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  • Question 1 - Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding an epidural set? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding an epidural set?

      Your Answer: The distal end of the catheter has an open rounded tip and two or more side ports

      Correct Answer: 19G Tuohy needles have 0.5 cm markings

      Explanation:

      A paediatric 19G Tuohy catheter is available that is 5cm in length and has 0.5cm markings

      18G Tuohy catheters are generally 9 to 10cm to hub

      Distal end of catheter is angled (15 to 30 degrees) and closed to avoid puncturing the dura

      Epidural mesh are usually 0.2 microns and are used to filter bacteria and viruses to ensure sterility of procedure

      Transparent catheters are 90cm long with diameters depending on gauge size. It has 1cm graduations from 5 to 20cm to ensure they have been inserted amply and removed completely. Distal end is smooth which can be open or closed (with lateral openings)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      16.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Health workers are at increased risks of anaesthetic exposure. Therefore, The Control of...

    Incorrect

    • Health workers are at increased risks of anaesthetic exposure. Therefore, The Control of Substances Hazardous to Health (COSHH) regulations require measures implemented to assess and control the risks related to this exposure.

      Among the following control measures, which one is most likely to limit potentially harmful exposure to anaesthetic agents within an operating theatre?

      Your Answer: Active scavenging systems

      Correct Answer: Total intravenous anaesthesia (TIVA)

      Explanation:

      Exposure to anaesthetic hazards is one among the occupational exposures in manipulating toxic agents or inhaling toxic gases during anaesthetic practices.

      Toxic gases mainly nitrous oxide, is one of the most gaseous anaesthetic agents that constitutes an important source of pollution. One of the safe and effective technics used in anaesthesia and reducing the amount of pollution is the Total Intravenous Anaesthesia (TIVA) which consists of using opioids in analgesia and propofol for the induction and the maintenance of anaesthesia. It refers to the administration intravenously of an anaesthetic, sedative, and/or tranquilizer. A less polluting but not the best way to get rid of the toxic aesthetic agents is the scavenger system that collects and expels the gas outside the medical environment. Yet, this technique still represents a hazard for the environment and still increase the risk of exposure for the health workers and clinical staff.

      Fume cupboards are also not recommended to use because of their high pollution potency, mainly of the air resulting in a great harm for medical workers.

      Supraglottic airways as well as the Air Changes per Hour technics could be harmful for both patients and health workers, increasing the risks of transmitted diseases, namely nosocomial infections.

      Therefore, the Total Intravenous Anaesthesia technique (TIVA) is most likely to be safe and recommended to use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      37
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A current flows through a simple electric circuit.

    Which of the following electrical component...

    Incorrect

    • A current flows through a simple electric circuit.

      Which of the following electrical component configurations has the greatest potential difference?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Two 5 ohm resistors in series with a passing current of 10 ampere

      Explanation:

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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  • Question 4 - A strain gauge operates on which of the following principles? ...

    Incorrect

    • A strain gauge operates on which of the following principles?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Varying resistance of a wire when stretched

      Explanation:

      The principle by which a strain gauge works is that when a wire is stretched, it becomes longer and thinner, and as a result, its resistance increases.

      A strain gauge, which is used in pressure transducers, acts as a resistor. When the pressure in a pressure transducer changes, the diaphragm moves, changing the tension in the resistance wire and thus changing the resistance.

      Changes in current flow through the resistor are amplified and displayed as a pressure change measure.

      A Wheatstone bridge, on the other hand, is frequently used to measure or monitor these changes in resistance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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  • Question 5 - For a rapid sequence induction of anaesthesia, you are pre-oxygenating a patient using...

    Incorrect

    • For a rapid sequence induction of anaesthesia, you are pre-oxygenating a patient using 100% oxygen and a fresh gas flow equal to the patient's minute ventilation.

      Which would be the most suitable choice of anaesthetic breathing system in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mapleson A system

      Explanation:

      The Mapleson A (Magill) and coaxial version of the Mapleson A system (Lack circuit) are more efficient for spontaneous breathing than any of the other Mapleson circuits. The fresh gas flow (FGF) required to prevent rebreathing is slightly greater than the alveolar minute ventilation (4-5 litres/minute). This is delivered to the patient through the outer coaxial tube and exhaust gases are moved to the scavenging system through the inner tube. In the Lack circuit, the expiratory valve is located close to the common gas outlet away from the patient end. This is the main advantage of the Lack circuit over the Mapleson A circuit.

      The Mapleson E circuit is a modification of the Ayres T piece and the FGF required to prevent rebreathing is 1.5-2 times the patient’s minute volume.

      The Bain circuit is the coaxial version of the Mapleson D circuit.

      The FGF for spontaneous respiration to avoid rebreathing is 160-200 ml/kg/minute.

      The FGF for controlled ventilation to avoid rebreathing is 70-100 ml/kg/min.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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  • Question 6 - Which medical gas cylinders have the correct colour codes? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which medical gas cylinders have the correct colour codes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oxygen cylinders have a black body with white shoulders

      Explanation:

      The following are the colour codes for medical gas cylinders:

      Oxygen cylinder has a dark body with white shoulders.

      Nitrous oxide is French blue. Air encompasses a grey body with dark and white quarters on the shoulders.

      Entonox contains a French blue body with white and blue quarters on the shoulders.

      Carbon dioxide barrels are grey in colour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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  • Question 7 - When the volume of gas is measured, its value should be supported by...

    Incorrect

    • When the volume of gas is measured, its value should be supported by a suitable abbreviation. From the following options, what does the STPD stand for?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Standard Temperature and Pressure, Dry

      Explanation:

      Gas is composed of large numbers of molecules moving in random directions, separated by distances. They undergo perfectly elastic collisions with each other and the walls of a container and transfer kinetic energy in form of heat. These assumptions bring the characteristics of gases within the range and reasonable approximation to a real gas, particularly how any change in temperature and pressure affect the behaviour of gas. According to different theories and laws proposed, mathematical equations are derived to calculate the volume of gas, also different abbreviations are being used according to given conditions. The abbreviations used are ATP, BTPS, and STPD.
      ATP stands for ambient temperature and barometric pressure, it is used to describe the conditions under which volume of gas is measured.
      BTPS stands for body temperature and pressure saturated with water vapor. These are conditions under which volume of gas exist and all results of lung volume determination should be quoted at BTPS.
      STPD stands for standard temperature and pressure, dry (0C and 760 mm Hg). These are the conditions that are used to describe quantities of individual gases exchanged in the lungs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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  • Question 8 - Regarding the carbon dioxide monitoring, which of the following statements is correct? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the carbon dioxide monitoring, which of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carbon dioxide absorbs infrared radiation at 4.28 µm

      Explanation:

      Carbon dioxide (CO2), is a carbonic gas made up of two dissimilar atoms, namely one carbon atom and two oxygen atoms. Capnography is a technique used to measure carbon dioxide during a respiratory cycle, and it consists in calculating the concentration of the partial pressure of CO2, through the absorption of the infrared light, namely that CO2 absorbs infrared radiation at a wavelength of 4.28 µm.

      End-tidal CO2 (ETCO2), referring to the level of the carbon dioxide released at the end of an exhaled breath, is required to be continuously monitored, especially in ventilated patients, as it is a sensitive and a non invasive technique that provides immediate information about ventilation, circulation, and metabolism functions. ETCO2 is normally lower than the arterial partial pressure and varies between 0.6 and 0.7 kPa.

      There are two methods used to measure carbon dioxide. The sidestream capnometer method samples gases at a set flow rate (150-200 mL/min) from a sampling area through small diameter tubing, and the mainstream analyser method that uses a direct measurement of the patient exhaled CO2 by a relatively large and heavy sensors. Sidestram method allows the analysis of multiple gases and anaesthetic vapours comparing to the mainstream method that does not allow the measurement of other gases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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  • Question 9 - Regarding anaesthetic breathing circuits, which one would be the best for spontaneous breathing?...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding anaesthetic breathing circuits, which one would be the best for spontaneous breathing?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lack circuit

      Explanation:

      Among the breathing circuits, the Lack circuit is the most efficient for spontaneous breathing.

      An outer coaxial tube is present to deliver fresh air; exhaust air is routed to an inner tube, which is then delivered to a scavenging system. An expiratory valve is seen at the patient end, which is an advantage over other circuits. Moreover, the Lack circuit prevents rebreathing slightly greater than the alveolar minute ventilation at 4-5 litres per minute.

      The Bain circuit prevents rebreathing at 160-200ml/kg per minute, and is a co-axial version of the Mapleson D circuit.

      The Mapleson E circuit prevent rebreathing at a fresh gas flow (FGF) of approximately twice the patient’s normal minute volume. A modification of this, the Mapleson F, has a reservoir bag at the opposite end for the FGF. This circuit is appropriate for paediatric patients with a body weight less than 20 kg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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  • Question 10 - A 53-year old female with a diagnosis of anaplastic thyroid carcinoma is admitted...

    Incorrect

    • A 53-year old female with a diagnosis of anaplastic thyroid carcinoma is admitted in the surgery department for an elective total thyroidectomy with radical neck dissection. The operation is expected to last for 10 hours.

      Which of the following is the most suitable humidifier to use in an anaesthetic circuit for this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Heat and moisture exchanger (HME)

      Explanation:

      Adequate humidification is vital to maintain homeostasis of the airway. Heat and moisture exchangers conserve some of the exhaled water, heat and return them to inspired gases. Many heat and moisture exchangers also perform bacterial/viral filtration and prevent inhalation of small particles. Heat and moisture exchangers are also called condenser humidifier, artificial nose, etc. Most of them are disposable devices with exchanging medium enclosed in a plastic housing. For adult and paediatric age group different dead space types are available. Heat and moisture exchangers are helpful during anaesthesia and ventilatory breathing system. To reduce the damage of the upper respiratory tract through cooling and dehydration inspiratory air can be heated and humidified, thus preventing the serious complications. Moreover, they are the most appropriate humidification devices used for routine anaesthesia.

      Gases can be bubbled through water to increase humidity. Passing gas through water at room temperature causes the gas to cool due to latent heat of vaporisation. The water bath can be heated. This improves the efficiency of the device and also reduces the incidence of bacterial colonisation.

      Nebulisers use a venturi system which employs the Bernoulli effect. A gas at high flow passes through a constriction causing the gas to accelerate, reducing its potential energy allowing other gases or liquids to be entrained. This can include medications or in the case of humidification, water vapour. The size of the water droplet produced by nebulisation determines where in the airway it is deposited. Standard nebulisers produced droplets of 4 microns in diameter and these are deposited in the upper airway and trachea. Efficacy can be improved by passing the droplets over an anvil which further reduces particle size. The most efficient form of nebuliser is the ultrasonic nebuliser. Here a transducer immersed in water and vibrated at a frequency of 3MHz produces1-2micron droplets. These particles easily reach the bronchioles and provide excellent humidification.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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  • Question 11 - Bioelectric potentials that have been measured have an optimum bandwidth and typical frequency.

    For...

    Incorrect

    • Bioelectric potentials that have been measured have an optimum bandwidth and typical frequency.

      For a standard 12-lead ECG, which of the following bandwidth and voltage combinations is the best?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bandwidth 0.05-150 Hz, voltage 100-4000 microvolts

      Explanation:

      The potential difference (amplitude) and bandwidth frequencies of bioelectric signals are typical.

      These are the following:

      ECG: A bandwidth of 0.5-50 Hz is usually sufficient in monitoring mode, but a typical diagnostic bandwidth is 0.05-150 Hz (up to 200 Hz) with a typical voltage range of 0.1-4 millivolts (100-4000 microvolts).
      EEG has a frequency range of 0.5-100 Hz and a voltage range of 0.5-100 microvolts.
      EMG has a frequency range of 0.5 to 350 Hz and a voltage range of 0.5 to 30 millivolts.

      Prior to display, these small signals will need to be amplified and processed further.

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      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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  • Question 12 - Regarding the emergency oxygen flush, which is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the emergency oxygen flush, which is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: May lead to awareness if used inappropriately

      Explanation:

      When the emergency oxygen flush is pressed, 100% oxygen is supplied from the common gas outlet. This gas bypasses BOTH flowmeters and vaporisers. The flow of oxygen is usually 45 l/min at a PRESSURE OF 400 kPa.

      There is an increased risk of pulmonary barotrauma when the emergency flush is pressed, especially when anaesthetising paediatric patients.

      The inappropriate use of the flush causes dilution of anaesthetic gases and this increases the possibility of anaesthetic awareness .

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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  • Question 13 - International colour coding is used on medical gas cylinders. Other characteristics also play...

    Incorrect

    • International colour coding is used on medical gas cylinders. Other characteristics also play a role in determining the gas's identity within a cylinder.

      Which of the following options best describes a cylinder containing analgesics for obstetrics?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Blue body, blue/white shoulder, full cylinder; 13700 KPa, gas mixture, requires a dual stage pressure regulator

      Explanation:

      The body of the Entonox cylinder is usually blue (occasionally white), with blue and white shoulders. Entonox contains a 50:50 mixture of oxygen and nitrous oxide, with a full cylinder pressure of 13700 KPa (137 bar). The cylinder is equipped with a two-stage pressure regulator for safe operation.

      The cylinder body and shoulder of nitrous oxide are (French) blue.

      In today’s anaesthetic workstations, carbon dioxide cylinders are no longer used.

      The body of an oxygen cylinder is black, with a white shoulder.

      The white Heliox (21 percent oxygen and 79 percent helium) cylinder has a brown and white shoulder. The administration of this gas mixture, which is less dense than air, is used to reduce turbulence (stridor) of inspiratory flow in patients with upper airway obstruction.

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      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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  • Question 14 - Regarding laminar gas flow, which of the following options has the most influence...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding laminar gas flow, which of the following options has the most influence on laminar flow?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diameter of tube

      Explanation:

      Laminar flow can be defined as the motion of a fluid where every particle in the fluid follows the same path of its previous particles. The following are properties of laminar flow of gas or fluids:

      1. Smooth unobstructed flow of gas through a tube of relatively uniform diameter
      2. Few directional changes
      3. Slow, steady flow through straight smooth, rigid, large calibre, cylindrical tube
      4. Outer layer flow slower than the centre due to friction, results in discrete cylindrical layers, or streamlines
      5. Double flow by doubling pressure as long as the flow pattern remains laminar

      Poiseuille’s Law relates the factors that determine laminar flow. It indicates the degree of resistance to fluid flow through a tube. The resistance to fluid flow through a tube is directly related to the length, flow and viscosity; and inversely related to the radius of the tube to the fourth power. This means that, when the radius is doubled, there is increase in flow by a factor of 16.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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  • Question 15 - Prior to rapid sequence induction of anaesthesia, a man with a BMI of...

    Incorrect

    • Prior to rapid sequence induction of anaesthesia, a man with a BMI of 35 is pre-oxygenated.

      Which method of pre-oxygenation with a tight-fitting face mask is the most effective?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oxygen 6 litres per minute via a Mapleson A breathing system, with patient sitting up at 30 degrees breathing four vital capacity breaths

      Explanation:

      This patient is morbidly obese and has a high risk of developing hypoxia. This will be exacerbated by the patient’s supine position, as a result of:

      Functional residual capacity has been reduced (FRC)
      Increased closing capacity (CC)
      Reduced tidal volume due to increased airway resistance, decreased thoracic cage compliance, and decreased respiratory muscle strength and endurance
      Following induction of general anaesthesia, there is a tendency for atelectasis and increased O2 consumption due to the increased workload of respiratory muscles and the overall increase in metabolism.

      Pre-oxygenation with 100 percent oxygen via a tight-fitting mask can be done using either tidal volume breaths for three to five minutes or four vital capacity breaths in normal circumstances. In the head-up position, this patient is much more likely to be adequately pre-oxygenated, maximising the FRC and minimising the CC. In spontaneously breathing patients, the Mapleson A and circle systems are both effective, but the Mapleson D requires 160-200 ml/kg/minute to prevent rebreathing.

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      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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  • Question 16 - Dinamap is an automated blood pressure monitoring device. Which of these statements best...

    Incorrect

    • Dinamap is an automated blood pressure monitoring device. Which of these statements best fit its properties?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The cuff should be positioned at the same level as the heart

      Explanation:

      Dinamap continuously measures the systolic, diastolic and mean arterial pressure along with pulse rate, thereby providing a continuous monitoring of the blood pressure using the osscillitonometric principle of measurement.

      The device loses accuracy towards the extremes of BP and is more accurate with systolic compared with diastolic pressure. In arrhythmias such as AF, the devices are also inaccurate due to the major fluctuations associated with the individual pulse pressure variations.

      The manual BP device is still the gold standard for BP measurement and monitoring.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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  • Question 17 - Regarding a paramagnetic oxygen analyser, the following statements are TRUE: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding a paramagnetic oxygen analyser, the following statements are TRUE:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Utilises null deflection

      Explanation:

      The electrons in the outer shell of an oxygen molecule are unpaired, thus it has paramagnetic properties and is attracted into a magnetic field.

      It utilizes null deflection -True
      Null deflection is a crucial principle in paramagnetic analysers (reflected beam of light on two photocells) which gives very accurate results (typically 0.1%).

      It can be used to measure the concentration of diamagnetic gases – False
      Since most other gases are weakly diamagnetic they are repelled by a magnetic field (nitric oxide is also paramagnetic).

      Can measure gases dissolved in the blood – False
      For accurate analysis the sample gas must be dried before passing into the analysis cell, for example, by passage through silica gel. Therefore, they are unsuitable to measure gases dissolved in blood.

      Does not require calibration – False
      As with most measurement instruments paramagnetic analysers must be calibrated before use.

      E) The readings are unaffected by water vapour – False
      Water vapour affects the readings hence for accurate analysis the sample gas must be dried before passing into the analysis cell, for example, by passage through silica gel. That is why they are unsuitable to measure dissolved blood gases.

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      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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  • Question 18 - Regarding tracheal tubes, which of the following statements are true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding tracheal tubes, which of the following statements are true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Uncuffed RAE tubes have two Murphy eyes

      Explanation:

      Tracheal tubes are made of either disposable plastic or reusable red rubber.

      The tube size refers to the internal diameter (ID) in mm which is marked on the outside of the tube (some manufacturers mark the external diameter on the outside).

      Plastic tubes have a radiopaque line spanning the entire length of the tube, which allows their position to be identified on x-rays. The bevel located at the end of the tube is left-facing and oval in shape, which improves the view of the vocal cords during intubation.

      Oxford tubes are L-shaped and have a bevel that faces posteriorly. They have thick walls that increase the external diameter, making for a wider internal diameter.

      RAE (Ring, Adair, and Elwyn) tubes are preformed and can either be north or south facing and cuffed or uncuffed. The cuffed RAE tubes have one Murphy eye, whereas the uncuffed has two Murphy eyes. Uncuffed tubes are primarily used in paediatric anaesthesia and the two Murphy eyes ensure adequate ventilation- should the tube be too long.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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  • Question 19 - Which statement is correct about the Mapleson anaesthetic breathing circuits? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement is correct about the Mapleson anaesthetic breathing circuits?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mapleson A is most efficient for spontaneous ventilation

      Explanation:

      Mapleson breathing system (or circuit) analysed five different arrangements of components of the breathing system:
      Mapleson A – It is the most efficient for spontaneous respiration. The flow of fresh gas required is 70-85 ml/kg/min, i.e., approximately 5-6 lit./min fresh gas flow for an average adult.
      Mapleson B and C – inefficient for both SV and PPV; requires gas flow of two to three times minute volume (100 ml/kg/min). Not commonly used but category C may be used for emergency resuscitation.
      Mapleson D – efficient for PPV at gas flow equivalent to patient’s minute volume; the Bain’s circuit is a coaxial version of the Mapleson D
      Mapleson E and F – for paediatric use; requires gas flow at two to three times the patient’s minute volume. The Mapleson F consists of an open-ended reservoir bag (Jackson-Rees modification).

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      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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  • Question 20 - From the following statements, which is true of humidification? ...

    Incorrect

    • From the following statements, which is true of humidification?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ultrasonic humidifier can achieve greater than 100% relative humidity

      Explanation:

      Increasing temperature increases the amount of water vapour contained in air; for example, at 20°C, air contains about 17 g/m3, and at 37°C, air contains about 44 g/m3. The wet and dry bulb hygrometer, like the hair hygrometer, measures relative humidity.

      Under normal operating conditions, Heat and moisture exchangers (HMEs) allows relative humidity of up to 70% to be achieved. Mucus can impair their performance, and they should not be used for longer than 24 hours.

      Hot water bath humidifiers might cause scalding, condensed water in the tubing can interfere with gas flow, and there is a danger of infection.

      The ultrasonic humidifier operates at roughly 2 MHz and may attain relative humidity levels much above 100%.

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      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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  • Question 21 - Which of the following is true regarding a laryngoscope? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true regarding a laryngoscope?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The Wisconsin and Seward are examples of straight blade laryngoscopes

      Explanation:

      Direct laryngoscopy are performed using laryngoscopes and they can be classed according to the shape of the blade as curved or straight.

      Miller, Soper, Wisconsin and Seward are examples of straight blade laryngoscopes. Straight blades are commonly used for intubating neonates and infants but can be used in adults too.

      The tip of the miller blade is advanced over the epiglottis to the tracheal entrance then lifted in order to view the vocal cords.

      The RIGHT-SIDED Macintosh blade is used in adults while the left-sided blade may be used in conditions that make intubation with standard blade difficult e.g. facial deformities.

      The McCoy laryngoscope is based on the STANDARD MACINTOSH blade not Robertshaw’s. It has a lever operated hinged tip, which improves the view during laryngoscopy.

      Polio blade is mounted at an angle of 120-135 degrees to the handle. Originally designed for use during the polio epidemic ​in intubation patients within iron lung ventilators, it is now useful in patients with conditions like breast hypertrophy, barrel chest, and restricted neck mobility.

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  • Question 22 - Regarding the Manley MP3 ventilator, which statement is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the Manley MP3 ventilator, which statement is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Is a minute volume divider

      Explanation:

      It’s a minute volume divider – True
      The Manley MP3 ventilator is classed as a minute volume divider. The entire fresh gas flow or minute volume is delivered to the patient, having been divided into readily set tidal volumes.

      Can efficiently ventilate patients with poor pulmonary compliance – False
      Ventilating patients with poor pulmonary compliance is not easily achieved, which makes it an unsuitable ventilator for a modern ICU.

      Can generate tidal volume up to 1500ml – False
      It can generate tidal volumes up to 1000 ml (not 1500 ml), and the inflation pressure can be adjusted by sliding a weight along a rail.

      Functions like a Mapleson A system during spontaneous ventilation – False
      The ventilator functions like a Mapleson D breathing system (not Mapleson A) during spontaneous ventilation.

      Has three sets of bellows – False
      The fresh gas flow drives the ventilator which allows rapid detection of gas supply failure. It has two sets of bellows (not three) and three unidirectional valves.

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      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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  • Question 23 - Among the following, which statement is true regarding electrical safety in an operation...

    Incorrect

    • Among the following, which statement is true regarding electrical safety in an operation theatre?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The higher the frequency of the current the less risk to the patient

      Explanation:

      The operating theatre is an unusual place with several applications of electrical equipment to the human body. This can lead to potential dangers associated with it that need to be prevented. Electrical safety in the operation theatre is the understanding of how these potential dangers can occur and how they can be prevented.

      Electricity can cause morbidity or mortality by one of the following ways:
      (i) electrocution
      (ii) burns
      (iii) ignition of a flammable material, causing a fire or explosion.

      Electrocution is dependant on factors like duration of contact with electric current, the current pathway and the frequency and size of current.

      Option A: The higher the frequency, the less effects of electrocution on the body.

      Option B & D: Equipment can be classified in classes and types.
      The class designation describes the method used for protection against electrocution. Class I is basic protection, class II is double insulation and class III is safety extra low voltage.
      The type designation describes the degree of protection based on the maximum permissible leakage currents under normal and fault conditions.
      Type B:
      can be class I, II or III but the maximum leakage current must not exceed 100 µA. It is therefore not suitable for direct connection to the heart.
      Type BF
      Similar to type B, but uses an isolated (or floating) circuit.
      Type CF
      Only type CF protect against microshock as they allow leakage currents of 0.05 mA per electrode for class I and 0.01 mA for class II. Microshock is a small leakage current that can cause harm because of direct connection to the heart via transvenous lines or wires, bypassing the impedance of the skin, leading to ventricular fibrillation. Microshock current of 100 ?A is sufficient to cause VF.

      Option C: A 75mA electrocution can cause ventricular fibrillation. Use the following as a general guide to understand the effect of current size on the body.
      1 mA – tingling pain
      5 mA – pain
      15 mA – tonic muscular contraction
      50 mA – respiratory muscle paralysis
      75 mA – ventricular fibrillation.

      Option E: Wet skin reduces the resistance to current flow and therefore increases the effects of electrocution.

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      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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  • Question 24 - What feature is found in the flowmeters of modern anaesthetic machines ? ...

    Incorrect

    • What feature is found in the flowmeters of modern anaesthetic machines ?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The use of stannic oxide increases the accuracy of flowmeters

      Explanation:

      Flowmeters measure the rate at which a specific gas, that the flowmeter has been calibrated for, passes through. This calibration is done at room temperature and standard atmospheric pressure with an accuracy of +/- 2%.

      Reading the flowmeter is done from the top of a bobbin (the midpoint of a ball). Oxygen is the last gas to be added downstream to the mixture delivered to the back bar as a safety feature. This prevents delivery of a hypoxic mixture.

      Inaccurate flow measurements occur when the bobbin sticks to the inside wall of the flowmeter. Stannic oxide has been used as a successful antistatic substance thus, reducing the aforementioned risk.

      Carbon dioxide being easily delivered is found on some older machines, but those attached flowmeters are limited by a maximum flow of 500 ml /min. Thus avoiding the delivery of a hypercarbic mixture.

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  • Question 25 - The equipment used for patient monitoring in theatre and intensive care settings have...

    Incorrect

    • The equipment used for patient monitoring in theatre and intensive care settings have electrical safety requirements for the protection of hospital staff and patients.
      Of the different classes of electrical equipment listed, which is least likely to cause a patient to suffer a microshock?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: II (CF)

      Explanation:

      Microshock refers to ventricular fibrillation caused by miniscule amounts of currents or voltages (100-150 microamperes) passing through the myocardial tissue from external cables arising from electrical components within the cardiac muscle, for example, pacemaker electrodes or saline filled venous catheters.
      The risk of shock changes with the construction of electrical equipment in question. The main classes of electrical equipment include: I: Appliances have a protective earth connected to an outer casing which prevents live elements from coming in contact with conductive elements. A fault in this equipment class will result in live elements coming in contact with the outer casing and allowing electrical flow into the protective earth. This triggers the protective fuse to disconnect the electric supply to the appliance.
      II: These appliances have reinforced insulation. In the event of a fault which causes the first layer of insulation to fail, the second layer is able to prevent contact of live elements with outer casing.
      III: These appliances have no insulation to provide safety, and rely solely on the use of separated extra low voltage source (SELV) which limits voltage to 25V AC or 60V DC allowing for a person to come in contact with it without risk of a shock under normal dry conditions. Under wet conditions, voltage supply should be lowered to reduce risk of shock. These devices have no risk of macroshocks, but some risk of microshocks.
      Class I and II electrical appliances are further divided into subtypes developed to limit current leakage in the event of a singular fault:
      B (body): Upper limit of current leakage is 500 µA. This current can cause skin tingling and microshocks, but is not sufficient to cause injury.
      BF (body floating): These appliances have an isolating capacitor or transformer which separate the secondary circuit from the protective earth. The upper limit of current leakage is the same as type B.
      CF (cardiac floating): Upper limit of leakage current during a singular fault is 50 microamps. It is least likely to result in a microshock

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  • Question 26 - Which of the following statements is true regarding the Wrights Respirometer? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding the Wrights Respirometer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Measures the minute volume to within an accuracy of +/- 10%

      Explanation:

      A Wrights Respirometer measures the volume of air exhaled over the course of one minute of normal breathing

      It is unidirectional and measures tidal volume and minute volume of gas flow in one direction. It is placed at the expiratory side (lower pressure than inspiratory side therefore lower chances of gas leaks)

      Slits are arranged such that incoming gas will rotate the vane at a rate of 150 revolutions per litre of flowing gas

      The Wright respirometer tends to over-read at high flow rates and under-read at low flows because of mechanical causes like friction and inertia and the accumulation of water vapour

      The ideal flow for accurate readings is 2 L/min for the respirometer. The respirometer reads the tidal volume and minute volume with a ±5–10% accuracy within the range of 4–24 L/min.

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  • Question 27 - Which of the following is true about the pulse oximeter? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true about the pulse oximeter?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Is accurate to within +/- 2% in the range of 70% to 100% saturation

      Explanation:

      The pulse oximeter provides a continuous non-invasive measurement of the arterial oxygen saturation. The light emitting diodes (LEDs) produce beams of red and infrared light at 660 nm and 940 nm respectively (not 640 and 960 nm), which travel through a finger (toe, ear lobe or nose) and are then detected by a sensitive photodetector.

      The light absorbed by non-pulsatile tissues is constant (DC), and the non-constant absorption (AC) is the result of arterial blood pulsation. The DC and AC components at 660 and 940 nm are then analysed by the microprocessor and the result is related to the arterial saturation.

      An isosbestic point is a point at which two substances absorb a wavelength of light to the same degree. In pulse oximetry the different absorption profiles of oxyhaemoglobin and deoxyhaemoglobin are used to quantify the haemoglobin saturation (in %). Isosbestic points occur at 590 and 805 nm (not 490 and 805 nm), where the light absorbed is independent of the degree of saturation, and are used as reference points.

      The pulse oximeter is accurate to within +/- 2% in the range of 70% to 100% saturation, and below 70% the readings are extrapolated. Pulse oximeters average their readings every 10 to 20 seconds and thus they cannot detect acute desaturation events. Consequently, they are often referred to as ‘lag’ monitors, due to the time delay in identifying the desaturation episode.

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  • Question 28 - A transport ventilator is powered by an air/oxygen mix using a full oxygen...

    Incorrect

    • A transport ventilator is powered by an air/oxygen mix using a full oxygen cylinder (class CD) with an internal capacity of 2 litres, and pressure of 23,000 kPa, with a gas flow of 4 litres/minute.
      The ventilator also has a control resulting in an additional gas consumption of 1 litre/minute.

      How long will it take for the cylinder to empty?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 92 minutes

      Explanation:

      The Drager Oxylog® 1000 is a pneumatically powered, time-dependent, volume-titrated emergency ventilator with a pressure limit. It is compatible with CD cylinder oxygen. The CD cylinder is a strong and lightweight cylinder usually composed of aluminium or Kevlar. The internal cylinder volume is 2 litres, and the pressure of a full cylinder is 230 bar. The volume of the full cylinder is determined by applying Boyle’s law: P1 × V1 = P2 × V2

      Where:
      P1= pressure of a full cylinder (230 bar)
      V1= volume of oxygen at that pressure (2 litres)
      P2= final pressure (1 bar), and
      V2= volume of oxygen in the full cylinder.

      Substituting values into the equation:

      230 × 2 = 1 x V2
      V2 = 460 litres. The flow of fresh gas is 4 litres/minute + 1 litre/minute required by the control, making a total of 5 litres/minute. The amount of time it takes for the cylinder to empty would be the total volume of oxygen in the full cylinder divided by the amount of oxygen expelled per minute: 460/5 = 92, meaning it would take 92 minutes for the cylinder to empty.

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  • Question 29 - Which one of the following statement is true regarding United Kingdom gas cylinders?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statement is true regarding United Kingdom gas cylinders?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tensile tests are performed on sections of one cylinder in every hundred

      Explanation:

      Medical gas cylinders are made up of molybdenum steel but not cast iron. They are checked and assessed at a regular interval.

      At least one cylinder in each hundred are tested for tensile, pressure, smash, twist and straightening.

      Nitrous Oxide cylinders contain a mixture of liquid and vapour at a pressure of approx. 4500 kPa or 45 Bar. Carbon dioxide cylinder contain gas at the pressure of 5000kPa.

      The filling ratio is the ratio of mass of liquified gas in the cylinder to the mass of water required to fill the cylinder at the temperature of 15ºC. In the united kingdom, filling ratio of liquid nitrous oxide is 0.75. The cylinders are usually attached to the anaesthetic machine. As nitrous oxide is an N-methyl-d-aspartate receptor antagonist that may reduce the incidence of chronic post-surgical pain.

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  • Question 30 - A laser is a device that stimulates atoms or molecules to emit light...

    Incorrect

    • A laser is a device that stimulates atoms or molecules to emit light at particular wavelengths and amplifies that light, typically producing a very narrow beam of radiation. This can be of visible, infrared, or ultraviolet wavelengths. They have been widely utilized in theatre environment.

      Which of the following safety measures is most likely to reduce chances of eye injury to the theatre personnel?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Wearing laser protective goggles

      Explanation:

      Eye damage is the most common potential hazard associated with laser energy. Everyone in the laser treatment room has the risk of eye exposure when working with a Class 3b or Class 4 healthcare laser system, and damage to various structures in the eye depending on wavelength of the laser if they are unprotected.

      Red and near-infrared light (400-1400 nm) has very high penetration power. The light causes painless burns on the retina after it is absorbed by melanin in the pigment epithelium just behind the photoreceptors.

      Infrared radiation (IR), or infrared light (>1060 nm), is a type of radiant energy that’s invisible to human eyes and hence won’t elicit the protective blink.

      Ultraviolet light (<400 nm) is also a form of electromagnetic radiation which is can penetrate the cornea and be absorbed by the iris or the pupil and cause burn injuries or cataract occur due to irreversible photochemical retinal damage. Safety eyewear is the best method of providing eye protection and are designed to absorb light specific to the laser being used. Laser protective eyewear (LPE) includes glasses or goggles of proper optical density (OD). The lenses should not be glass or plastic. The LPE should withstand direct and diffuse scattered laser beams. The laser protection supervisor (LPS) or LSO is an individual who is responsible for any clinical area in which lasers are used. They are expected to have a certain level of equipment and determine what control measures are appropriate, for each individual system, but their presence does not guarantee the chances of having an eye injury. Class 1 lasers are generally safe under every conceivable condition and is not likely to cause any eye damage. Class 3b or Class 4 medical laser systems are utilized in healthcare which have their own safety precautions. Polarized spectacles can make your eyes more comfortable by eliminated glare, however, they will not be able to offer any protection against wavelengths at which laser act.
      Using short bursts to reduce energy is also not correct as it would still be harmful to eye.

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