation:Firstline medical management of PCOS is with clomiphene.
Ovulation Disorders
WHO Group I : Hypothalamic pituitary failure (Stress, anorexia, exercise induced)
Management:
Increase BMI if <19 kg/m2
Reduce exercise if high levels
Pulsatile GnRH or Gonadotrophins with LH activity to induce ovulationWHO Group II : Hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian dysfunction (PCOS)
Management:
Weight reduction if BMI >30
Clomiphene/Clomiphene (1st line)
Metformin (1st line)
Clomiphene & Metformin (1st/2nd line)
Laparoscopic drilling (2nd line)
Gonadotrophins (2nd line)WHO Group III : Ovarian failure
Management:
Consider IVF with donor eggs -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 47
Incorrect
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During vertex presentation, the position is determined by relationship of which part of the fetal vertex to the mother's pelvis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Occiput
Explanation:A cephalic presentation is the one where head of the foetus enters the pelvic cavity at the time of delivery. The commonest form of cephalic presentation is the vertex presentation in which the occiput of the foetus enters the birth canal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 48
Incorrect
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Which of the following organisms causes toxoplasmosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Toxoplasma Gondii
Explanation:Toxoplasma gondii, an intracellular protozoan, is the main causative agent for Toxoplasmosis. Though the primary host for the organism is the domestic cat, humans can become infected by eating undercooked meat of animals harbouring cysts, consuming water or food contaminated with cat faeces, or through maternal-fetal transmission. Toxoplasmosis can cause complications in pregnancy such as miscarriages and congenital infection which can lead to hydrocephalus, microcephaly, mental disability and vision loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 49
Incorrect
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Question 50
Incorrect
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Lidocaine works by blocking which of the following ion channels?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: fast voltage gated sodium channels
Explanation:It blocks the voltage gated sodium channels and reduce the influx of sodium ions preventing depolarization of the membrane and blocking the conduction of the action potential. The affinity of the receptor site in the sodium channels depends on whether it is resting, open or inactive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 51
Incorrect
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A 32 year old patient has a transvaginal ultrasound scan that shows a mass in the left ovary. It is anechoic, thin walled, is without internal structures and measures 36mm in diameter. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Functional cyst
Explanation:The diagnosis of functional ovarian cyst is made when the cyst measures more than 3 cm and rarely grows more than 10 cm. It appears as a simple anechoic unilocular cyst on USS. It is usually asymptomatic. If it is symptomatic then laparoscopic cystectomy should be performed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Data Interpretation
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Question 52
Incorrect
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Which of the following inhibit Glucagon?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Uraemia
Explanation:Glucagon release is inhibited by increased blood glucose, ketones, free fatty
acids, insulin, raised urea levels and somatostatin. Glucagon is produced by alpha cells of the pancreas and increases the plasma glucose level by stimulating glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 53
Incorrect
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You are asked to review a patient. They have attended for a scan at 13 weeks following a positive pregnancy test. The patient has had 2 previous pregnancies for which she opted for termination on both occasions. The scan shows a large irregular haemorrhagic mass that appears to be invading into the myometrium. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Choriocarcinoma
Explanation:Choriocarcinoma may arise as a complication of gestation or as spontaneous germ cell tumours. As this scenario depicts that the women has previous abortion points to the fact that these may have been molar pregnancies. As choriocarcinoma can arise from a molar pregnancy it can be differentiated from it by the presence of invasion into the uterus and metastasis to the lungs primarily.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 54
Incorrect
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Prognathism and macroglossia are features of which of the following?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acromegaly
Explanation:These are features of excess growth hormone i.e. Acromegaly. Down’s and Cri du chat typically cause Micrognathia (small jaw)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 55
Incorrect
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What percentage of testosterone is bound to SHBG?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 70%
Explanation:About 97% of the testosterone that is secreted loosely binds to the SHBG and circulates in the blood for several hours in this bound state until it is transported to the target organs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 56
Incorrect
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Among the following which will not be elevated in the third trimester of pregnancy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Serum free T4
Explanation:Normally, there will be a slight raise in prolactin level throughout pregnancy even despite estrogen stimulating and progesterone inhibiting prolactin secretion.
Serum alkaline phosphatase levels will be increased in pregnancy due to placental ALP.
During the first trimester of pregnancy there is a physiological mechanism by hCG causing cross-stimulation of the TSH receptors and as a result of this the concentration of thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) normally decreases. During second trimester TSH concentration will again return back to its pre-pregnancy levels and then rises slightly by the third trimester. However, most of the changes still occur within the normal non-pregnant range, and the serum free T3 and T4 concentrations remain unchanged throughout pregnancy. But the total concentrations, which include both free and protein-bound fractions, elevates significantly due to an increase in the circulating binding globulins.
Iron binding capacity reflects transferrin, a protein used for iron transportation, which is a globulin found in the beta band on electrophoresis. To counteract the reduction of plasma iron during pregnancy both transferrin and iron binding capacity are elevated during this period.
When compared to the non-pregnant level, cortisol levels are been elevated up to three times than normal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 57
Incorrect
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Regarding the foetus, which one of the following statements is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fetal lie describes the long axis of the foetus to the long axis of the mother
Explanation:Fetal lie describes the relationship of the long axis of the foetus with respect to the long axis of the mother.
Coronal suture is the transverse suture separating the parietal bone from the frontal bone.
Umbilical cord is composed of two arteries and one vein. the vein carries the oxygenated blood, whereas the arteries contain the deoxygenated blood.
At the time of birth, the anterior fontanelle is open and appears as a soft jelly like structure. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 58
Incorrect
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A 36 year old woman has a pelvic ultrasound scan showing multiple fibroids. What is the most common form of fibroid degeneration?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hyaline degeneration
Explanation:Hyaline degeneration is the most common form of fibroid degeneration. Fibroids:
Risk Factors
– Black Ethnicity
– Obesity
– Early Puberty
– Increasing age (from puberty until menopause)
Protective Factors
– Pregnancy
– Multiparity -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 59
Incorrect
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A pregnant female recently underwent her antenatal screening for HIV and Hepatitis B. Which of the following additional tests should she be screened for?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rubella, Toxoplasma and Syphilis
Explanation:A screening blood test for the infectious diseases HIV, Syphilis, Rubella, Toxoplasmosis and Hepatitis B is offered to all pregnant females so as to reduce the chances of transmission to the neonate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 60
Incorrect
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In which one of the following circumstances, is it least likely for a foetus to be in a transverse lie?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A normal term foetus
Explanation:Normal position of the foetus in relationship to the mother is always a longitudinal lie and a cephalic presentation. Transverse lie means that the baby is sideways. The foetus lies transverse till 26-28th week of gestation, after which it usually changes its position from transverse to a longitudinal lie with head down. A transverse lie can occur in conditions like grand multiparity, preterm foetus, placenta previa and pelvic contraction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 61
Incorrect
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A 38 year old woman in early pregnancy is rushed to the emergency department complaining of vaginal bleeding and abdominal pain. What percentage of women her age have miscarriages?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 25%
Explanation:With increasing maternal age, the risk of miscarriage increases. For women between the ages of 40-44, the miscarriage rates sit at about 50% and increases to over 75% for women 45 years and over. The miscarriage rate for women between the ages of 35-39 is 25%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 62
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman gave birth to a baby of normal weight through vaginal delivery, which was complicated by a small perianal tear that was taken care of without stitching. On the fifth day of postpartum patient presents with heavy bright red vaginal bleeding and mentions that lochia was in scant amounts compared to her previous pregnancy.
On examination, her temperature was 38.8°C and uterus is mildly tender to palpation.
Which one of the following would most likely be her diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Retained products of conception
Explanation:Secondary postpartum hemorrhage of bright red character accompanied with fever, between 24 hours to 12 weeks of postpartum is suggestive of retained products of conception (RPOC).
The basal portion of the decidua may remain after separation of placenta in many cases. This decidua will then divides into two layers, the superficial layer which will be shed spontaneously and the deep layer which will regenerates and covers the entire endometrial cavity with in 16 days of postpartum.
Normal shedding of blood and decidua is referred to as lochia rubra, which is red / reddish brown in colour and it lasts for few days following delivery. This vaginal discharge gradually becomes watery and pinkish brown in colour, lasting for 2 to 3 weeks and is called as lochia serosa. Ultimately, this discharge becomes yellowish-white called as lochia alba.Scanty lochia in the first few days after delivery is suggestive of the placental site not undergoing involution, which occurs mostly due to RPOC. Later these retained products will undergo necrosis resulting in fibrin deposition which will eventually form a placental polyp. Detachment of this scar of polyp will result in brisk hemorrhage and the remaining necrotic products will get infected resulting in uterine infection which will present with fever, lower abdominal pain and uterine tenderness.
Endometritis can lead to fever, offensive lochia and abdominal pain with tenderness. It is the most common cause of postpartum fever, but occurs within the first 5 days of postpartum with the peak incidence between days 2 and 3. Though vaginal bleeding is a presenting feature, bright red bleeding is unlikely of endometritis.
Another cause of postpartum fever is genital lacerations which have a peak incidence of wound infection between 4th and 5th days. Although fever as a temporal symptom favours wound infection, this diagnosis is less likely in the given case as wound infection will not affect the normal course of lochia, also it does not present as heavy bright red bleeding. Moreover, there are no symptoms like erythema, tenderness or discharge in history suggestive of wound infection.
Another cause of bleeding and fever can be cervical tear but this tends to present as primary postpartum hemorrhage rather than secondary, which occurs after 24 hours of postpartum. An overlooked and infected minor cervical laceration can cause fever but ii will not result in bright red bleeding, also genital tract lacerations do not affect lochia.
It is very unlikely for uterine rupture to occur 24 hours after delivery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 63
Incorrect
-
A 32 year old lady with known stage III cervical cancer presents to A&E with lower abdominal and unilateral flank pain. From the following list what is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ureteric Obstruction
Explanation:In stage III cervical cancer there is involvement of the pelvic wall and ureter which may result in abdominal pain and hydronephrosis.
2010 FIGO classification of cervical carcinoma
Stage
0 – Carcinoma in situ
1 – Confined to the cervix (diagnosed microscopy)
1A1 – Less than 3mm depth & 7mm lateral spread
1A2 – 3mm to 5mm depth & less than 7mm lateral spread
1B1 – Clinically visible lesion or greater than A2 & less than 4 cm in greatest dimension
1B2 – Clinically visible lesion, Greater than 4 cm in greatest dimension
2 – Invades beyond uterus but not to pelvic wall or lower 1/3 vagina
2A1 – Involvement of the upper two-thirds of the vagina, without parametrical invasion & Less than 4cm
2A2 – Greater than 4 cm in greatest dimension
2B – Parametrial involvement
3 – Extends to Pelvic side wall or lower 1/3 vagina or hydronephrosis
3A – No pelvic side wall involvement
3B – Pelvic side wall involved or hydronephrosis
4 – Extends beyond true pelvis
4A – Invades mucosa bladder and rectum
4B – Distant Metastasis -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 64
Incorrect
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Your 64-year-old patient has come to you with a uterine prolapse complaint.
Which of the following ligaments plays the most critical role in uterine prolapse pathophysiology?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Uterosacral ligament
Explanation:The uterus needs support in order to remain centered inside the pelvic cavity. The support it receives comes in two forms: dynamic and passive. The ligaments of the uterus have an important role in both.
Dynamic support is provided by the pelvic diaphragm through tonic contractions while standing and sitting and active contractions during moments of increased abdominal pressure, such as coughing or sneezing. During these moments, the ligaments of the uterus transmit the force of the diaphragm towards the organ itself, maintaining its position.
The ligaments are also crucial in providing passive support. By minimizing movement of the body and the cervix, they maintain the uterus in the typical anteverted and anteflexed position directly on top of the bladder. This provides a support for the uterus when the abdominal pressure increases.
Hence, even though the broad ligament, round ligament and ovarian ligament have some role in the suspension of the uterus, the uterosacral ligament plays the most significant role. It is also the ligament used for surgical suspension of POP.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 65
Incorrect
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Evidence from meta-analysis of RCTs is what level of evidence?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ia
Explanation:The levels of evidence range from I-IV:
1a: Systematic reviews (with homogeneity) or metanalysis of randomized controlled trials: highest level of evidence.
1b: Individual randomized controlled trial (with narrow confidence interval)
1c: All or none randomized controlled trials
2a: Systematic reviews (with homogeneity) of cohort studies
2b: Individual cohort study or low quality randomized controlled trials (e.g. <80% follow-up)
2c: Outcomes Research; ecological studies
3a: Systematic review (with homogeneity) of case-control studies
3b: Individual case-control study
4: Case series (and poor quality cohort and case-control studies)
5: Expert opinion without explicit critical appraisal, or based on physiology, bench research or first principles. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 66
Incorrect
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How many seminiferous tubules would you typically expect to find in a testicular lobule?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:There are between 250 and 400 lobules in each testis. The lobule is a structural unit of the testis with each lobule contained in one of the intervals between fibrous septa which extend between the mediastinum testis and the tunica albuginea. Each lobule contains 1 to 3 seminiferous tubules.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 67
Incorrect
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Which of the following conditions is associated with blunt trauma in a pregnant woman?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Abruptio placentae
Explanation:Abruptio placentae, defined as a premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, is commonly seen with blunt abdominal trauma and can cause fetal distress. It occurs in 1% to 3% of pregnant women with minor trauma and in 40% to 50% with major life-threatening trauma.8,9 Abruption may present with vaginal bleeding, abdominal pain and tenderness, uterine contractions, or fetal distress; however, it may be occult with no vaginal bleeding in up to 20% of cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 68
Incorrect
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A 30 year old female with a history of two first trimester miscarriages presented at 9 weeks of gestation with per vaginal bleeding. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aspirin
Explanation:Antiphospholipid syndrome is the most important treatable cause of recurrent miscarriage. The mechanisms by which antiphospholipid antibodies cause pregnancy morbidity include inhibition of trophoblastic function and differentiation, activation of complement pathways at the maternal–fetal interface, resulting in a local inflammatory response and, in later pregnancy, thrombosis of the uteroplacental vasculature. This patient should be offered referral to a specialist clinic as she has had recurrent miscarriages. Low dose aspirin is one of the treatment options to prevent further miscarriage for patients with antiphospholipid syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 69
Incorrect
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Chief role of the mid-cycle LH surge is:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: All are correct
Explanation:LH surge occurs around ovulation and it is this LH surge which results in completion of the 1st meiotic division and ovulation occurs. It enhances the production of androgens and also luteinizes the granulosa cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 70
Incorrect
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All of the following complications can be found in a pregnant patient with a bicornuate uterus, except?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Polyhydramnios
Explanation:Women with a bicornuate uterus are at increased risk of recurrent abortions, premature birth, fetal malpositioning, placenta previa and retained products of placenta leading to post partum haemorrhage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 71
Incorrect
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A 26 year old patient attends the maternity unit as her waters have broken but she hasn't had contractions. She is at 39+5 weeks gestation. Speculum examination confirms prelabour rupture of membranes (PROM). What is the risk of serious neonatal infection with PROM?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1 in 100
Explanation:In pregnancy, term refers to the gestational period from 37 to 41+6 weeks. Preterm births occur between 24 and 36+6 weeks. Only 1% of women who go into PROM have risk of having serious neonatal infections.
Management of PROM:
60% of patients with PROM will go into labour within 24 hrs
Induction is appropriate if >34 weeks gestation and more than 24 hours post rupture when labour hasn’t started.
If < 34 weeks, induction of labour should not be carried out unless there are additional obstetric indications e.g. infection -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 72
Incorrect
-
What are the branches of the pudendal nerves in women?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Perineal, inferior anal and dorsal nerve of clitoris
Explanation:The pudendal nerve provides sensory and motor innervation to regions of the anus, the perineum, the labia and the clitoris in women. The nerve is formed from the ventral rami of the S2-S4 sacral spinal nerves. The nerve is paired, each innervating the left and the right side of the body. The nerve gives the following branches in females: the inferior anal nerve, the perineal nerve and the dorsal nerve of the clitoris.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 73
Incorrect
-
A 33-year-old 'grand multiparous' woman, who has previously delivered seven children by normal vaginal delivery, spontaneously delivers a live baby weighing 4750gm one hour ago after a three-hour long labour period. Shortly after, an uncomplicated third stage of labour, she goes into shock (pulse 140/min, BP 80/50 mmHg). At the time of delivery, total blood loss was noted at 500mL, and has not been excessive since then. What is the most probable diagnosis of this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Uterine rupture.
Explanation:The patient most likely suffered a uterine rupture. It occurs most often in multiparous women and is less often associated with external haemorrhage. Shock develops shortly after rupture due to the extent of concealed bleeding.
Uterine inversion rarely occurs when after a spontaneous and normal third stage of labour. Although it can lead to shock, it is usually associated with a history of controlled cord traction or Dublin method of placenta delivery before the uterus has contracted. This diagnosis is also strongly considered when shock is out of proportion to the amount of blood loss.
An overwhelming infection is unlikely in this case when labour occurred for a short period of time. Uterine atony and amniotic fluid embolism are more associated with excessive vaginal bleeding, which is not evident in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 74
Incorrect
-
Human Chorionic Gonadotrophin (HCG) is structurally similar to which of the following hormones?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH)
Explanation:TSH, FSH, LH and HCG are all similar glycoproteins. These hormones consist of a common α-subunit and specific β-subunit. All are glycosylated, which determines their bioactivity and half-life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 75
Incorrect
-
A 48-year-old woman presents to the clinic complaining of a one week history of light vaginal bleeding.
Her past medical history reveals she had a lumpectomy, postoperative radiotherapy, adjuvant chemotherapy and tamoxifen therapy 3 years ago as treatment for an oestrogen receptor-positive breast malignancy.
She was prescribed tamoxifen in a dose of 10mg per day to take for the next five years.
Since she completed her chemotherapy three years ago, she has no menstrual periods.
What is the most probable cause of her current bleeding?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Endometrial polyp formation due to the tamoxifen.
Explanation:The most likely cause of her bleeding is an endometrial polyp formation due to the tamoxifen.
Tamoxifen is often prescribed to decrease risk of breast cancer recurrence in premenopausal women with oestrogen receptor-positive cancers.
As with any medication, it has known side effects, which include endometrial polyp formation, subendometrial oedema and, rarely, endometrial carcinoma.
A polyp or carcinoma can cause uterine bleeding, but a polyp is more likely to occur.
Routine endometrial thickness screening is not recommended in all women taking tamoxifen. However, in cases of abnormal bleeding, ultrasound assessment of endometrial thickness, hysteroscopy and curettage are indicated to assess the endometrium in more detail.
Tamoxifen is not associated with endometrial atrophy.
Endometrial metastasis from a breast cancer is rare, and tamoxifen would not usually induce follicular development in a woman who has had chemotherapy and resultant amenorrhoea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 76
Incorrect
-
During her first month on OCPs, a patient had minimal bleeding at mid cycle. What is the most appropriate management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Continue pills as usual.
Explanation:Breakthrough bleeding, or spotting, refers to when vaginal bleeding occurs between menstrual cycles. It may look like light bleeding or brown discharge.
Spotting is the most common side effect of birth control pills. It happens because the body is adjusting to changing levels of hormones, and the uterus is adjusting to having a thinner lining.
Taking the pill as prescribed, usually every day and at the same time each day, can help prevent bleeding between periods.
All other options are incorrect as this is a common side effect and will resolve on its own.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 77
Incorrect
-
Which Immunoglobulin (or antibody) is secreted in large amounts in breast milk?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IgA
Explanation:When considering immunoglobulins in neonates. There are only a few key points you are likely to be tested on. 1. IgA is resistant to stomach acid and found in large amounts in breast milk. 2. IgG is the only Ig that can cross the placenta so is key for passive neonatal immunity 3. When the neonate starts synthesising its own Ig it is IgM that is produced first.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology
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Question 78
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old woman presents to the clinic.
She complains of a 6 week history of amenorrhoea and on diagnostic testing, has a positive pregnancy test.
On past medical history, it is noted that she had a multiload (Cu375°) intrauterine device inserted six months ago.
On physical examination, The strings of the device are not visibly protruding through the external os, as would be expected.
She is happy to proceed with the pregnancy, and asks what should be done next.
What is the best next step in her management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ultrasound of the pelvis.
Explanation:The best next step is to order an ultrasound of the pelvis to locate the IUCD in the uterine cavity.
Once the device is located, appropriate advice can be given about the pregnancy proceeding.
Uterine sounding and hysteroscopy are contraindicated in the presence of a viable pregnancy due to risks of infection and abortion.
Pelvic X-ray is indicated if the device cannot be located during the pelvic ultrasound. It can show if the device is in the peritoneal cavity or has been expelled from the uterus. It should only be done after the pregnancy.
In cases where the device is in the peritoneal cavity, a laparoscopy is indicated for device removal.
Pregnancy termination is not indicated simply because of the presence of an intrauterine device (IUCD) in the uterus, unless other factors dictate that this is appropriate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 79
Incorrect
-
A 30 year old women who is 24 weeks pregnant attends clinic due to suprapubic pain. Ultrasound shows a viable foetus and also a fibroid with a cystic fluid filled centre. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cystic degeneration of fibroid
Explanation:A fibroid is a benign tumour of the smooth muscles of the uterus also known as a leiomyoma. It has a typical whorled appearance and this may be altered following degeneration which occurs in four main types:
1. Red degeneration, also known as carneous degeneration, of degeneration that can involve a uterine leiomyoma. While it is an uncommon type of degeneration, it is thought to be the most common form of degeneration of a leiomyoma during pregnancy. Red degeneration follows an acute disruption of the blood supply to the fibroid during growth typically in a mid-second trimester presenting as sudden onset of pain with tenderness localizing to the area of the uterus along with pyrexia and leucocytosis. On ultrasound it can have peripheral (rim).2. Hyaline degeneration is the most common form of degeneration that can occur in a uterine leiomyoma. It is thought to occur in up to 60% of uterine leiomyomasoccurs when the fibroid outgrows its blood supply. this may progresses to central necrosis leaving a cystic space in the centre knowns as cystic degeneration.
3. Cystic degeneration is an uncommon type of degeneration that a uterine leiomyoma (fibroid) can undergo. This type of degeneration is thought to represent ,4% of all types of uterine leiomyoma degeneration. When the leiomyoma increases in size, the vascular supply to it becomes inadequate and leads to different types of degeneration: hyaline, cystic, myxoid, or red degeneration. Dystrophic calcification may also occur. Hyalinization is the commonest type of degeneration. Cystic degeneration is an extreme sequel of edema. Ultrasound may show a hypoechoic or heterogeneous uterine mass with cystic areas.
4. Myxoid degeneration of leiomyoma is one of the rarer types of degeneration that can occur in a uterine leiomyoma. While this type of degeneration is generally considered rare, the highest prevalence for this type of degeneration has been reported as up to 50% of all degenerations of leiomyomas. Fibroids (i.e. uterine leiomyomas) that have undergone myxoid degeneration are filled with a gelatinous material and can be difficult to differentiate from cystic degeneration; however, they typically appear as more complex cystic masses. They appear hypocellular with a myxoid matrix.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 80
Incorrect
-
You are called to a delivery as the midwife is concerned about CTG changes. She suggests a fetal blood sample (FBS). You inspect the cervix. At what dilatation would you NOT perform FBS?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Less than 3cm
Explanation:Indications for FBS:
1. Pathological CTG in labour (cervix dilated >3 cm)
2. Suspected acidosis in labour (cervix dilated >3 cm)
Contraindications to FBS:
– Maternal infection e.g. HIV, HSV and Hepatitis
– Known fetal coagulopathy
– Prematurity (< 34 weeks gestation)
– Acute fetal compromise -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Data Interpretation
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Question 81
Incorrect
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Question 82
Incorrect
-
What is the normal pH value of an umbilical arterial sample of a new born term baby?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 7.2
Explanation:The normal range for a term baby is pH: 7.18 – 7.38, and preterm pH: 7.14 – 7.4. A pH below 7.1 therefore indicates acidosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 83
Incorrect
-
Physiological changes in the reproductive system include:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The uterus 1st enlarges by hyperplasia then by hypertrophy
Explanation:Although uterine growth during the first few weeks of pregnancy is accomplished by increased numbers of smooth muscle cells (i.e. hyperplasia) and a smaller contribution from increased cell size (i.e. hypertrophy), the predominant growth of the uterus during pregnancy is by way of stretch‐induced myometrial hypertrophy. This ongoing process of stretch‐induced tissue remodelling and smooth muscle hypertrophy is accompanied by the lack of uterine contractions during most of gestation to accommodate the developing foetus (phase 0 of parturition). Phase 1 of parturition represents myometrial activation. The final stages of pregnancy are characterized by increases in spontaneous low‐amplitude contractions that gradually increase in frequency, rhythmicity and strength, normally culminating in labour and delivery of the foetus at term (phase 2 of parturition).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 84
Incorrect
-
Which one of the following features best describes the role of prostaglandins?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Are involved in the onset of labour
Explanation:Prostaglandins are involved in the uterine contraction and cervical dilatation during labour. Higher prostaglandin concentrations can also lead to severe menstrual cramps.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 85
Incorrect
-
Regarding the uterine artery which of the following statements are TRUE?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It arises from the internal iliac artery
Explanation:The uterine artery arises from the internal iliac artery, in particular the anterior division of the internal iliac artery. Some older texts refer to the internal iliac as the hypogastric artery. The vaginal artery typically arises as its own branch of the internal iliac artery. The ovarian arteries are branches of the aorta
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 86
Incorrect
-
What is the mode of action of Mefenamic acid?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inhibits Prostaglandin Synthesis
Explanation:Activation of Antithrombin III and inactivation of factor Xa is the primary mechanism of action of Heparin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 87
Incorrect
-
At the time of delivery, if there is a laceration of perineal body but not the anal sphincter, this type of laceration is classified as?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Second degree
Explanation:Perineal tears are common at the time of child birth. First degree perineal laceration means that the wound is so small that it doesn’t require any stitches and usually heals on its own. 2nd degree means that skin and smooth muscles are both torn. 3rd degree tear means that the tear is beyond the perineal muscles and the muscles surrounding the anal canal, while in 4th degree, the perineal tear goes through the anal sphincter up to the rectum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 88
Incorrect
-
Which of the following contraceptives primary mode of action is inhibition of ovulation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cerazette®
Explanation:Desogestrel only POPs work mainly by inhibiting ovulation. Cerazette Is the only brand in this list which belongs to this group.
Types of Progesterone Only Pills
1. Traditional (e.g. Femulen®, Micronor®, Norgeston®)
Main mode of action: thickening cervical mucus preventing sperm entry at neck of womb and may also cause anovulation but this effect variable and unreliable
2. Desogestrel (e.g. Cerazette®)
Main mode of action: inhibition of ovulation and also cause thickening of cervical mucus
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 89
Incorrect
-
You're looking after a 24-year-old woman who is experiencing pelvic pain. She has one-sided pain that is widespread and mild, but can be intense at times. Menstruation has been regular. She denies having fever.
With the exception of a smooth movable adnexal mass on the right side, her pelvic examination seems normal.
Which of the following is the most likely reason for your discomfort?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ovarian cyst
Explanation:An ovarian cyst is a sac filled with liquid or semiliquid material that arises in an ovary. Although the discovery of an ovarian cyst causes considerable anxiety in women owing to fears of malignancy, the vast majority of these lesions are benign. Most patients with ovarian cysts are asymptomatic, with the cysts being discovered incidentally during ultrasonography or routine pelvic examination. Some cysts, however, may be associated with a range of symptoms, sometimes severe, including the following:
Pain or discomfort in the lower abdomen
Severe pain from torsion (twisting) or rupture – Cyst rupture is characterized by sudden, sharp, unilateral pelvic pain; this can be associated with trauma, exercise, or coitus. Cyst rupture can lead to peritoneal signs, abdominal distention, and bleeding (which is usually self-limited)
Discomfort with intercourse, particularly deep penetration
Changes in bowel movements such as constipation
Pelvic pressure causing tenesmus or urinary frequency
Menstrual irregularities
Precocious puberty and early menarche in young children
Abdominal fullness and bloating
Indigestion, heartburn, or early satiety
Endometriomas – These are associated with endometriosis, which causes a classic triad of painful and heavy periods and dyspareunia
Tachycardia and hypotension – These may result from haemorrhage caused by cyst rupture
Hyperpyrexia – This may result from some complications of ovarian cysts, such as ovarian torsion
Adnexal or cervical motion tendernessUnderlying malignancy may be associated with early satiety, weight loss
achexia, lymphadenopathy, or shortness of breath related to ascites or pleural effusionThe absence of fever or vaginal discharge rules out PID
The absence of pain on the right lower quadrant, fever, nausea and vomiting rule out appendicitis.
The patient has regular menses, no vaginal bleeding no signs of shock that rules out ectopic pregnancy.
her symptoms are also not consistent with the presentation of leiomyoma. Leiomyoma presents with enlarged uterus, pelvic pressure. It early causes pain when it is complicated with red degeneration which usually occurs in pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 90
Incorrect
-
A pregnant female who is a known diabetic presents to the clinic for a consultation and enquires about the harmful effects of vitamin deficiencies. A deficiency of which vitamin can lead to teratogenic effects in the child?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Folic acid
Explanation:Pregnant women need to get enough folic acid. The vitamin is important to the growth of the foetus’s spinal cord and brain. Folic acid deficiency can cause severe birth defects known as neural tube defects. The Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) for folate during pregnancy is 600 micrograms (µg)/day.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 91
Incorrect
-
Question 92
Incorrect
-
The UK childhood vaccination schedule includes vaccination against HPV for girls aged 12 to 13. What HPV subtypes are vaccinated against with the vaccine Gardasil®?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 6, 11, 16, and 18
Explanation:HPV Gardasil® is a quadrivalent vaccine against HPV Types 6, 11, 16, and 18. HPV types16 and 18 are responsible for 70% of cases of HPV related cancers. They are considered the most important high risk genotypes of HPV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 93
Incorrect
-
A patient is about to undergo a pudendal nerve block after vaginal delivery to repair an episiotomy. Which spinal segments form the pudendal nerve?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: S2, S3 and S4
Explanation:The pudendal nerve provides sensory innervation to regions of the anus, the perineum, the labia and the clitoris in women. The nerve is formed from the ventral rami of the S2-S4 sacral spinal nerves. The nerve is paired, each innervating the left and the right side of the body. Pudendal nerve blocks are indicated for analgesia of the second stage of labour, repair of an episiotomy or perineal laceration, and for minor surgeries of the lower vagina and perineum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 94
Incorrect
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Question 95
Incorrect
-
Question 96
Incorrect
-
A 23-year-old woman with diffuse pelvic pain and vaginal bleeding presents to the emergency room. She claims that it is around the time that she usually has her period. She has previously experienced defecation discomfort, dyspareunia, and dysmenorrhea. The patient claims that she has previously experienced similar symptoms, but that the agony has suddenly become unbearable.
Her abdomen is soft, with normal bowel sounds and no rebound soreness, according to her physical examination. There is no costovertebral discomfort and the patient does not guard. Blood in the posterior vaginal vault, a closed os, and no palpable masses or cervical motion pain are all findings on her pelvic examination.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Endometriosis
Explanation:Endometriosis is defined as the presence of normal endometrial mucosa (glands and stroma) abnormally implanted in locations other than the uterine cavity. Approximately 30-40% of women with endometriosis will be sub fertile. About one third of women with endometriosis remain asymptomatic. When they do occur, symptoms, such as the following, typically reflect the area of involvement:
– Dysmenorrhea
– Heavy or irregular bleeding
– Pelvic pain
– Lower abdominal or back pain
– Dyspareunia
– Dyschezia (pain on defecation) – Often with cycles of diarrhoea and constipation
– Bloating, nausea, and vomiting
– Inguinal pain
– Pain on micturition and/or urinary frequency
– Pain during exercisePregnancy, appendicitis, ureteral colic and ruptured ectopic pregnancy all do not present with dysmenorrhea, pain on defecation and dyspareunia. Presence of a non tender, soft abdomen also rules out these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 97
Incorrect
-
You are asked to assess a patients perineal tear following labour by vaginal delivery. You note a laceration that extends approximately a quarter of the thickness through the external anal sphincter. How would you classify this tear?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 3a
Explanation:1. First-degree trauma corresponds to lacerations of the skin/vaginal epithelium alone.
2. Second-degree tears involve perineal muscles and therefore include episiotomies.
3. Third-degree extensions involve any part of the anal sphincter complex (external and internal sphincters):
i Less than 50 per cent of the external anal
sphincter is torn.
ii More than 50 per cent of the external anal
sphincter is torn.
iii Tear involves the internal anal sphincter
(usually there is complete disruption of the
external sphincter).
4. Fourth-degree tears involve injury to the anal sphincter complex extending into the rectal mucosa. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 98
Incorrect
-
Regarding threatened abortion:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ultrasound should be done to confirm the diagnosis
Explanation:Patients with a threatened abortion should be managed expectantly until their symptoms resolve. Patients should be monitored for progression to an inevitable, incomplete, or complete abortion. Analgesia will help relieve pain from cramping. Bed rest has not been shown to improve outcomes but commonly is recommended. Physical activity precautions and abstinence from sexual intercourse are also commonly advised. Repeat pelvic ultrasound weekly until a viable pregnancy is confirmed or excluded. A miscarriage cannot be avoided or prevented, and the patients should be educated as such. Intercourse and tampons should be avoided to decrease the chance of infection. A warning should be given to the patient to return to the emergency department if there is heavy bleeding or if the patient is experiencing light-headedness or dizziness. Heavy bleeding is defined as more than one pad per hour for six hours. The patient should also be given instructions to return if they experience increased pain or fever. All patients with vaginal bleeding who are Rh-negative should be treated with Rhogam. Because the total fetal blood volume in less than 4.2 mL at 12 weeks, the likelihood of fetal blood mixture is small in the first trimester. A smaller RhoGAM dose can be considered in the first trimester. A dose of 50 micrograms to 150 micrograms has been recommended. A full dose can also be used. Rhogam should ideally be administered before discharge. However, it can also be administered by the patient’s obstetrician within 72 hours if the vaginal bleeding has been present for several days or weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 99
Incorrect
-
A 37-year-old female at her 33 weeks of gestation who sustains a road traffic accident at 90 km/hour, is taken to the emergency department.
On examination, she is found to be pale, with a heart rate of 112 bpm, blood pressure of 95/55 mm of Hg, respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute and her oxygen saturation in room air is 95%. Fetal heart rate is audible at 102 bpm and her uterus is tense and tender, she denied having any direct trauma to the abdomen.
Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this given case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Placental abruption
Explanation:This patient presents with signs and symptoms similar to clinical features of placental abruption.
Any trauma during the last trimester of pregnancy could be dangerous to both mother and fetus. By force of deceleration, motor vehicle accidents can result in placental separation. Also when subjected to strong acceleration-deceleration forces such as those during a motor vehicle crash uterus is thought to slightly change its shape. Since the placenta is not elastic and amniotic fluid is not compressible, such uterine distortion caused due to acceleration-deceleration or direct trauma will result in abruptio placentae due to shear stress at the utero-placental interface.
A painful, tender uterus which is often contracting is characteristic of placental abruption and the condition will lead to maternal hypovolemic hypotension and consequent fetal distress which is presented as fetal bradycardia and repetitive late decelerations. Vaginal bleeding, abdominal pain, contractions, uterine rigidity with tenderness, and a nonreassuring fetal heart rate (FHR) tracing are the clinical features diagnostic of abruption. However, a significant abruption can occasionally be asymptomatic or associated with minimal maternal symptoms in the absence of vaginal bleeding. Therefore the amount of vaginal bleeding is not always an appropriate indicator to the severity of placental abruption, this is because, in cases bleeding could be very severe or it may be concealed in the form of a hematoma in between the uterine wall and the placenta.
Sharp or blunt abdominal trauma can lead to uterine rupture or penetrating injury, since there is no reported abdominal trauma to the patient, uterine rupture is less likely to happen in this case. Severe abdominal pain with tenderness, cessation of contractions and loss of uterine tone are the most common symptoms characteristic of Uterine rupture. It will also be associated with mild to moderate vaginal bleeding along with fetal bradycardia or loss of heart sound. In this case uterus will be less tense and tender in comparison to placental abruption
Symptoms like low blood pressure, tachycardia and fetal bradycardia can be justified by ruptured spleen and liver laceration, but not the tense, tender and contracting uterus.
The diagnosis of placenta previa cannot be considered with the given clinical picture as it presents with sudden, painless bleeding of bright red blood and there will not be any uterine tenderness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 100
Incorrect
-
An otherwise healthy 21 year old primigravida comes to your office for a routine visit at 16 weeks gestation. She has had a normal pregnancy to date, and her only medication is a multivitamin with 0.4 mg folic acid. You order a maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein level. Adjusted for gestational age, maternal weight, and race, the results are significantly elevated. Which one of the following would you now recommend?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fetal ultrasonography
Explanation:A 16-week visit is advised for all pregnant women to offer an alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) screening for neural tube defects and Down syndrome- An AFP level 2-5 times the median value for normal controls at the same gestational age is considered elevate- Approximately 5%-10% of patients who undergo AFP screening will have an elevated level, and most of these women will have normal foetuses. Fetal ultrasonography should be performed to detect multiple gestation, fetal demise, or fetal anomalies (neural tube defects, ventral abdominal wall defects, and urinary tract anomalies) as well as to confirm gestational age, as all of these factors are associated with elevated AFP levels. Amniocentesis is offered if the ultrasonography does not indicate the reason for the elevated AFP. Chorionic villus sampling is offered in the evaluation of suspected chromosomal anomalies as an adjunct to amniocentesis. Serum hCG would be indicated in the workup of suspected Down syndrome, where the AFP would be low, not elevate- The hCG level would be expected to be over 2-5 multiples of the mean (MoM) with Down syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 101
Incorrect
-
Pregnancy is associated with all of the following, EXCEPT:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased peripheral resistance
Explanation:A variety of changes in the cardiovascular system occur during normal pregnancy, including increases in cardiac output, arterial compliance, extracellular fluid volume and decreases in blood pressure (BP) and total peripheral resistance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 102
Incorrect
-
The following are true for dizygotic twins EXCEPT:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Both twins are identical & of the same sex
Explanation:Dizygotic means two (di) fertilized eggs (zygotes). Dizygotic twins occur when two eggs are fertilized by two separate sperm. Dizygotic twins are also known as fraternal or non-identical twins. They are the most common type of twins.
Unlike monozygotic twins (also known as identical twins), dizygotic twins do not share the same genes. Monozygotic twins share 100 percent of each other genes. Dizygotic twins share only 50 percent. This is the same genetic similarity found between siblings conceived and born at different times.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 103
Incorrect
-
A 25 year old female with her LRMP 8 weeks ago, presented with severe abdominal pain and per vaginal bleeding. On examination there was tenderness over her left iliac region. Her pulse rate was 110 bpm and blood pressure was 90/65mmHg. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Immediate laparotomy
Explanation:A ruptured ectopic pregnancy is the most probable diagnosis. As she is in shock (tachycardia and hypotension) immediate laparotomy is needed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 104
Incorrect
-
Maternal serum prolactin levels in pregnancy are highest:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: On the 3rd to 4th day postpartum
Explanation:Prolactin is necessary for the secretion of milk by the cells of the alveoli. The level of prolactin in the blood increases markedly during pregnancy, and stimulates the growth and development of the mammary tissue, in preparation for the production of milk. However, milk is not secreted then, because progesterone and oestrogen, the hormones of pregnancy, block this action of prolactin. After delivery, levels of progesterone and oestrogen fall rapidly, prolactin is no longer blocked, and milk secretion begins.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 105
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is the most accurate estimate of mature breast milk composition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fat 4%, Protein 1%, Sugar 7%
Explanation:Breast milk contains around 4% fat, 7% sugar and 1% proteins. The rest is water and minerals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 106
Incorrect
-
A 27-year-old woman who is 18 weeks pregnant presented to the emergency department due to a sudden onset of dyspnoea and pleuritic chest pain. She is known to have a previous history of deep venous thrombosis (DVT).
Which of the following is considered to be the most appropriate examination for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ventilation/perfusion scan
Explanation:Pulmonary embolism (PE) is a treatable disease caused by thrombus formation in the lung-vasculature, commonly from the lower extremity’s deep veins compromising the blood flow to the lungs.
Computed tomography of pulmonary arteries (CTPA) and ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) scan are the two most common and widely practiced testing modalities to diagnose pulmonary embolism.Pulmonary ventilation (V) and Perfusion (Q) scan, also known as lung V/Q scan, is a nuclear test that uses the perfusion scan to delineate the blood flow distribution and ventilation scan to measure airflow distribution in the lungs. The primary utilization of the V/Q scan is to help diagnose lung clots called pulmonary embolism. V/Q scan provides help in clinical decision-making by evaluating scans showing ventilation and perfusion in all areas of the lungs using radioactive tracers.
Ventilation-perfusion V/Q scanning is mostly indicated for a patient population in whom CTPA is contraindicated (pregnancy, renal insufficiency CKD stage 4 or more, or severe contrast allergy) or relatively inconclusive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 107
Incorrect
-
Which of the following Oestrogens (Oestrogens) becomes the predominant circulating oestrogen during pregnancy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Estriol
Explanation:Oestradiol is the predominant form of oestrogen during the reproductive life of a female. The estrogenic potency of oestradiol is 12 times more than estrone and 80 times that of estriol.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 108
Incorrect
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A 46 year old lady presents to the gynaecology clinic with a one month history of vulval soreness and lumps. She smokes several packs of tobacco cigarettes a day. A biopsy confirms vulvar intraepithelial neoplasia. What is her risk of developing squamous cell carcinoma?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 15%
Explanation:Vulvar Intraepithelial Neoplasia (VIN) is a non-invasive squamous type lesion that carries a 15% chance of developing into squamous cell carcinoma of the vulva. Human Papillomavirus (HPV) infection, or chronic inflammatory conditions such as lichen sclerosis and lichen planus, can cause changes in the basal cells of the vulvar epithelium. Other risk factors of VIN include multiple sexual partners, cigarette smoking, and immunocompromised states. Diagnosis is by clinical examination and a biopsy confirms neoplasia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 109
Incorrect
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Question 110
Incorrect
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Regarding cardiac examination during pregnancy which of the following findings should be considered pathological?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diastolic murmur
Explanation:Diastolic murmurs occur in conditions such as mitral stenosis, tricuspid stenosis and even in carditis. They are always pathological during pregnancy. Systolic murmurs and left axis deviation may be normal during pregnancy due to an increase in the blood volume and load on the heart.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 111
Incorrect
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Regarding the ECG, what does the P wave represent?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atrial depolarisation
Explanation:P wave = Atrial depolarisation
QRS complex = Ventricular depolarisation
T wave = Ventricular repolarisation
U wave = repolarisation of the interventricular septum -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Biophysics
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Question 112
Incorrect
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You are asked to explain to a patient the results of her Rubella screen. They are as follows:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute Rubella Infection
Explanation:IgM rise is typically seen with acute infection. IgG is produced in response to infection but is produced later than IgM. IgG is also produced in response to vaccination. If IgG and IgM are negative the patient is susceptible to Rubella infection. If IgG +ve and IgM -ve the patient should be considered immune. If IgM +ve this suggests acute infection or false positive IgM (not uncommon)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 113
Incorrect
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Question 114
Incorrect
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48 hours after having unprotected intercourse, a 16-year-old female requested a pregnancy test from her GP. What advice can you give her regarding the reliability of pregnancy testing at this time?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Even if conception has already occurred, beta hCG is likely to be normal. Beta hCG is made by syncytiotrophoblast cells following conception. It then activates the corpus luteum to continuously produce progesterone for implantation to happen. In week 10/40, levels of HCG peak and the placenta can produce adequate progesterone by itself. As a general rule, a beta HCG concentration >25 U/I or a doubling of levels of HCG within two days is required to diagnose pregnancy. A urine pregnancy test would only likely prove positive around 8 days to 2 weeks following conception.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 115
Incorrect
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On the sixth day of her menstrual cycle, a 25-year-old lady comes to your clinic with slight lower abdomen pain. She has no children and lives with her male companion. Her blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, her pulse is 90 beats per minute, and her temperature is 37.5°C.
On vaginal examination, no adnexal lump is palpated, however cervical motion pain is noticed.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cervical swabs for culture
Explanation:Pain upon movement of the cervix with the health care provider’s gloved fingers is suggestive of an inflammatory process of the pelvic organs. CMT, when present, is classically found on bimanual examination of the cervix and uterus. While CMT is often associated with pelvic inflammatory disease, it can be present in other disease entities such as ectopic pregnancy, endometriosis, ovarian torsion, appendicitis, and perforated abdominal viscus.
PID is not a singular disease entity but describes a spectrum of disease. It is an upper genital tract infection, which may affect the uterus, fallopian tubes, ovaries, and peritoneum. PID can begin as cervicitis, progress to endometritis, followed by involvement of the fallopian tubes as pyosalpinx, and ultimately involve the ovary as a tubo-ovarian abscess (TOA). The two most common causative pathogens are N. gonorrhoeae and C. trachomatis although the infection is often polymicrobial.
Documentation of infection with either of these two organisms must be done by cervical swabs for culture.
Transvaginal ultrasound or CT scan can be done to confirm diagnosis however the absence of findings in these investigations doesn’t rule out the possibility of PID.
Urinalysis can be done to exclude urinary tract infection, one of the possible differential diagnosis for PID.
Thyroid stimulating hormone has no role in the diagnosis of PID.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 116
Incorrect
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Fetal urine production starts at what gestation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 8-11 weeks
Explanation:Fetal urine contributes significantly to amniotic fluid production in the second trimester of pregnancy. As early as 8-11 weeks, urine production begins and can be observed in the fetal bladder on ultrasound scans. The urine creates a hypotonic fluid which contains increasing concentrations of urea and creatinine. By term, a foetus produces about 800 ml of urine a day, of which 250ml is eliminated through fetal swallowing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 117
Incorrect
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A 28 year old women is seen in the early pregnancy unit. She has had a positive pregnancy test but is uncertain of her LMP. Ultrasound doesn't visualise a pregnancy. You perform bHCG tests 48 hours apart. The first bHCG is 400mIU/ml. The second is 190mIU/ml. What is the likely diagnosis
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Non-viable pregnancy
Explanation:B-HCG levels almost double every 48 hours. A B-HCG levels of less than 5 mIU/ml is considered negative and anything above 25 is considered positive. As the foetus was not visualized on ultrasound in the uterus, there is possibility that this might be an ectopic pregnancy. But since the B-HCG levels also continued to fall the pregnancy becomes non-viable.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Biochemistry
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Question 118
Incorrect
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A patient present to the clinic with a 1 day history of vaginal prolapse. Upon examination, the vagina is 1.5 cm below the vaginal plane. What grade is the prolapse according to the POP-Q classification?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Grade 3
Explanation:Pelvic organ prolapse is a common condition amongst ageing women where a weakness in the pelvic support structures of the pelvic floor allows pelvic viscera to descend.
The Pelvic Organ Prolapse Quantification system (POP-Q) is useful for describing and staging the severity of the pelvic organ prolapse.
Grade 1: the most distal portion of the prolapse is more than 1 cm above the level of the hymen
Grade 2: the most distal portion of the prolapse is 1 cm or less proximal or distal to the hymenal plane
Grade 3: the most distal portion of the prolapse protrudes more than 1 cm below the hymen but protrudes no farther than 2 cm less than the total vaginal length (for example, not all of the vagina has prolapsed)
Grade 4: vaginal eversion complete -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 119
Incorrect
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You review a 28 year old patient in the fertility clinic. She has a diagnosis of PCOS. She has been trying to conceive for 2 years. Her BMI is 26 kg/m2. She is a non-smoker. She has been taking Clomiphene and metformin for the past 6 months. What is the next most appropriate treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gonadotrophins
Explanation:Clomiphene shouldn’t be continued for more than 6 months. The second line options are Gonadotrophins or ovarian drilling.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 120
Incorrect
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Due to her inability to conceive, a 28-year-old nulligravid lady comes to the office with her husband. The patient and her spouse had been having intercourse every other day since they stopped using barrier contraception a year ago. Every 28 days, the patient experiences a 5-day period with two days of high flow. She has transient pelvic pain 14 days after her menstruation begins, but intercourse is painless.
The patient was admitted to the hospital in her late teens for a pelvic infection, and she had discomfort with intercourse, discharge, and fever during her stay. She hasn't had any previous medical or surgical procedures. Her younger sibling suffers from polycystic ovarian syndrome. The patient's husband is 32 years old, has no children, and a normal semen analysis. The patient has a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg and a pulse rate of 86 beats per minute. There are no anomalies on physical examination.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in this patient's care?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hysterosalpingogram
Explanation:Primary infertility is defined as the inability to conceive after a year of unprotected, timed sexual intercourse in a nulliparous patient under the age of 35. (After 35 years of age, infertility testing can begin after 6 months.) Because the patient’s partner’s sperm analysis is normal, female factor infertility is the most likely explanation. This patient’s adolescent hospitalizations are likely due to pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), a common cause of infertility caused by tubal scarring and blockage.
A hysterosalpingogram, which includes infusing radiocontrast into the cervix under fluoroscopy, is the first-line imaging technique for determining fallopian tube patency. A hysterosalpingogram is a non-invasive procedure that can detect uterine cavity irregularities (e.g., bicornuate uterus).
Peritoneal adhesions and endometriosis can be seen and treated directly using laparoscopy.
PID-related scarring inside the fallopian tubes can be assessed by laparoscopy with chromotubation; however, it is invasive, expensive, and not utilized first-line.
Ovulation is detected using a mid-cycle LH level. The LH surge can be detected in urine and serum 36 hours before ovulation. Regular menstrual periods are characterized by mittelschmerz (mid-cycle pelvic pain), which indicates ovulation. As a result, an LH level would be useless.
Ovarian reserve begins to deteriorate around the age of 35, and serum FSH levels rise in women who are losing their ability to ovulate. Because this patient is much younger and has regular periods, a drop in ovum quantity is unlikely to be the reason for infertility.
Increased serum androgen levels can prevent ovulation by inhibiting the release of GnRH and FSH through feedback inhibition. The patient has regular cycles and no hyperandrogenic symptoms, despite her sister having polycystic ovarian syndrome (e.g., hirsutism, irregular menses).
In a nulliparous patient under the age of 35, primary infertility is defined as the inability to conceive after a year of unprotected sexual intercourse. A hysterosalpingogram is used to determine the cause of infertility, such as tubal blockage caused by a previous pelvic infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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