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Question 1
Incorrect
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Among the following infectious diseases, which is typically considered to have an incubation period of less than 3 weeks?
Your Answer: Infectious mononucleosis
Correct Answer: Diphtheria
Explanation:C. diphtheriae, which is the causative agent of diphtheria, is carried in the upper respiratory tract and spread by droplet infection or hand-to-mouth contact. The incubation period averages 2 to 5 days.
Infectious mononucleosis is caused by Epstein-Barr virus (EBV). The incubation period for EBV varies from 2 weeks to 2 months.
The incubation for Hepatitis A virus is approximately 1 month.
The incubation period for Hepatitis C ranges from 2 weeks to 6 months.
The period from infection to development of anti-HIV antibodies is usually less than 1 month but may be up to 3 months.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Specific Pathogen Groups
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Question 2
Correct
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A 26-year-old man is involved in a motorcycle accident that results in an open fracture of his tibia and fibula. The nerve that innervates peroneus tertius is damaged as a consequence of his injuries.
Peroneus tertius receives its innervation from which of the following nerves? Select ONE answer only.Your Answer: Deep peroneal nerve
Explanation:Peroneus brevis is innervated by the superficial peroneal nerve.
Peroneus longus is innervated by the superficial peroneal nerve.
Peroneus tertius is innervated by the deep peroneal nerve. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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Question 3
Correct
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Which anatomical structure is divided following an emergency department anterolateral thoracotomy?
Your Answer: Latissimus dorsi
Explanation:Thoracotomy describes an incision made in the chest wall to access the contents of the thoracic cavity. Thoracotomies typically can be divided into two categories; anterolateral thoracotomies and posterolateral thoracotomies. These can be further subdivided into supra-mammary and infra-mammary and, of course, further divided into the right or left chest. Each type of incision has its utility given certain circumstances.
A scalpel is used to sharply divide the skin along the inframammary crease overlying the fifth rib. Electrocautery is then used to divide the pectoralis major muscle and serratus anterior muscle. Visualization of the proper operative field can be achieved with the division and retraction of the latissimus dorsi. Either the fourth or fifth intercostal space is then entered after the division of intercostal muscles above the rib to ensure the preservation of the neurovascular bundle. Once the patient is properly secured to the operating table, the ipsilateral arm is raised and positioned anteriorly and cephalad to rest above the head. The incision is started along the inframammary crease and extended posterolaterally below the tip of the scapula. It is then extended superiorly between the spine and the edge of the scapula, a short distance. The trapezius muscle and the subcutaneous tissues are divided with electrocautery. The serratus anterior and latissimus dorsi muscles are identified and can be retracted. The intercostal muscles are then divided along the superior border of the ribs, and the thoracic cavity is accessed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Thorax
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Question 4
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old patient with a history of chronic heart failure presents to you. Examination reveals widespread oedema.
Which statement about plasma oncotic pressure (Ï€ p ) is true?Your Answer: The osmotic effect of albumin is decreased by the Gibbs-Donnan effect
Correct Answer: The influence of π p on fluid movement is negligible if the capillary reflection co-efficient is 0.1
Explanation:Plasma oncotic pressure (Ï€p) is typically 25-30 mmHg.
70% of π p is generated by albumin so Hypoalbuminemia will decrease π p
The osmotic power of albumin is enhanced by the Gibbs-Donnan effect.
The influence of π p on fluid movement is negligible if the capillary reflection coefficient is 0.1. Another way of saying a vessel is highly permeable is saying the reflection coefficient is close to 0.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Physiology
- Physiology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 31-year-old man with sickle-cell disease receives a blood transfusion for symptomatic anaemia. He presents to the Emergency Department three weeks later with a rash, fever, and diarrhoea. He has pancytopenia and abnormal liver function results on blood tests.
Which of the transfusion reactions is most likely to have happened?Your Answer: Graft-vs-host disease
Explanation:Blood transfusion can be a life-saving treatment with significant clinical benefits, but it also comes with a number of risks and potential complications, including:
Immunological side effects
Errors in administration (episodes of ‘wrong blood’)
Viruses and Infections (bacterial, viral, possibly prion)
ImmunodilutionA culture of better safety procedures as well as steps to reduce the use of transfusion has emerged as a result of growing awareness of avoidable risk and improved reporting systems. Transfusion errors, on the other hand, continue to occur, and some serious adverse reactions go unreported.
Transfusion-associated graft-vs-host disease (TA-GVHD) is a rare blood transfusion complication that causes fever, rash, and diarrhoea 1-4 weeks after the transfusion. Pancytopenia and liver function abnormalities are common laboratory findings.
TA-GVHD, unlike GVHD following allogeneic marrow transplantation, causes profound marrow aplasia with a mortality rate of >90%. Survival is uncommon, with death occurring within 1-3 weeks of the onset of symptoms.
Because of immunodeficiency, severe immunosuppression, or shared HLA antigens, viable T lymphocytes in blood components are transfused, engraft, and react against the recipient’s tissues, and the recipient is unable to reject the donor lymphocytes.
The following is a list of the most common transfusion reactions and complications:1) Reaction to a febrile transfusion
The temperature rises by one degree from the baseline. Chills and malaise are also possible symptoms.
The most common response (1 in 8 transfusions).
Cytokines from leukocytes in transfused red cell or platelet components are usually to blame.
Only supportive. The use of paracetamol is beneficial.2) Acute haemolytic reaction is a type of haemolytic reaction that occurs when the
Fever, chills, pain at the transfusion site, nausea, vomiting, and dark urine are all symptoms of a transfusion reaction.
Early on, many people report a sense of ‘impending doom.’
The most serious reaction. ABO incompatibility is frequently caused by a clerical error.
STOP THE TRANSFUSION OF INFORMATION. IV fluids should be given. It’s possible that diuretics will be required.3) Haemolytic reaction that is delayed
It usually happens 4 to 8 days after a blood transfusion.
Fever, anaemia, jaundice, and haemoglobinuria are all symptoms that the patient has.
Positive Coombs test for direct antiglobulin.
Because of the low titre antibody, it is difficult to detect in a cross-match, and it is unable to cause lysis at the time of transfusion.
The majority of delayed haemolytic reactions are harmless and do not require treatment.
Anaemia and renal function should be monitored and treated as needed.4) Reaction to allergens
Foreign plasma proteins are usually to blame, but anti-IgA could also be to blame.
Urticaria, pruritus, and hives are typical allergic reactions. It’s possible that it’s linked to laryngeal oedema or bronchospasm.
Anaphylaxis is a rare occurrence.
Antihistamines can be used to treat allergic reactions symptomatically. It is not necessary to stop transfusions.
If the patient develops anaphylaxis, the transfusion should be stopped and the patient should be given adrenaline and treated according to the ALS protocol.5) TRALI (Transfusion Related Acute Lung Injury)
Within 6 hours of transfusion, there was a sudden onset of non-cardiogenic pulmonary oedema.
It’s linked to the presence of antibodies to recipient leukocyte antigens in the donor blood.
The most common cause of death from transfusion reactions is this.
STOP THE TRANSFUSION OF INFORMATION. Oxygen should be given to the patient. Around 75% of patients will require aggressive respiratory support.
The use of diuretics should be avoided.6) TACO (Transfusion Associated Circulatory Overload)
Acute or worsening respiratory distress within 6 hours of a large blood transfusion. Fluid overload and pulmonary and peripheral oedema can be seen. Rapid blood pressure rises are common. BNP is usually 1.5 times higher than it was before the transfusion. It is most common in the elderly and those who have chronic anaemia.Blood transfusions should be given slowly, over the course of 3-4 hours.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
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Question 6
Correct
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Diagnosis of HIV is predominantly made through which of the following:
Your Answer: Antibody detection
Explanation:Diagnosis of HIV is predominantly made through detection of HIV antibody and p24 antigen. Viral load (viral PCR) and CD4 count are used to monitor progression of disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Pathogens
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Question 7
Correct
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The mechanism of action of abciximab is by:
Your Answer: Blocking the binding of fibrinogen to GPIIb/IIIa receptor sites
Explanation:Abciximab is a glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitors and prevents platelet aggregation by blocking the binding of fibrinogen to receptors on platelets.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Pharmacology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 7-year-old presented to a GP with a history of headache, neck stiffness and photophobia. On examination, HR is 122, BP is 87/42, RR is 28, SaO 2 is 95%, temperature is 39.4 o C. There is a recent non-blanching rash on legs and arms. The GP administered a dose of antibiotics before transferring child to the Emergency Department.
Which of these is the most appropriate antibiotic to administer in this scenario from the choices available?
Your Answer: Give IM benzylpenicillin 600 mg
Explanation:Meningococcal septicaemia should be suspected in a child with a non-blanching rash especially in the presence of:
An ill-looking child
Neck stiffness
Lesions larger than 2 mm in diameter (purpura)
Capillary refill time of>3 secondsThe index child is very sick and shows signs of septic shock. In the prehospital setting, a single dose of benzylpenicillin should be given immediately. The correct dose for this childs age is IM benzylpenicillin 600 mg.
The recommended doses of benzylpenicillin according to age are:
Infants <1 year of age: IM or IV benzylpenicillin 300 mg
Children 1 to 9 years of age: IM or IV benzylpenicillin 600mg
Children and adults 10 years or older: IM or IV benzylpenicillin 1.2g -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infections
- Pharmacology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Which of the following terms describes the proportion of individuals with a negative test result who actually do not have a disease:
Your Answer: Negative likelihood ratio
Correct Answer: Negative predictive value
Explanation:Negative predictive value (NPV) is the proportion of individuals with a negative test result who do not have the disease.
NPV = d/(c+d) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Medicine
- Statistics
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Question 10
Correct
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A patient was diagnosed with Erb's palsy as a result of a brachial plexus injury sustained in a car accident and, as a result, suffers from left arm paralysis. The following muscles are affected by the injury, except
Your Answer: Trapezius
Explanation:Damage to the C5 and C6 nerve roots causes Erb’s palsy.
The spinal accessory nerve (CN XI) innervates the trapezius muscle, thus you would not expect this muscle to be impacted.
The trapezius is a muscle that runs from the base of the neck across the shoulders and into the centre of the back.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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