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Question 1
Incorrect
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Fibrinogen is activated by which of the following?
Your Answer: Tissue Factor
Correct Answer: Thrombin
Explanation:Fibrinogen is activated by thrombin which converts it into fibrin which forms a mesh to trap red blood cells and form a clot.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Biochemistry
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Question 2
Correct
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Which of the following conditions is associated with blunt trauma in a pregnant woman?
Your Answer: Abruptio placentae
Explanation:Abruptio placentae, defined as a premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, is commonly seen with blunt abdominal trauma and can cause fetal distress. It occurs in 1% to 3% of pregnant women with minor trauma and in 40% to 50% with major life-threatening trauma.8,9 Abruption may present with vaginal bleeding, abdominal pain and tenderness, uterine contractions, or fetal distress; however, it may be occult with no vaginal bleeding in up to 20% of cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Rubella belongs to which of the following family of viruses?
Your Answer: Retroviruses
Correct Answer: Togaviruses
Explanation:The Rubella virus, also known as German measles, is found in the Togavirus family and is a single-stranded RNA virus. The virus, which is acquired through contact with respiratory secretions, primarily replicates in the nasopharynx and lymph nodes, and produces a mild and self-limiting illness. Congenital infection, however, is associated with several anomalies including sensorineural deafness, cataracts and cardiac abnormalities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department for evaluation of vaginal discharge. She has had malodorous vaginal discharge and small amounts of vaginal bleeding for about a week. Her mother called the patient’s primary care provider and instructed to stop giving bubble baths to the child, however, the symptoms have not improved. Aside from the discharge, the girl is normal, she was toilet trained at age 2 and has had no episodes of incontinence. She started kindergarten a month ago. Mother informed that patient has no fever, abdominal pain, or dysuria.
On examination, the labia appear normal but a purulent, malodorous vaginal discharge is noted. Visual inspection with the child in knee-chest position shows a whitish foreign body inside the vaginal introitus.
Which among the following is the best next step in management of this patient?Your Answer: Perform speculum examination under general anesthesia
Correct Answer: Irrigate with warmed fluid after local anesthetic application
Explanation:Vaginal spotting, malodorous vaginal discharge and no signs of trauma like lacerations are the clinical features of vaginal foreign bodies in prepubertal girls. The most common object found as foreign body is toilet paper and its management includes warm irrigation and vaginoscopy under sedation/anesthesia.
Common cause of vulvovaginitis in prepubertal girls are vaginal foreign bodies. Although other objects like small toys, hair bands, etc can be occasionally found, the most common vaginal foreign body is toilet paper. Symptoms like malodorous vaginal discharge, intermittent vaginal bleeding or spotting and urinary symptoms like dysuria are caused due to the chronic irritation caused by the foreign body (the whitish foreign body in this case) on the vaginal tissue.
An external pelvic examination is performed with the girl in a knee-chest or frog-leg position in cases of suspected vaginal foreign body. An attempt at removal, after application of a topical anesthetic in the vaginal introitus, using vaginal irrigation with warm fluid or a swab can be done in case of an easily visualized small foreign body like toilet paper. In cases were the age of the girl or the type of foreign body prohibit adequate clinical evaluation the patient should be sedated or given a general anesthesia for examination using a vaginoscope and the foreign body should be removed.
In cases where child abuse or neglect is suspected Child Protective Services should be contacted. Vaginal or rectal foreign bodies can be the initial presentation of sexual abuse; however in otherwise asymptomatic girls with no behavioral changes, urinary symptoms and vulvar or anal trauma, presence of toilet paper is not of an immediately concerning for abuse.
To evaluate pelvic or ovarian masses CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis can be used; but it is not indicated in evaluation of a vaginal foreign body.
Patients in there prepubertal age have a narrow vaginal introitus and sensitive hymenal tissue due to low estrogen levels, so speculum examinations should not be performed in such patients as it can result in significant discomfort and trauma.
Topical estrogen can be used in the treatment of urethral prolapse, which is a cause of vaginal bleeding in prepubertal girls. This diagnosis is unlikely in this case as those with urethral prolapse will present with a beefy red protrusion at the urethra and not a material in the vagina.
Prepubertal girls with retained toilet paper as a vaginal foreign body will present with symptoms like malodorous vaginal discharge and vaginal spotting secondary to irritation. Initial management is topical anaesthetic application and removal of foreign body either by vaginal irrigation with warm fluid or removal with a swab.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Stages of labour
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The third stage ends with the delivery of the placenta and membranes
Explanation:First stage: The latent phase is generally defined as beginning at the point at which the woman perceives regular uterine contractions. A definition of active labour in a British journal was having contractions more frequent than every 5 minutes, in addition to either a cervical dilation of 3 cm or more or a cervical effacement of 80% or more.
Second stage: fetal expulsion begins when the cervix is fully dilated, and ends when the baby is born.
Third stage: placenta delivery – The period from just after the foetus is expelled until just after the placenta is expelled is called the third stage of labour or the involution stage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 6
Incorrect
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The roof of the femoral triangle is formed by which structure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fascia lata
Explanation:The femoral triangle is bounded:
– Superiorly by the inguinal ligament that forms the base of the femoral triangle.
– Medially by the lateral border of the adductor longus.
– Laterally by the sartorius; the apex of the femoral triangle is formed where the borders of the sartorius and the adductor muscles meet.
– The floor of the femoral triangle is formed by the iliopsoas laterally and the pectineus muscle medially.
– The roof of the femoral triangle is formed by the fascia lata and cribriform
fascia, subcutaneous tissue, and skin. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 27 year old women presents with a history of vaginal spotting and cramping abdominal pain. She has an 8 week history of amenorrhoea. On examination urine pregnancy test is positive and the cervix is closed. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Threatened Miscarriage
Explanation:Miscarriage is a pregnancy that ends spontaneously before the foetus reaches the age of viability i.e. before 24 weeks of gestation. In a threatened miscarriage the USG findings are of a foetus present in the uterus and on speculum examination the cervical OS is closed, in an inevitable miscarriage the cervical OS is opened. In an incomplete miscarriage the uterus contains the retained products of conception and the cervical OS is open. complete miscarriage contains no retained products of conception and the cervix is closed as the bleeding as resolved.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 8
Incorrect
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The following hormones are secreted from the anterior pituitary gland, EXCEPT:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: HCG
Explanation:The following hormones are excreted from the anterior pituitary gland: TSH, GN, ACTH, LH, FSH, MSH, PRL.
Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG, or human chorionic gonadotrophin) is a placental hormone secreted by syncitiotrophoblasts during the second week of gestation. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 32 year old patient with a 28 day menstrual cycle is offered a Hysterosalpingogram (HSG) at an infertility clinic.
At which point in her cycle should the HSG be performed?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Days 6-12
Explanation:Hysterosalpingography is a radiological test used to investigate infertility especially in patients with no history suggesting tubal blockages such as pelvic surgery or PID, in which case a laparoscopy and dye is better suited. For the procedure, a contrast dye is inserted through the cervix, flows through the uterus and the fallopian tubes and should spill into the peritoneum. Fluoroscopy provides dynamic images of these structures to determine if there are any abnormalities or blockages. HSG is best performed on day 6-12 in the cycle, after the cessation of menses, and before ovulation, to avoid X Ray exposure in case of an unknown early pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Biophysics
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman comes in to talk about the findings of a recent CT scan. Last week, the patient was involved in a car accident and had a CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis to rule out any intraabdominal trauma. The CT scan revealed a uterus that was significantly enlarged, with several intramural and pedunculated leiomyomata that did not squeeze the ureters or the surrounding intestine. The patient has a monthly menstrual period with light bleeding lasting four days. On the first day of her monthly period, she normally has stomach discomfort but does not require pain medication. There are no changes in bowel habits, urine frequency, urgency, or chronic pelvic pain in the patient. She doesn't have any chronic illnesses and doesn't use any drugs on a daily basis. The patient is in a monogamous, same-sex relationship and experiences no discomfort during sexual activity. The vital signs are OK, and the BMI is 24 kilograms per square metre. The lower abdomen has an irregularly expanded mass, which is consistent with uterine leiomyomata.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in this patient's care?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Observation and reassurance only
Explanation:Leiomyomas uterine (fibroids)
Clinical features:
Menses that are heavy and last a long time, symptoms of pressure, pelvic discomfort, constipation, frequency of urination, complications during pregnancy, fertility problems, loss of pregnancy, premature birth, uterus enlargement and irregularityWorkup:
UltrasoundTreatment:
Asymptomatic: monitoring
Surgical intervention, hormonal contraceptionThis patient has uterine leiomyomata, or fibroids, which are benign smooth muscle (myometrial) tumours that are very prevalent in adult women (up to 25%). These tumours can expand the endometrium’s surface area, the uterus’ overall size and thickness, and compress adjacent structures; nevertheless, some individuals have no symptoms and are identified by chance during a physical examination or imaging (as in this patient’s CT scan after a car accident).
Heavy, prolonged menses are among the indications for uterine leiomyomata treatment (particularly if associated with anaemia).
Pelvic discomfort that persists (e.g., dyspareunia).
Symptoms in abundance (e.g., pelvic pressure, hydronephrosis, constipation).
Recurrent miscarriages.
Medical or surgical treatment options are available for patients with these clinical characteristics (e.g., myomectomy).This woman had mild menses and no pelvic discomfort or mass symptoms while having many big intramural and pedunculated leiomyomata (e.g., no ureter compression). There is no need for extra treatment in persons with asymptomatic fibroids. Only observation and reassurance are required.
In the treatment of symptomatic fibroids, a combination of oral contraceptive pills and progestin-containing intrauterine devices can be utilised, although they are not required in the management of asymptomatic fibroids. Furthermore, this patient has a minimal risk of unwanted pregnancy (e.g., monogamous, same-sex relationship), and the hazards of these contraceptives (e.g., venous thromboembolism, uterine perforation) outweigh the benefits.GnRH agonist therapy (e.g., leuprolide) is a treatment for symptomatic uterine fibroids that works by inhibiting pulsatile FSH and LH production in the hypothalamus, lowering oestrogen levels. Low oestrogen levels cause a temporary reduction in leiomyoma size, which helps with heavy menses and bulky symptoms. Because long-term usage of GnRH agonists is linked to an increased risk of osteoporotic fractures, they are only administered preoperatively.
Tranexamic acid is a nonhormonal medicinal medication that reduces heavy menstrual bleeding by preventing fibrin breakdown (i.e., an antifibrinolytic drug). This patient’s menses are light.
Uterine leiomyomata (fibroids) are benign myometrial tumours that can produce a range of symptoms but are often identified by chance. Heavy menstrual blood, pelvic pain, and bulk symptoms are all indications for treatment. Patients with asymptomatic fibroids merely need to be monitored and reassured. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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The typical female breast contains how many lobes?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 15-20
Explanation:The female breast is made of about 15 to 20 individual lobes. The lobules each consists of alveoli which drain into a single lactiferous duct. The ductal system leads to lactiferous sinuses and collecting ducts which expel milk from openings in the nipple.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 12
Incorrect
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The broad ligament contains which of the following structures?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Uterine artery
Explanation:The contents of the broad ligament:
Fallopian tubes
Ovarian artery
Uterine artery
Ovarian ligament
Round ligament of uterus -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 13
Incorrect
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The β-hCG curve in maternal serum in a normal pregnancy peaks at:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 10 weeks of pregnancy
Explanation:During the first 8 weeks of pregnancy, concentrations of hCG in the blood and urine usually double every 24 hours. Levels of the hormone typically peak at around 10 weeks, decline until 16 weeks, then remain constant.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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The ovaries produce androgen and progesterone. What is the common precursor for both of these hormones?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cholesterol
Explanation:Cholesterol is the common precursor for progesterone and androgen production.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents in early labour. She is healthy and at full-term.
Her pregnancy has progressed well without any complications.
She indicates that she would like to have a cardiotocograph (CTG) to assess her baby as she has read about its use for foetal monitoring during labour.
What advice would you give her while counselling her regarding the use of CTG compared to intermittent auscultation during labour and delivery?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: There is no evidence to support admission CTG.
Explanation:In high-risk pregnancies, continuous monitoring of foetal heart rate is considered mandatory.
However, in low-risk pregnancies, cardiotocograph (CTG) monitoring provides no benefits over intermittent auscultation.
A significant issue with CTG monitoring is that apparent abnormalities are identified that usually have minimal clinical significance, but can prompt the use of several obstetric interventions such as instrumental deliveries and Caesarean section. In low risk patients, such interventions may not even be required.
CTG monitoring has not been shown to reduce the incidence of cerebral palsy or other neonatal developmental abnormalities, nor does it accurately predict previous foetal oxygenation status unless the CTG is significantly abnormal when it is first connected.
Similarly, CTG cannot accurately predict current foetal oxygenation unless the readings are severely abnormal.
Therefore, there is no evidence to support routine admission CTG (correct answer).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 16
Incorrect
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In the non-pregnant state which of the following hormones is secreted by the corpus luteum?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Progesterone
Explanation:The Corpus Luteum is a temporary endocrine structure that secretes two steroid hormones: 1. Progesterone (17a Hydroxyprogesterone) and 2. Oestradiol. The corpus luteum also secretes Inhibin A. In the menstrual cycle if fertilisation doesn’t occur the corpus luteum stops secreting progesterone and degenerates into a corpus albicans. If fertilisation occurs hCG signals the corpus to continue progesterone production and it is then termed the corpus luteum graviditatis
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old lady comes to your clinic for a refill on her oral contraceptive tablets (Microgynon 30®). You discover she has a blood pressure of 160/100mmHg during your examination, which is confirmed by a second reading 20 minutes later. Her husband and she are expecting a child in six months.
Which of the following recommendations is the best for her?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She should stop OCP, use condoms for contraception and reassess her blood pressure in 3 months
Explanation:Overt hypertension, developing in about 5% of Pill users, and increases in blood pressure (but within normal limits) in many more is believed to be the result of changes in the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, particularly a consistent and marked increase in the plasma renin substrate concentrations. The mechanisms for the hypertensive response are unclear since normal women may demonstrate marked changes in the renin system. A failure of the kidneys to fully suppress renal renin secretion could thus be an important predisposing factor.
These observations provide guidelines for the prescription of oral contraceptives. A baseline blood pressure measurement should be obtained, and blood pressure and weight should be followed at 2- or 3-month intervals during treatment. Oral contraceptive therapy should be contraindicated for individuals with a history of hypertension, renal disease, toxaemia, or fluid retention. A positive family history of hypertension, women for whom long-term therapy is indicated, and groups such as blacks, especially prone to hypertensive phenomena, are all relative contraindications for the Pill.
All other options are incorrect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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What is the primary form of haemoglobin in a 6 week old foetus?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hb Gower 1
Explanation:HB gower 1 is the predominant embryonic haemoglobin when the foetus is 6 weeks old and is replaced by adult haemoglobin by the age of 5 months post natally.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Which group of beta haemolytic streptococci is associated with chorioamnionitis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:Chorioamnionitis is a complication of pregnancy caused by bacterial infection of the fetal amnion and chorion membranes. Group B Streptococcus is associated with chorioamnionitis
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Hyperemesis gravidarum occurs in what percentage of pregnancies?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1.50%
Explanation:Hyperemesis Gravidarum effects around 0.3-2% of Pregnancies. It causes imbalances of fluid and electrolytes, disturbs nutritional intake and metabolism, causes physical and psychological debilitation and is associated with adverse pregnancy outcome, including an increased risk of preterm birth
and low birthweight babies. The aetiology is unknown however various potential mechanisms have been proposed including an association with high levels of serum human chorionic gonadotrophin (hCG), oestrogen and thyroxine. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Which one of the following measurements is usually taken during clinical exam of the pelvis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Shape of the pubic arch
Explanation:During pelvimetry, the shape of the pubic arch is usually examined. It helps in determining the outcome of the type of fetal delivery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Among the following presentations during pregnancy, which is not associated with maternal vitamin D deficiency?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Large for gestational age
Explanation:Retarded skeletal growth resulting in small for gestational age babies are the usual outcomes of an untreated vitamin D deficiency in pregnancy.
Symptoms associated with maternal vitamin D deficiency during pregnancy are:
– Hypocalcemia in newborn.
– Development of Rickets later in life.
– Defective tooth enamel.
– Small for gestational age due to its effect on skeletal growth
– Fetal convulsions or seizures due to hypocalcemia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Which group of beta haemolytic streptococci is associated with chorioamnionitis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:Chorioamnionitis occurs due to prolong rupture of the fetal membranes. It is most commonly caused by B streptococcus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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In evaluating a reproductive age woman who presents with amenorrhea, which of the following conditions will result in a positive (withdrawal) progesterone challenge test?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Polycystic ovarian syndrome
Explanation:In pregnancy, progesterone is produced by the corpus luteum followed by the placenta- Exogenous progesterone will not lead to withdrawal bleeding. In ovarian failure as well as pituitary failure, no oestrogen stimulation of the endometrium exists, and progesterone cannot cause withdrawal bleeding. With Mullerian agenesis, there is no endometrium. Polycystic ovarian syndrome has an abundance of circulating oestrogen, so the endometrium will proliferate.
→ In pregnancy progesterone withdrawal will not occur since the corpus luteum is producing progesterone- The placenta will take over, starting at 7 weeks, and will be the sole producer of progesterone by 12 weeks.
→ In ovarian failure no oestrogen will be produced; no proliferation of the endometrium will occur.
→ Pituitary failure is an incorrect answer because without gonadotropin stimulation, there will not be enough oestrogen to stimulate the endometrial lining.
→ Mullerian agenesis is an incorrect answer – there is no uterus, thus no bleeding. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 37-year-old woman visits a gynaecological clinic for a check-up. A cervical screening test is performed by the doctor. HPV Type Non-16/18 is detected in her cervical cytology. Squamous cells and other abnormalities were found to be absent in the reflex liquid-based cytology.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in this patient's care?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Repeat Cervical screening test in 12 months
Explanation:A cervical screening test was performed on this patient, and the result revealed the presence of the Human Papilloma Virus Type non-16/18. Reflex liquid base cytology was conducted, but no further abnormalities were seen. In this case, the patient should be offered a 12-month repeat cervical screening cytology. If the patient’s repeated cervical screening cytology after 12 months revealed LSIL, she should be referred for a colposcopy.
If HPV is discovered at 12 months, regardless of the LBC result, some women may be at higher risk of having high-grade abnormalities and should be referred to colposcopy. These include:
– women 2 or more years overdue for screening at the time of the initial screen
– women who identify as being of Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islander
– women aged 50 years or older.Summary of recommended actions based on the level of risk
Intermediate danger:
– HPV non-16/18 positive, intermediate risk (with negative or low-grade cytology)
If feasible, repeat the HPV test after 12 months.
A three-to-six-month delay would be acceptable. Delays of longer than six months are discouraged.
Follow up HPV test – HPV non 16/18 (possible high grade cytology or high-grade squamous lesion (HSIL) – Treated as Higher risk.High-risk:
HPV non-16/18 positive on follow-up HPV test (with negative or low-grade cytology)
Refer to an expert right away for further investigation.If your patient is: 2 years or more past due for screening at the time of the initial screening, and identifies as Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islander aged 50 or older, they may be at higher risk and should be referred to a professional at once for additional evaluation.
HPV 16/18 positive with any of the following non–16/18 positive: a glandular anomaly in high-grade cytology high-grade squamous lesion (HSIL) cancer. Refer to an expert right away for further investigation.
Currently, several colposcopy facilities are experiencing strong demand and extended wait times. If you are concerned that your patient will be delayed, you should call the specialist or clinic to which your patient has been referred.
On the Cure Test Pathway, wherever possible, continue testing as planned. A woman who has been treated for HSIL (CIN2/3) should have a 12-month follow-up co-test and annual tests after that. She can resume standard 5-yearly screening after receiving two consecutive negative co-tests. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Regarding lymph drainage of the fallopian tubes where does the majority of lymph drain to?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Para-aortic nodes
Explanation:Lymphatic vessels from the ovaries, joined by vessels from the uterine tubes and most from the fundus of the uterus, follow the ovarian veins as they ascend to the right and left lumbar (caval/aortic) lymph nodes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Besides infertility, the most common symptoms of a luteal phase defect is:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Early abortion
Explanation:Luteal phase defect is an ovulatory disorder of considerable clinical importance that is implicated in infertility and recurrent spontaneous abortion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Sensory supply to the clitoris is via branches of which nerve?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pudendal nerve
Explanation:The Pudendal nerve divides into inferior rectal, perineal and dorsal nerve of the clitoris (or penis in males). The dorsal nerve of clitoris supplies sensory innervation to the clitoris. The perineal branch supplies sensory innervation to the skin of the labia majora and minora and the vestibule.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old G2P2 who is on her 7th day postpartum called her physician due to her concern of bleeding from the vagina. Upon interview, she described the bleeding to be light pink to bright red and compared with the first few days post-delivery, the bleeding was less heavy. There was also no fever or cramping pain reported by the patient.
Upon examination, it was observed that she is afebrile and her uterus is appropriately sized and non-tender. There was also the presence of about 10cc old, dark blood in her vagina and her cervix was closed.
Which of the following is considered the most appropriate treatment for the patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reassurance
Explanation:The postpartum period begins soon after the baby’s delivery and usually lasts six to eight weeks and ends when the mother’s body has nearly returned to its pre-pregnant state.
Bloody vaginal discharge (lochia rubra) is heavy for the first 3-4 days, and slowly it becomes watery in consistency and colour changes to pinkish-brown (lochia serosa). After the next 10-12 days, it changes to yellowish-white (lochia alba). Advise women to seek medical attention if heavy vaginal bleeding persists (soaking a pad or more in less than an hour). Women with heavy, persistent postpartum bleeding should be evaluated for complications such as retained placenta, uterine atony, rarely invasive placenta, or coagulation disorders. Endometritis may also occur, presenting as fever with no source, maybe accompanied by uterine tenderness and vaginal discharge. This usually requires intravenous antibiotics. This also should be explained and advise the mother to seek immediate medical attention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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