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Question 1
Incorrect
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Which of the following statement is true regarding hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction (HPV)?
Your Answer: Is increased by volatile anaesthetic agents
Correct Answer: 20 parts per million (ppm) of nitric oxide will reduce hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction
Explanation:Hypoxic Pulmonary vasoconstriction (HPV) reflects the constriction of small pulmonary arteries in response to hypoxic alveoli (.i.e.; PO2 below 80-100mmHg or 11-13kPa).
These blood vessels become independent of the nerve stimulus, when blood with a high PO2 flows through the lung which contains a low alveolar PO2.
Thus a low PO2 within the alveoli has been shown to impact on hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction (HPV) more than a low PO2 within the blood.
HPV results in the blood flow being directed away from poorly ventilated areas of the lung and helps to reduce the ventilation/perfusion mismatch (not increase).
In animals, volatile anaesthetic agents can diminish HPV, while in adults, the evidence proves less persuading, in spite of the fact that it certainly doesn’t strengthen the effects.
HPV response will be suppressed by 20 parts per million (ppm) of nitric oxide.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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An intravenous infusion is started with a 500 mL bag of 0.18 percent N. saline and 4% dextrose.
Which of the following best describes its make-up?Your Answer: Osmolarity 284 mOsmol/L, sodium 30 mequivalents and glucose 40 g
Correct Answer: Osmolarity 284 mOsmol/L, sodium 15 mequivalents and glucose 20 g
Explanation:30 mmol Na+ and 30 mmol Cl- are found in 1 litre of 0.18 percent N. saline with 4% dextrose. Percent (percent) refers to the number of grammes of a compound per 100 mL, so a litre of 4 percent dextrose solution contains 40 grammes.
As a result, a 500 mL bag of 1/5th N. saline and 4% dextrose contains approximately 15 mequivalents of sodium and 20 g of glucose. It is hypotonic due to its osmolarity of 284.
Because of the risk of hyponatraemia, it is no longer considered the crystalloid of choice for fluid maintenance in children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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The passage of glucose into the brain is facilitated by which transport method?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Facilitated diffusion
Explanation:Glucose transport is a highly regulated process accomplished mostly by facilitated diffusion using carrier proteins to cross cell membranes.
There are many transporters, but the most important are known as glucose transporters (GLUTs).
Stresses in various form of acute and chronic forms affect the activity of glucose transporters.
They are responsive to many types of metabolic stress, including hypoxia, injury, hypoglycaemia, numerous metabolic inhibitors, stress hormones, and other influences such as growth factors.Numerous signalling pathways appear to be involved in transporter regulation.
New evidence suggests that stresses regulating GLUTs are not only acute biological stresses. In addition, chronic low-grade inflammation, and their associated chronic diseases also lead to altered glucose transport. These include obesity, type 2 diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and the growth and spread of many tumours that are affected by altered glucose transporters. Some of these glucose transport effects are compensatory, while others are pathogenic.
Ultimately, deliberate manipulation of GLUTs could be used as treatment for some of these chronic diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Which statement is true when describing carbonic anhydrase?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Isoenzyme IV is found in the brush border of the proximal convoluted tubule
Explanation:Carbonic anhydrase is an enzyme which contains zinc and can be found in:
1. Erythrocytes
2. Pulmonary endothelium
3. The intestine
4. Pancreas
5. Cardiac muscle and skeletal muscle.To date, there have been seven isoenzymes identified. Of note, isoenzyme IV is found in the brush border of the proximal convoluted tubule and isoenzyme II is found within the luminal cells.
Acetazolamides a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor and is used as prophylaxis against mountain sickness and in glaucoma management.
Spironolactone is a potassium diuretic and is an aldosterone antagonist.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 45-year old gentleman is in the operating room to have a knee arthroscopy under general anaesthesia.
Induction is done using fentanyl 1mcg/kg and propofol 2mg/kg. A supraglottic airway is inserted and the mixture used to maintain anaesthesia is and air oxygen mixture and 2.5% sevoflurane. Using a Bain circuit, the patient breathes spontaneously and the fresh gas flow is 9L/min. Over the next 30 minutes, the end-tidal CO2 increase from 4.5kPa to 8.4kPa, and the baseline reading on the capnograph is 0kPa.
The most appropriate action that should follow is:Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Observe the patient for further change
Explanation:Such a high rise of end-tidal CO2 (EtCO2) in a patient who is spontaneously breathing is often encountered.
Close observation should occur for further rises in EtCO2 and other signs of malignant hyperthermia. If this were to rise even more, it might be wise to ensure that ventilatory support is available.
A lot would depend on whether surgery was almost completed. At this stage of anaesthesia, it would be inappropriate to administer opioid antagonists or respiratory stimulants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Which of the following is true in the Kreb's cycle?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alpha-ketoglutarate is a five carbon molecule
Explanation:Krebs’ cycle (tricarboxylic acid cycle or citric acid cycle) is a sequence of reactions to release stored energy through oxidation of acetyl coenzyme A (acetyl-CoA). Some of the products are carbon dioxide and hydrogen atoms.
The sequence of reactions, known collectively as oxidative phosphorylation, only occurs in the mitochondria (not cytoplasm).
The Krebs cycle can only take place when oxygen is present, though it does not require oxygen directly, because it relies on the by-products from the electron transport chain, which requires oxygen. It is therefore considered an aerobic process. It is the common pathway for the oxidation of carbohydrate, fat and some amino acids, required for the formation of adenosine triphosphate (ATP).
Pyruvate enters the mitochondria and is converted into acetyl-CoA. Acetyl-CoA is then condensed with oxaloacetate, to form citrate which is a six carbon molecule. Citrate is subsequently converted into isocitrate, alpha-ketoglutarate, succinyl-CoA, succinate, fumarate, malate and finally oxaloacetate.
The only five carbon molecule in the cycle is Alpha-ketoglutarate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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In which of the following situations will a regional fall in cerebral blood flow occur, suppose there is no changes in the mean arterial pressure (MAP)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hyperoxia
Explanation:The response of cerebral blood flow (CBF) to hyperoxia (PaO2 >15 kPa, 113 mmHg), the cerebral oxygen vasoreactivity is less well defined. A study originally described, using a nitrous oxide washout technique, a reduction in CBF of 13% and a moderate increase in cerebrovascular resistance in subjects inhaling 85-100% oxygen. Subsequent human studies, using a variety of differing methods, have also shown CBF reductions with hyperoxia, although the reported extent of this change is variable. Another study assessed how supra-atmospheric pressures influenced CBF, as estimated by changes in middle cerebral artery flow velocity (MCAFV) in healthy individuals. Atmospheric pressure alone had no effect on MCAFV if PaO2 was kept constant. Increases in PaO2 did lead to a significant reduction in MCAFV; however, there were no further reductions in MCAFV when oxygen was increased from 100% at 1 atmosphere of pressure to 100% oxygen at 2 atmospheres of pressure. This suggests that the ability of cerebral vasculature to constrict in response to increasing partial pressure of oxygen is limited.
Increases in arterial blood CO2 tension (PaCO2) elicit marked cerebral vasodilation.
CBF increases with general anaesthesia, ketamine anaesthesia, and hypoviscosity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A healthy 27-year old male who weighs 70kg has appendicitis. He is currently in the operating room and is being positioned to have a rapid sequence induction.
Prior to preoxygenation, the compartment likely to have the best oxygen reserve is:Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Red blood cells
Explanation:The following table shows the compartments and their relative oxygen reserve:
Compartment Factors Room air (mL) 100% O2 (mL)
Lung FAO2, FRC 630 2850
Plasma PaO2, DF, PV 7 45
Red blood cells Hb, TGV, SaO2 788 805
Myoglobin 200 200
Interstitial space 25 160Oxygen reserves in the body, with room air and after oxygenation.
FAO2-alveolar fraction of oxygen rises to 95% after administration of 100% oxygen (CO2 = 5%)
FRC- Functional residual capacity – (the most important store of oxygen in the body) – 2,500-3,000 mL in medium sized adults
PaO2-partial pressure of oxygen dissolved in arterial blood (80 mmHg breathing room air and 500 mmHg breathing 100% oxygen)
DF -dissolved form (0.3%)
PV-plasma volume (3L)
TG-total globular volume (5L)
Hb-haemoglobin concentration
SaO2-arterial oxygen concentration (98% breathing air and 100% when preoxygenated) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Of the following, which option best describes the muscle type that has the fastest twitch response to stimulation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Type IIb skeletal muscle
Explanation:Human skeletal muscle is composed of a heterogeneous collection of muscle fibre types which differ histologically, biochemically and physiologically.
It can be biochemically classified into 2 groups. This is based on muscle fibre myosin ATPase histochemistry. These are:
Type 1 (slow twitch): Muscle fibres depend upon aerobic glycolytic metabolism and aerobic oxidative metabolism. They are rich in mitochondria, have a good blood supply, rich in myoglobin and are resistant to fatigue.
Type II (fast twitch): Muscle fibres are sub-divided into:
Type IIa – relies on aerobic/oxidative metabolism
Type IIb – relies on anaerobic/glycolytic metabolism.Fast twitch muscle fibres produce short bursts of power but are more easily fatigued.
Cardiac and smooth muscle twitches are relatively slow compared with skeletal muscle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A patient on admission is given an infusion of 1000 mL of 10% glucose and 500 mL of 20% lipid over a 24 hour period.
Which of these best approximates to the energy input over this time period?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1300 kcal
Explanation:1% solution contains 1 g of substance per 100 mL.
A solution of 10% glucose is 10 g/100mL. Therefore 1000 mL of this glucose solution will contain 100 g.
1 g of glucose yields about 4 kcal of energy. One litre of 10% glucose will therefore release approximately 4x100g = 400 kcal of energy.
A solution of 20% fat is 20 g/100mL. Therefore 1000 mL of this fat solution will have 200 g and 500 mL will contain 100 g.
1 g of fat yields approximately 9 kcal. 500 mL of 20% fat therefore has the potential to yield 900 kcal of energy.
The total energy input over this 24 hour period is approximately 400kcal + 900kcal = 1300 kcal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 25-year old lady is in the operating room and has had general anaesthesia for a knee arthroscopy.
Induction was done with fentanyl 1mcg/kg and propofol 2mg/kg. A supra-glottic airway was inserted and using and air oxygen mixture with 2.5% sevoflurane, her anaesthesia was maintained. The patient is allowed to spontaneously breathe using a Bain circuit, and the fresh gas flow is 9L/min. Over the next 30 minutes, the end-tidal Co2 rises from 4.5kPa to 8.4kPa, and the baseline reading on the capnograph is 0kPa.
The most appropriate initial action is which of the following?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypoventilation
Explanation:The commonest and most likely cause of a gradual rise in end-tidal CO2 (EtCO2) occurring during anaesthesia in a spontaneously breathing patient is hypoventilation. This occurs from the respiratory depressant effects of the opioid and sevoflurane.
Malignant hyperthermia should be sought if the EtCO2 shows further progressive rise.
Causes of rebreathing and a rise in the baseline of the capnograph can be caused by exhausted soda lime and inadequate fresh gas flow into the Bain circuit.
A sudden rise in EtCO2 can be caused deflation of the tourniquet.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Regarding the plateau phase of the cardiac potential, which electrolyte is the main determinant?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ca2+
Explanation:The cardiac action potential has several phases which have different mechanisms of action as seen below:
Phase 0: Rapid depolarisation – caused by a rapid sodium influx.
These channels automatically deactivate after a few msPhase 1: caused by early repolarisation and an efflux of potassium.
Phase 2: Plateau – caused by a slow influx of calcium.
Phase 3 – Final repolarisation – caused by an efflux of potassium.
Phase 4 – Restoration of ionic concentrations – The resting potential is restored by Na+/K+ATPase.
There is slow entry of Na+into the cell which decreases the potential difference until the threshold potential is reached. This then triggers a new action potentialOf note, cardiac muscle remains contracted 10-15 times longer than skeletal muscle.
Different sites have different conduction velocities:
1. Atrial conduction – Spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibres at 1 m/sec2. AV node conduction – 0.05 m/sec
3. Ventricular conduction – Purkinje fibres are of large diameter and achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec, the fastest conduction in the heart. This allows a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A global cerebral blood flow (CBF) of 35 ml/100 g/min (Normal CBF = 54 ml/100 g/min) can lead to which of the following?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Poor prognostic EEG
Explanation:CBF is defined as the blood volume that flows per unit mass per unit time in brain tissue and is typically expressed in units of ml blood/100 g tissue/minute. The normal average CBF in adults human is about 50 ml/100 g/min, with lower values in the white matter (,20 ml/100 g/min) and greater values in the gray matter (,80 ml/100 g/min).
Low CBF levels between 30-40 ml/100 g/min may begin to show poor prognostic EEG. EEG findings consistently associated with a poor outcome are isoelectric EEG, low voltage EEG, and burst suppression (specifically burst suppression with identical bursts), as well as the absence of EEG reactivity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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The single most important prerequisite for accuracy in measuring basal metabolic rate (BMR) using indirect calorimetry is performing the test:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: In a neutral thermal environment
Explanation:The basal metabolic rate (BMR) is the amount of energy required to maintain basic bodily functions in the resting state. The unit is Watt (Joule/second) or calories per unit time.
Indirect calorimetry measures O2 consumption and CO2 production where gases are collected in a canopy which is the gold standard, Douglas bag, face-mask dilution technique or interfaced with a ventilator.
The BMR can be calculated using the Weir formula:
Metabolic rate (kcal per day) = 1.44 (3.94 VO2 + 1.11 VCO2)
The BMR should be measured while lying down and at rest with the following conditions met:
It should follow a 12 -hour fast
No stimulants ingested within a 12-hour period
It should be done in a neutral thermal environment (between 20°C-25°C) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Which of the following would most likely explain a failed post-operative analgesia via local anaesthesia of a neck abscess?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: pKA
Explanation:For the local anaesthetic base to be stable in solution, it is formulated as a hydrochloride salt. As such, the molecules exist in a quaternary, water-soluble state at the time of injection. However, this form will not penetrate the neuron. The time for onset of local anaesthesia is therefore predicated on the proportion of molecules that convert to the tertiary, lipid-soluble structure when exposed to physiologic pH (7.4).
The ionization constant (pKa) for the anaesthetic predicts the proportion of molecules that exists in each of these states. By definition, the pKa of a molecule represents the pH at which 50% of the molecules exist in the lipid-soluble tertiary form and 50% in the quaternary, water-soluble form. The pKa of all local anaesthetics is >7.4 (physiologic pH), and therefore a greater proportion the molecules exists in the quaternary, water-soluble form when injected into tissue having normal pH of 7.4.
Furthermore, the acidic environment associated with inflamed tissues favours the quaternary, water-soluble configuration even further. Presumably, this accounts for difficulty when attempting to anesthetize inflamed or infected tissues; fewer molecules exist as tertiary lipid-soluble forms that can penetrate nerves.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Cells use adenosine-5-triphosphate (ATP) as a coenzyme and is a source of energy.
Glucose metabolism produces the most ATP from which of the following biochemical processes?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Electron transport phosphorylation in the mitochondria
Explanation:Glycolysis occurs in the cytoplasm of the cell. It converts 1 glucose molecule (6-carbon) to pyruvate (two 3-carbon molecules) and produces 4 ATP molecules and 2NADH but uses 2 ATP in the process with an overall net energy production of 2 ATP.
Pyruvate is then oxidised to acetyl coenzyme A (generating 2 NADH per pyruvate molecule). This takes place in the mitochondria and then enters the Krebs cycle (citric acid cycle). It produces 2 ATP, 8 NADH and 2 FADH2 per glucose molecule.
Electron transport phosphorylation takes place in the mitochondria. The aim of this process is to break down NADH and FADH2 and also to pump H+ into the outer compartment of the mitochondria. It produces 32 ATP with an overall net production of 36ATP.
In anaerobic respiration which occurs in the cytoplasm, pyruvate is reduced to NAD producing 2 ATP.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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In an experimental study, a healthy subject was given one litre of 5% dextrose within a 15-minute period. Which of the following mechanisms is expected to affect the urine output?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inhibition of arginine vasopressin (AVP) secretion
Explanation:Changes in the osmolality of body fluids (changes as minor as 1% are sufficient) play the most important role in regulating AVP secretion. The receptors that monitor changes in osmolality of body fluids (termed osmoreceptors) are distinct from the cells that synthesize and secrete AVP, and are located in the organum vasculosum of the lamina terminalis (OVLT) of the hypothalamus. The osmoreceptors sense changes in body osmolality by either shrinking or swelling. When the effective osmolality of the plasma increases, the osmoreceptors send signals to the AVP synthesizing/secreting cells located in the supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei of the hypothalamus, and AVP synthesis and secretion are stimulated. Conversely, when the effective osmolality of the plasma is reduced, secretion is inhibited. Because AVP is rapidly degraded in the plasma, circulating levels can be reduced to zero within minutes after secretion is inhibited.
In this scenario, the osmolality of the plasma will decrease to an estimate of 2.5%, hence inhibition of AVP.
Stimulation of atrial stretch receptors is incorrect because the increase in plasma volume is still below the threshold for its activation.
Osmotic diuresis is incorrect because 5% dextrose is isotonic, hence osmotic diuresis is not probable.
Renin is inhibited when an excess of NaCl in the tubular fluid is sensed by the macula densa.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is true about fluid balance?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: After intravenous administration of crystalloids, the distribution of these fluids throughout the body depends on its osmotic activity
Explanation:When there is capillary leakage as seen in dependent oedema or ascites, oncotic pressure becomes a problem.
The intracellular sodium concentration is very sensitive to the extracellular sodium concentrations. When there is an imbalance, osmosis occurs resulting in shifts in water between the two compartments.
The microvascular endothelium relies upon osmosis and other processes as it is not freely permeable to water.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is true with regards to 2,3-diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Production is increased in heart failure
Explanation:During glycolysis, 2,3-diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG) is
created in erythrocytes by the Rapoport-Luebering shunt.The production of 2,3-DPG increases for several conditions
in the presence of decreased peripheral tissue O2 availability.
Some of these conditions include hypoxaemia, chronic lung
disease anaemia, and congestive heart failure. Thus,
2,3-DPG production is likely an important adaptive mechanism.High levels of 2,3-DPG cause a shift of the curve to the right.
Low levels of 2,3-DPG cause a shift of the curve to the left,
as seen in states such as septic shock and hypophosphatemia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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One of the non-pharmacologic management of COPD is smoking cessation. Given a case of a 60-year old patient with history of smoking for 30 years and a FEV1 of 70%, what would be the most probable five-year course of his FEV1 if he ceases to smoke?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The FEV1 will decrease at the same rate as a non-smoker
Explanation:For this patient, his forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) will decrease at the same rate as a non-smoker.
There is a notable, but slow, decline in FEV1 when an individual reaches the age of 26. An average reduction of 30 mls every year in non-smokers, while a more significant reduction of 50-70 mls is observed in approximately 20% of smokers.
Considering the age of the patient, individuals who begin smoking cessation by the age of 60 are far less likely to achieve normal FEV1 levels, even in the next five years. It is expected that their FEV1 will be approximately 14% less than their peers of the same age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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