-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
In endurance athletes, which of the following physiological adaptations to exercise is the best predictor of performance?
Your Answer: Increased capillary density in muscle
Correct Answer: Velocity of blood lactate accumulation
Explanation:Multiple regression analysis revealed that velocity of lactate accumulation (VOBLA) accounted for 92 percent of the variation in marathon running velocity (VM), and VOBLA plus training volume prior to the marathon accounted for 96 percent of the variation. Percent ST muscle fibre distribution (r = 0.55-0.69) and capillary density (r = 052-0.63) were found to be positively correlated with all performance variables. As a result, marathon running performance was linked to VOBLA and the ability to run at a pace close to it during the race. The percent ST, capillary density, and training volume were all related to these properties.
Another metabolic adaptation compared to normal people is the early selection of fat for oxidation by muscle, especially when glucose availability is limited during high-intensity exercise. This helps to delay the onset of muscle fatigue, but it does not prevent VOBLA.
For a given level of exercise, training can also result in cardiovascular adaptation, such as increased heart size, increased contractility, and a slower heart rate. All of these factors contribute to an increase in maximal oxygen consumption (VO2 max), but genetic factors, despite intensive training, play a large role in an athlete’s performance.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
A 68-year-old man is to be operated.
Â
His past history is significant for a stroke, and some residual neurological deficit. The cranial nerves are examined clinically. He is unable to rotate his head to the left side when resistance is applied. Moreover, there is tongue wasting on the right side. There are no unusual sensory signs and symptoms.
The most likely reason for these clinical findings is?Your Answer: Damage to spinal accessory (XI) nerve
Correct Answer: Damage to hypoglossal (XII) and spinal accessory (XI) nerves
Explanation:The upper five cervical segments of the spinal cord give rise to the XI cranial nerve. They connect with a few smaller branches before exiting the skull through the jugular foramen. The sternomastoid and trapezius muscles get their motor supply from the accessory root. Except for the palatoglossus, the hypoglossal nerve supplies motor supply to all tongue muscles.
The inability to shrug the shoulder on the affected side and rotate the head to the side against resistance is caused by damage to the spinal accessory nerve. This is due to the trapezius and sternomastoid muscles’ weakness.
The hypoglossal nerve is damaged, resulting in tongue wasting and inability to move from side to side.
The stylopharyngeus receives motor supply from the glossopharyngeal nerve. It also carries taste sensory fibres from the back third of the tongue, as well as the carotid sinus, carotid body, pharynx, and middle ear.
Motor supply to the larynx, pharynx, and palate; parasympathetic innervation to the heart, lung, and gut; and sensory fibres from the epiglottis and valleculae are all provided by the vagus nerve.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
An individual who recently moved his residence from the plains to the mountains will experience immediately which physiologic response to high altitude and hypoxia?
Your Answer: Polycythaemia
Correct Answer: Increased cardiac output
Explanation:A person remaining at high altitudes for days, weeks, or years becomes more and more acclimatized to the low PO2, so it causes fewer deleterious effects on the body.
After acclimatization, it becomes possible for the person to work harder without hypoxic effects or to ascend to still higher altitudes. The principal means by which acclimatization comes about are (1) a great increase in pulmonary ventilation, (2) increased numbers of red blood cells, (3) diffusing capacity of the lungs, (4) increased vascularity of the peripheral tissues, and (5) increased ability of the tissue cells to use oxygen despite low PO2.
The cardiac output often increases as much as 30% immediately after a person ascends to high altitude but then decreases back toward normal over a period of weeks as the blood haematocrit increases, so the amount of oxygen transported to the peripheral body tissues remains about normal.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
A 63-year old male who has heart failure has peripheral oedema and goes to the GP's office. The GP notes that he is fluid-overloaded. This causes his atrial myocytes to release atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP). ANP's main action is by which of these mechanisms?
Your Answer: Antagonist of angiotensin II
Explanation:Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) is secreted mainly from myocytes of right atrium and ventricle in response to increased blood volume.
It is secreted by both the right and left atria (right >> left).It is a 28 amino acid peptide hormone, which acts via cGMP
degraded by endopeptidases.It serves to promote the excretion of sodium, lowers blood pressure, and antagonise the actions of angiotensin II and aldosterone.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
-
-
Question 6
Correct
-
While on the ward, you notice a patient that is lying down attached to a monitor. He is hypotensive with a blood pressure of 90/70mmHg and he is also tachycardic with a pulse of 120 beats/minute. After adjusting the bed with the patient's legs raised by 45 degrees, you reassess the blood pressure after 1 minute and his blood pressure has increased to 100/75mmHg. You then prescribe IV fluids and ask for 500ml of normal saline to be given intravenously over 15 minutes. The increase in the blood pressure can be explained by which physiological association?
Your Answer: Venous return is proportional to stroke volume
Explanation:A passive leg raise can lead to transient increases in blood pressure and stroke volume as it increased the amount of venous return to the heart. Venous return increases in this situation as it transfers a larger volume of blood from the lower limbs to the right heart. It therefore mimics a fluid challenge. However its effects are short lasting and often lead to minimal increases in blood pressure. It therefore should not be used to treat shock in isolation. The passive leg raise is useful in determining the likelihood that a patient with shock will respond to fluid resuscitation.
Stroke volume (via a cardiac monitor) and/or pulse pressure (via an arterial line) should be measured to assess the effects of a passive leg raise. An increase in stroke volume by 9% or in pulse pressure by 10% are considered indicative of fluid responsiveness.
Blood that enters the ventricles during diastole causes stretching of sarcomeres within cardiac muscle. The extent to which they stretch is proportional to the strength of ventricular muscle contraction. Therefore, the venous return (amount of blood returned to the heart) is proportional to stroke volume. The end diastolic volume is determined by venous return and is also proportional to stroke volume.
Cardiac muscle contraction strength is dependent on the action of adrenaline and noradrenaline, but these hormones contribute to cardiac contractility, not to stroke volume.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
A 28-year-old man is admitted to the critical care unit. He has been diagnosed with adult respiratory distress syndrome and is being ventilated. His haemodynamic condition is improved using a pulmonary artery flotation.
His readings are listed below:
Haemoglobin concentration: 10 g/dL
Mixed venous oxygen saturation: 70%
Mixed venous oxygen tensions (PvO2): 50 mmHg
Estimate his mixed venous oxygen content (mL/100mL).Your Answer: 9.5
Explanation:Mixed venous oxygen content (CvO2) is the oxygen concentration in 100mL of mixed venous blood taken from the pulmonary artery. It is usually 12-17 mL/dL (70-75%). It is represented mathematically as:
CvO2 = (1.34 x Hgb x SvO2 x 0.01) + (0.003 x PvO2)
Where,
1.34 = Huffner’s constant
Hgb = Haemoglobin level (g/dL)
SvO2 = % oxyhaemoglobin saturation of mixed venous blood
PvO2 = 0.0225 = mL of O2 dissolved per 100mL plasma per kPa, or 0.003 mL per mmHgTherefore,
CvO2 = (1.34 x 10 x 70 x 0.01) + (0.003 x 50)
CvO2 = 9.38 + 0.15 = 9.53 mL/100mL
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
A 62-year-old woman, presents to emergency department with an ischaemic left colon.
Multiple arteries arise from the aorta at the level of the L3 vertebrae, which is most likely to be involved in this pathology?Your Answer: Superior rectal artery
Correct Answer: Inferior mesenteric artery
Explanation:The inferior mesenteric artery arises from the abdominal aorta at the level of the L3 vertebrae and supplies blood to the final third of the transverse colon, the descending colon, the sigmoid colon and the uppermost part of the rectum.
It is the artery most likely to affect the left colon.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 9
Correct
-
Iron is one of the most important micronutrients in the body.
Out of the following, which one has the most abundant storage of iron in the body?Your Answer: Haemoglobin
Explanation:Iron is a necessary micronutrient for proper erythropoietic function, oxidative metabolism, and cellular immune responses. Although dietary iron absorption (1-2 mg/d) is tightly controlled, it is only just balanced by losses.
The adult body contains 35-45 mg/kg iron (about 4-5 g)
Iron can be found in a variety of forms, including haemoglobin, ferritin, haemosiderin, myoglobin, haem enzymes, and transferrin bound proteins.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements is true with regards to the Krebs' cycle (also known as the tricarboxylic acid cycle or citric acid cycle)?
Your Answer: Pyruvate condenses with oxaloacetate to form citrate
Correct Answer: Alpha-ketoglutarate is a five carbon molecule
Explanation:Krebs’ cycle (tricarboxylic acid cycle or citric acid cycle) is a sequence of reactions in which acetyl coenzyme A (acetyl-CoA) is metabolised and this results in carbon dioxide and hydrogen atoms production.
This series of reactions occur in the mitochondria of eukaryotic cells, not the cytoplasm. The cycle requires oxygen and so, cannot function under anaerobic conditions.
It is the common pathway for carbohydrate, fat and some amino acids oxidation and is required for high energy phosphate bond formation in adenosine triphosphate (ATP).
When pyruvate enters the mitochondria, it is converted into acetyl-CoA. This represents the formation of a 2 carbon molecule from a 3 carbon molecule. There is loss of one CO2 but formation of one NADH molecule. Acetyl-CoA is condensed with oxaloacetate, the anion of a 4 carbon acid, to form citrate which is a 6 carbon molecule.
Citrate is then converted into isocitrate, alpha-ketoglutarate, succinyl-CoA, succinate, fumarate, malate and finally oxaloacetate.
The only 5 carbon molecule in the cycle is alpha-ketoglutarate.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
A 20-year-old boy is undergoing surgery for indirect inguinal hernia repair. The deep inguinal ring is exposed and held with a retractor at its medial aspect during the procedure.
What structure is most likely to lie under the retractor on the medial side?Your Answer: Femoral artery
Correct Answer: Inferior epigastric artery
Explanation:The deep inguinal ring is the entrance of the inguinal canal. It is an opening in the transversalis fascia around 1 cm above the inguinal ligament. Therefore, the superolateral wall is made by the transervalis fascia.
The inferior epigastric vessels run medially to the deep inguinal ring forming its inferomedial border.
The inguinal canal extends obliquely from the deep inguinal ring to the superficial inguinal ring.
An indirect inguinal hernia arises through the deep inguinal ring lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
A man suffers damage to his vagus nerve during surgery on his neck. The vagus nerve is cut near its exit from the skull. The man loses his parasympathetic tone raising his heart rate and blood pressure.
What other feature will be likely present with a vagus nerve injury?Your Answer: Pupillary constriction
Correct Answer: Hoarse voice
Explanation:The vagus nerve is a mixed nerve with both autonomic and somatic effects. Its most important somatic effect is the motor supply to the larynx via recurrent laryngeal nerves. If one vagus nerve is damaged, the result will be the same as damage to a single recurrent laryngeal nerve, leading to hoarseness of voice.
The vagus exits the skull via the jugular foramen, accompanied by the accessory nerve.
Anal tone, erections, and urination are all controlled by the sacral parasympathetic and would not be affected by the loss of the vagus. Parasympathetic controlled pupillary constriction is via the oculomotor nerve and would not be affected by the loss of the vagus.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is true about number needed to harm?
Your Answer: The number of patients that must receive a particular treatment for one patient in that group to receive a positive outcome
Correct Answer: The number of patients that must receive a particular treatment for one additional patient to experience an adverse outcome.
Explanation:Number needed to harm are a measure of the impact of a treatment or intervention that is often used to communicate results to patients, clinicians, the public and policymakers. It states how many patients need to be treated for one additional patient to experience an adverse outcome (e.g. a death). It is calculated as the inverse of the absolute risk reduction. It can equally well be applied to harmful outcomes as well as beneficial ones, where it becomes numbers needed to treat (NNT) instead.
In this way, they are both calculated the same but NNT usually refers to a therapeutic treatment whereas NNH refers to a risk-factor for disease.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
-
-
Question 14
Correct
-
A 28-year male patient presents to the GP with a 2-day history of abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea. He reports that he was completely fine until one week ago when headache and general tiredness appeared. After further questioning, he revealed eating at a dodgy takeaway 3 days before the start of his symptoms.
Which of the following diagnosis is most likely?Your Answer: Campylobacter
Explanation:Giardiasis is known to have a longer incubation time and doesn’t cause bloody diarrhoea.
Cholera usually doesn’t cause bloody diarrhoea.
Generally, most of the E.coli strains do not cause bloody diarrhoea.
Diverticulitis can be a cause of bloody stool but the history here points out to an infectious cause.
Campylobacter infection is the most probable cause as it is characterized by a prodrome, abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
-
-
Question 15
Correct
-
A 70-year-old female presented with a productive cough and is prescribed a bacteriostatic antibiotic?
Which of the following best explains the mechanism of action of bacteriostatic drugs?Your Answer: Protein synthesis inhibition
Explanation:Cell membrane pore formation, Bacterial DNA damage, Peptidoglycan cross-linking inhibition, and peptidoglycan synthesis inhibitor are always lethal and such mechanisms are possible only in bactericidal drugs. But Protein synthesis inhibition would only prevent cell replication or cell growth and is responsible for bacteriostatic effects of the drug.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
Drug X, a new intravenous induction drug, is being administered as a bolus at regular time intervals, and the following data were observed:
Time following injection (hours) vs Plasma concentration of drug X (mcg/mL)
2 / 400
6 / 100
10 / 25
14 / 6.25
Which of the following values estimate the plasma half-life (T½) of drug X?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2 hours
Explanation:Half life (T½) is the time required to change the amount of drug in the body by one-half (or 50%) during elimination. The time course of a drug in the body will depend on both the volume of distribution and the clearance.
Extrapolating the values from the plasma concentration vs time:
Plasma concentration at 0 hours = 800 mcg/mL
Plasma concentration at 2 hours = 400 mcg/mL
Plasma concentration at 4 hours = 200 mcg/mL
Plasma concentration at 6 hours = 100 mcg/mL
Plasma concentration at 8 hours = 50 mcg/mL
Plasma concentration at 10 hours = 25 mcg/mL
Plasma concentration at 12 hours = 12.5 mcg/mL
Plasma concentration at 14 hours = 6.25 mcg/mL -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old woman's blood pressure readings in the clinic are 170/109 mmHg, 162/100 mmHg and 175/107 mmHg and her routine haematology, biochemistry, and 12-lead ECG are normal.
She is assessed on the day of surgery prior to laparoscopic inguinal hernia repair and is found to be normally fit and well. Documentation of previous blood pressure measurements from her general practitioner in the primary healthcare setting are not available.
What is your next course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Proceed with scheduled surgery without treatment
Explanation:The AAGBI and the British Hypertension Society has published guidelines for the measurement of adult blood pressure and management of hypertension before elective surgery.
The objective is to ensure that patients admitted for elective surgery have a known systolic blood pressure below 160 mmHg and diastolic blood pressures below 100 mmHg. The primary health care teams, if possible, should ensure that this is the case and provide evidence to the pre-assessment clinic staff or on admission.
Avoiding cancellation on the day of surgery because of white coat hypertension is a secondary objective.
Patients with blood pressures below 180 mmHg systolic and 110 mmHg diastolic (measured in the preop assessment clinic), who present to pre-operative assessment clinics without documented evidence of primary care blood pressures should proceed to elective surgery.
In this question, the history/assessment does not appear to point to obvious end-organ damage so there is no indication for further investigation for secondary causes of hypertension or an echocardiogram at this point. Further review and treatment at this point is not required.
However, you should write to the patient’s GP and encourage serial blood pressure measurements in the primary health care setting.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old man has been diagnosed with a direct inguinal hernia.
A direct inguinal hernia passes through Hesselbach's triangle. What forms the medial edge of this triangle?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rectus abdominis muscle
Explanation:The inguinal triangle of Hesselbach’s is an important clinical landmark on the posterior wall of the inguinal canal. It has the following relations:
Inferiorly – medial third of the inguinal ligament
Medially – lower lateral border of the rectus abdominis
Laterally – inferior epigastric vesselsDirect inguinal hernia is when the bowel bulges directly through the abdominal wall. These hernias usually protrude through Hesselbach’s triangle
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
Which statement is correct concerning breathing systems?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The reservoir bag can limit the pressure in the breathing system to about 40 cm of water
Explanation:Mapleson classified breathing systems into A, B, C, D and E. Jackson-Rees subsequently modified the Mapleson E by adding a double-ended bag to the end of the reservoir tubing, creating the Mapleson F. A Mapleson E or T-piece does not have a reservoir bag.
A Mapleson A system is a very efficient system for use during spontaneous ventilation. However, it is not suitable for use with patients less than 25 kg, due to the increased dead space at the distal / patient end. This system can be modified into a Lack system or coaxial Mapleson A, where the fresh gas flows through an outer tube (30 mm) and exhaled gases flow through the inner tube (14 mm).
The adjustable pressure limiting valve (APL) or expiratory valve allows exhaled gas and excess fresh gas to leave the breathing system. It is a one-way, adjustable spring-loaded valve, and gases escape when the pressure in the system exceeds the valve opening pressure. During spontaneous ventilation a pressure of less than 1 cm of water (0.1 kPa) is needed when the valve is in the open position (not 2 cm of H2O).
The reservoir bag is highly compliant and when over inflated, the rubber bag can limit the pressure in the system to about 40 cm of H2O.
This is due to the law of Laplace, which states that the pressure will fall as the radius of the bag increases:
Pressure = 2 x tension/radius.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
A new intravenous neuromuscular blocking agent has been developed. It has a hepatic extraction ratio of 0.25 and three quaternary nitrogen atoms in its structure. It has been discovered that it has a half-life of fifteen minutes in healthy volunteers.
Which of the following elimination mechanisms is the most likely to explain this pharmacological behaviour?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is filtered and not reabsorbed by the renal tubules
Explanation:The neuromuscular blocking agent is likely to be filtered and not reabsorbed by the renal tubules due to an exclusion process.
Neuromuscular blocking agents that contain one or more quaternary nitrogen atoms are polar and ionised. As a result, the molecules have low lipid solubility, low membrane diffusion capacity, and low distribution volume.
It’s unlikely that a compound with three quaternary nitrogen atoms is an ester. Its high polarity would prevent molecules from moving quickly into tissues.
When drugs have a low hepatic extraction ratio (0.3), the venous and arterial drug concentrations are nearly identical. The liver is not the primary site of drug metabolism.
Therefore:
Changes in liver blood flow have no effect on clearance.
Protein binding, intrinsic metabolism, and excretion are all very sensitive to changes in clearance.
When taken orally, there is no first-pass metabolism.There is no reason for the lungs to eliminate any neuromuscular blocking agent.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
These proprietary preparations of local anaesthetic are available in your hospital:
Solution A contains 10 mL 0.5% bupivacaine (plain), and
Solution B contains 10 mL 0.5% bupivacaine with adrenaline 1 in 200,000.
What is the pharmacokinetic difference between the two solutions?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The onset of action of solution A is quicker than solution B
Explanation:The reasons for adding adrenaline to a local anaesthetic solution are:
1. To Increase the duration of block
2. To reduce absorption of the local anaesthetic into the circulation
3. To Increase the upper safe limit of local anaesthetic (2.5 mg/kg instead of 2 mg/kg, in this case).The addition of adrenaline to bupivacaine does not affect its potency, lipid solubility, protein binding, or pKa(8.1 with or without adrenaline).
The pH of bupivacaine is between 5-7. Premixed with adrenaline, it is 3.3-5.5.
The onset of a local anaesthetic and its ability to penetrate membranes depends upon degree of ionisation. Compared with the ionised fraction, unionised local anaesthetic readily penetrates tissue membranes to site of action. The onset of action of solution B is slower. this is because the relationship between pKa(8.1) and pH(3.3-5.5) of the solution results in a greater proportion of ionised local anaesthetic molecules compared with solution A. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is true about Calcium?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Only 1% of total body Calcium is found in the plasma
Explanation:Only 1 percent of the calcium in the human body is found in the plasma where it performs the most critical functions.
Out of this 1 percent, approximately 15% is complexed calcium bound to organic and inorganic anions, 40% is bound to albumin, and the remaining 45% circulates as free ionized calcium.
The Chvostek sign is a clinical finding associated with hypocalcaemia, or low levels of calcium in the blood. This clinical sign refers to a twitch of the facial muscles that occurs when gently tapping an individual’s cheek, in front of the ear.
Prolonged QT interval are associated with hypocalcaemia as reported in multiple studies.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
A 56-year-old man, presents to his general practitioner with a lump in his groin area. He is diagnosed with an indirect inguinal hernia and is scheduled for a laparoscopic inguinal hernia repair. During the repair, the surgeon sees several structures surrounding the inguinal canal.
Name the structure that forms the anterior borders of the inguinal canal.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aponeurosis of external oblique
Explanation:The inguinal canal is the pathway leading from the wall of the abdomen to the external genitalia.
The borders of the inguinal canal are:
Anterior wall: formed by the aponeurosis of the external oblique, supported by the internal oblique muscle laterally.
Posterior wall: formed laterally by the transversalis fascia, and medially by the conjoint tendon
Roof: formed by the internal oblique and transversus abdominis muscles
Floor: formed by the inguinal ligament and supported medially by the lacunar ligament
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
Which of the following best describes why phenytoin's hepatic extraction ratio is low?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It has a clearance that is insensitive to changes in liver blood flow
Explanation:The following are the pharmacokinetic properties of drugs with a low hepatic extraction ratio:
Changes in liver blood flow have no effect on drug clearance.
When given orally, drug clearance is extremely sensitive to changes in protein binding, intrinsic metabolism, and excretion, and there is no first-pass metabolism.Warfarin and phenytoin are two drugs with low hepatic extraction ratios.
The following are the pharmacokinetic properties of drugs with a high hepatic extraction ratio:
When taken orally, undergo extensive first-pass metabolism; drug clearance is dependent on liver blood flow, and drug clearance is less sensitive to changes in protein binding and intrinsic metabolism.
Morphine, lidocaine, propranolol, and etomidate are examples of drugs with high hepatic extraction ratios.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements is not true regarding Adrenaline?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Exerts its effect by decreasing intracellular calcium
Explanation:Noradrenaline also called norepinephrine belongs to the catecholamine family that functions in the brain and body as both a hormone and neurotransmitter.
They have sympathomimetic effects acting via adrenoceptors (?1, ?2,?1, ?2, ?3) or dopamine receptors (D1, D2).
May cause reflex bradycardia, reduce cardiac output and increase myocardial oxygen consumption
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
The Control of Substances Hazardous to Health (COSHH) regulations recommend air supply rates to specific environments. Which of the following statements is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Preparation rooms receive a volume of 0.1 m3 of air per second
Explanation:Control of Substances Hazardous to Health (COSHH) was established by government under the Health and Safety at Work act in 1989. Their employers work on identification and management of those substances that are dangerous to health. The implications for anaesthetists include gas scavenging, equipment contamination and environmental safety. Adequate ventilation is required in areas where anaesthetic gases are present. The minimum air supply that is legally required in each specific area is: Operating theatres: 0.65 m3/second. Anaesthetic rooms: 0.15 m3/s. Preparation rooms: 0.1 m3/s. Recovery rooms need 15 air changes per hour
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
A 26-year-old male was diagnosed with hypovolaemic shock following a road traffic accident. On clinical examination:
Heart rate: 125 beats/min
Blood pressure: 120/105 mmHg.
On physical examination, his abdomen was found to be tense and tender. Which of the following receptors is responsible for the compensation of blood loss?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alpha 1 adrenergic
Explanation:Alpha 1 adrenergic receptor stimulation results in vasoconstriction of peripheral arteries mainly of those of skin, gut and kidney arterioles. This would cause and increase in total peripheral resistance and mean arterial pressure and as a result the perfusion of vital organs i.e. brain, heart and lungs are maintained.
Muscarinic M2 receptor also known as cholinergic receptor are located in heart, where they act to slow the heart rate down to normal sinus rhythm after negative stimulatory actions of parasympathetic nervous system. They also reduce contractile forces of the atrial cardiac muscle, and reduce conduction velocity of AV node. This could worsen the compensation.
Stimulation of beta 2 adrenergic receptor result in dilation of smooth muscle as in bronchodilation.
Beta 3 adrenergic receptors are present on cell surface f both white and brown adipocytes and are responsible for lipolysis, thermogenesis, and relaxation of intestinal smooth muscle.
Alpha 2 adrenergic receptor stimulation results in inhibition of the release of noradrenaline in a form of negative feedback.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
A 74-year-old with a VVI pacemaker is undergoing a hip replacement.
Which of the following is most likely to predispose him to an electrical hazard?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Use of cutting unipolar diathermy
Explanation:A single chamber pacemaker was implanted in the patient. In VVI mode, a pacemaker paces and senses the ventricle while being inhibited by a perceived ventricular event. The most likely electrical hazard from diathermy is electromagnetic interference (EMI).
EMI has the potential to cause the following: Inhibition of pacing
Asynchronous pacing
Reset to backup mode
Myocardial burns, and
Trigger VF.Diathermy entails the implementation of high-frequency electrical currents to produce heat and either make incisions or induce coagulation. Monopolar cautery involves disposable cautery pencils and electrosurgical diathermy units. In typical monopolar cautery, an electrical plate is placed on the patient’s skin and acts as an electrode, while the current passes between the instrument and the plate. Monopolar diathermy can therefore interfere with implanted metal devices and pacemaker function.
Bipolar diathermy, where the current passes between the forceps tips and not through the patient and is less likely to generate EMI.
Whilst the presence of a CVP line may in theory predispose the patient to microshock, the use of prerequisite CF electrical equipment makes this very unlikely. The presence of a CVP line and pacemaker does not therefore unduly increase the risk of an electrical hazard.
Isolating transformers are used to protect secondary circuits and individuals from electrical shocks. There is no step-up or step-down voltage (i.e. there is a ratio of 1 to 1 between the primary and secondary windings).
A ground (or earth) wire is normally connected to the metal case of an operating table to protect patients from accidental electrocution. In the event that a fault allows a live wire to make contact with the metal table (broken cable, loose connection etc.) it becomes live. The earth will provide an immediate path for current to safely flow through and so the table remains safe to touch. Being a low resistance path, the earth lets a large current flow through it when the fault occurs ensuring that the fuse or RCD will quickly blow. Without an operating table earth, the patient is not at more risk of an electrical hazard because of the pacemaker.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
A study of 1500 participants is designed to determine the normal range for a number of parameters in a certain population.
Analysis has revealed that there is a strong positive correlation between height and forced expiratory volume (FEV1).
Which of the following statistical technique can be utilized to predict FEV1 at any given height in this cohort?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Linear regression
Explanation:A forest plot is a graphical representation that summarizes the findings of several research, such as a meta-analysis of a series of randomized controlled trials.
The Kaplan-Meier estimate shows survival over time, for example, plotting the number of patients still alive seven years after chemotherapy for lung cancer.
Fisher’s exact test similarly uses contingency tables to assess statistical significance, however, it is typically used when sample sizes are small.
Chi-square test assesses whether an association exists between two categorical variables using the observed and expected frequencies. For instance, is social class (I-V) related to body mass index (BMI) category? Using the observed and anticipated frequencies, the Chi-square test determines whether a connection exists between two categorical variables. For example, is socio-economic status related to BMI category?
Linear regression is a technique which attempts to model the relationship between two variables by fitting a linear equation to observed data. Linear regression uses correlation between two continuous variables. As correlation only indicates the strength of an association only, it cannot be used to forecast the change in one variable when a second variable is altered.
This equation takes the form y = mx + c, where ‘y’ is the dependent variable, ‘x’ is the independent variable, ‘m’ is the slope of the line and ‘c’ is the intercept. In this example, for a range of heights, it would be possible to map a line of best fit to a scatter plot and thus predict the forced expiratory volume (FEV1) for an individual.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
0
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Mins)