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Question 1
Incorrect
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Diagnosis of the neuroleptic malignant syndrome is best supported by which of the following statement?
Your Answer: Flaccid muscles
Correct Answer: Increased Creatine Kinase
Explanation:The neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare complication in response to neuroleptic or antipsychotic medication.
The main features are:
– Elevated creatinine kinase
– Hyperthermia and tachycardia
– Altered mental state
– Increased white cell count
– Insidious onset over 1-3 days
– Extrapyramidal dysfunction (muscle rigidity, tremor, dystonia)
– Autonomic dysfunction (Labile blood pressure, sweating, salivation, urinary incontinence)Management is supportive ICU care, anticholinergic drugs, increasing dopaminergic activity with Amantadine, L-dopa, and dantrolene, and non- depolarising neuromuscular blockade drugs
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 2
Correct
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With a cervical dilation of 9 cm, a 23-year-old term primigravida is in labour. She is otherwise in good health. She's been in labour for 14 hours and counting.
Early foetal pulse decelerations can be seen on the cardiotocograph, and a recent foetal scalp blood sample revealed a pH of 7.25.
Which of the following is true about this patient's care and management?Your Answer: Monitor for downward trend in fetal scalp blood pH as caesarean section is not indicated at the present time
Explanation:Once the decision to deliver a baby by caesarean section has been made, it should be carried out with a level of urgency commensurate with the risk to the baby and the mother’s safety.
There are four types of caesarean section urgency:
Category 1 – Endangering the life of the mother or the foetus
Category 2 – Maternal or foetal compromise that is not immediately life threatening
Category 3 – Early delivery is required, but there is no risk to the mother or the foetus.
Category 4: Elective delivery at a time that is convenient for both the mother and the maternity staff.Caesarean sections for categories 1 and 2 should be performed as soon as possible after the decision is made, especially for category 1. For category 1 caesarean sections, a decision to deliver time of 30 minutes is currently used.
In most cases, Category 2 caesarean sections should be performed within 75 minutes of making the decision.
The condition of the woman and the unborn baby should be considered when making a decision for a quick delivery, as it may be harmful in some cases.
There is no evidence of foetal compromise in the example above (early foetal pulse decelerations and a pH of less than 7.25). Early foetal pulse decelerations are most likely caused by the uterus compressing the foetal head. The foetus is not harmed by these. A spinal anaesthetic is preferred over a general anaesthetic whenever possible.
If the foetal scalp blood pH is greater than 7.25, it’s a good idea to repeat the test later and look for any changes. When a foetus decelerates, the mother should be given oxygen, kept in a left lateral position, and kept hydrated to avoid the need for a caesarean section.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 3
Correct
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An 80-year-old female presents to the emergency department with symptoms consistent with mesenteric ischemia. She is quickly shifted to the operation theatre for an emergency laparotomy.
On exploration, the segment of the colon from the splenic flexure down to the rectum is ischemic.
The artery blocked in this scenario arises at what vertebral level from the aorta?Your Answer: L3
Explanation:The hindgut is from the distal third of the transverse colon down to the upper one-third of the anal canal. The inferior mesenteric artery supplies the hindgut.
The inferior mesenteric artery arises from the aorta behind the inferior border of the third part of the duodenum 3–4 cm above the aortic bifurcation, at the third lumbar vertebra level.
The important landmarks of vessels arising from the abdominal aorta at different levels of vertebrae are:
T12 – Coeliac trunk
L1 – Left renal artery
L2 – Testicular or ovarian arteries
L3 – Inferior mesenteric artery
L4 – Bifurcation of the abdominal aorta
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 4
Correct
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The following are results of some pulmonary function tests:
Measurement - Predicted result - Test result
Forced vital capacity (FVC) (btps) - 3.21 - 1.94
Forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) (btps) - 2.77 - 1.82
FEV1/FVC ratio % (btps) - 81.9 - 93.5
Peak expiratory flow (PEF) (L/second) - 6.55 - 3.62
Maximum voluntary ventilation (MVV) (L/minute) - 103 - 87.1
Which statement applies to the results?Your Answer: The patient has a moderate restrictive pulmonary defect
Explanation:Severity of a reduction in restrictive defect (%FVC) or obstructive defect (%FEV1/FVC) predicted are classified as follows:
Mild 70-80%
Moderate 60-69%
Moderately severe 50-59%
Severe 35-49%
Very severe <35% This patient has a %FVC predicted of 60.4% and this corresponds to a moderate restrictive deficit. %FEV1/FVC ratio is 93.5%. FEV1/FVC ratio 80% < predicted and VC < 80% = mixed picture. FEV1/FVC ratio 80% < predicted and VC > 80% = obstructive picture.FEV1/FVC ratio 80% > predicted and VC > 80% = normal picture.
FEV1/FVC ratio 80% > predicted and VC < 80% predicted= restrictive picture. The integrity of the alveolar-capillary barrier is measured by carbon monoxide transfer factor (TLCO) and carbon monoxide transfer coefficient (KCO). These values are seen to be reduced in emphysema, interstitial lung diseases and in pulmonary vascular pathology. However, the KCO (as % predicted) is high in extrapulmonary restriction (pleural, chest wall and respiratory neuromuscular disease), and in loss of lung units provided the structure of the lung remaining is normal. The KCO distinguishes extrapulmonary (high KCO) causes of ‘restriction’ from intrapulmonary causes (low KCO).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 5
Correct
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A 52-year-old man was referred for investigation of malignant hyperthermia following general anaesthesia for a micro laryngoscopy and biopsy for a suspected laryngeal tumour. The patient was found to be a heavy smoker and the only presenting symptom is a hoarse voice.
A sample of muscle (vastus lateralis) needs to be taken to establish a diagnosis of malignant hyperthermia in this patient.
Which one of the following is the best anaesthetic technique for muscle biopsy in this patient?Your Answer: Spinal anaesthesia
Explanation:According to European Group protocol for the investigation of MH susceptibility, muscle biopsy should be performed on quadriceps muscle (either vastus medialis or vastus lateralis), using regional anaesthesia (avoiding local anaesthetic infiltration) or general anaesthetic techniques. Local anaesthetic solution within muscle fibres may affect in vitro contraction testing.
Desflurane is a weak triggering anaesthetic of malignant hyperthermia so is avoided in MH susceptible patients. This includes all volatile inhalational agents and suxamethonium.
General anaesthetic with the volatile free anaesthetic machine may be considered but spinal anaesthesia is a better choice due to the possibility of airway problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Which of the following is true about the patellar reflex?
Your Answer: Has a reflex arc which involves a single interneuron
Correct Answer: Is abolished immediately after transection of the spinal cord at T6
Explanation:The patellar (knee jerk) reflex is a monosynaptic stretch reflex arising from L2-L4 nerve roots. It occurs after a tap on the patellar tendon which causes the spindles of the quadriceps muscles to stretch.
The afferent nerve pathway occurred through A gamma fibres.
Wesphal’s sign refers to a reduction, or absence of the patellar reflex. It is often indicated of a neurological disease affecting the PNS.
A transection of the spinal cord results in a degree of shock which causes all reflexes to be reduced or completely absent, and required a period of approximately 6 weeks to recover.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A cannula is inserted into the cephalic vein of a 30-year-old man. Which of the following structures does the cephalic vein pass through?
Your Answer: Tendon of biceps
Correct Answer: Clavipectoral fascia
Explanation:The cephalic vein is one of the primary superficial veins of the upper limb. The superficial group of upper limb veins begin as an irregular dorsal arch on the back of the hand.
The cephalic vein originates in the anatomical snuffbox from the radial side of the arch and travels laterally up, within the superficial fascia to join the basilic vein via the median cubital vein at the elbow.
Near the shoulder, it passes between the deltoid and pectoralis major muscles. It pierces the coracoid membrane (continuation of the clavipectoral fascia) to terminate in the axillary vein’s first part.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 8
Correct
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A 40-year old gentleman has palpitations and has gone to the emergency department. He is found to have monomorphic ventricular tachycardia. The resting potential of ventricular monocytes is maintained by which electrolyte?
Your Answer: Potassium
Explanation:Potassium maintains the resting potential of cardiac myocytes, with depolarization triggered by a rapid influx of sodium ions, and repolarization due to efflux of potassium. A slow influx of calcium is responsible for the longer duration of a cardiac action potential compared with skeletal muscle.
The cardiac action potential has several phases which have different mechanisms of action as seen below:
Phase 0: Rapid depolarisation – caused by a rapid sodium influx.
These channels automatically deactivate after a few ms.Phase 1: caused by early repolarisation and an efflux of potassium.
Phase 2: Plateau – caused by a slow influx of calcium.
Phase 3 – Final repolarisation – caused by an efflux of potassium.
Phase 4 – Restoration of ionic concentrations – The resting potential is restored by Na+/K+ATPase.
There is slow entry of Na+into the cell which decreases the potential difference until the threshold potential is reached. This then triggers a new action potentialOf note, cardiac muscle remains contracted 10-15 times longer than skeletal muscle.
Different sites have different conduction velocities:
1. Atrial conduction – Spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibres at 1 m/sec2. AV node conduction – 0.05 m/sec
3. Ventricular conduction – Purkinje fibres are of large diameter and achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec, the fastest conduction in the heart. This allows a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 9
Correct
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A 26-year old male patient was admitted to the surgery department for appendectomy. Medical history revealed that he has major depressive disorder and was on Phenelzine. Aside from abdominal pain, initial assessment was unremarkable. However, thirty minutes after, the patient was referred to you for generalized seizures. He was given an analgesic and it was noted that, during the first 15 minutes of administration, he became anxious, with profuse sweating, which later developed into seizures. Upon physical examination, he was febrile at 38.3°C.
Which of the following statements is the best explanation for the patient's symptoms?Your Answer: Drug interaction with pethidine
Explanation:The clinical picture best describes a probable drug interaction with pethidine.
Phenelzine, a monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitor, when given with pethidine, an opioid analgesic, may lead to episodes of hypertension, rigidity, excitation, hyperpyrexia, seizures, coma and death. Studies have shown that pethidine reacts more significantly with MAO inhibitors than morphine.
When pethidine is metabolised to normeperidine, it acts as a serotonin reuptake inhibitor and cause an increase in serotonin levels in the brain. MAO inhibitors can also lead to elevated levels of serotonin because of its mechanism of action by inhibiting the enzyme monoamine oxidase that degrades serotonin.
The excess serotonin levels may lead to serotonin syndrome, of which some of the common precipitating drugs are selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, MAO inhibitors, tricyclic antidepressants, meperidine, and St. John’s Wort. Onset of symptoms is within hours, which includes fever, agitation, tremor, clonus, hyperreflexia and diaphoresis.
Drug interaction between phenelzine and paracetamol do not commonly precipitate serotonin syndrome.
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is due to dopamine antagonism, precipitated commonly by antipsychotics. Its onset of symptoms occur in 1 to 3 days, and is characterized by fever, encephalopathy, unstable vitals signs, elevated CPK, and rigidity.
Altered mental status is the most common manifestation of sepsis-associated encephalopathy. Patient also exhibit confusional states and inappropriate behaviour. In some cases, this may lead to coma and death.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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The physiological properties of a fast glycolytic (fast twitch) muscle fibre are characterised by which of the following?
Your Answer: Generally fatigue resistant
Correct Answer: Synthesis of ATP is brought about by anaerobic respiration
Explanation:Muscle fibre myosin ATPase histochemistry is used to divide the biochemical classification into two groups: type 1 and type II.
Type I (slow twitch) muscle fibres rely on aerobic glycolytic and aerobic oxidative metabolism to function. They have a lot of mitochondria, a good blood supply, a lot of myoglobin, and they don’t get tired easily.
Because they contain more motor units, Type II (fast twitch) muscle fibres are thicker. They are more easily fatigued, but produce powerful bursts. The capillary networks and mitochondria are less dense in these white muscle fibres than in type I fibres. They have a low myoglobin content as well.
Muscle fibres of type II (fast twitch) are divided into three types:
Type IIa – aerobic/oxidative metabolism is used.
Type IIb – anaerobic/glycolytic metabolism is used by these fibres.When compared to skeletal muscle, cardiac and smooth muscle twitch at a slower rate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman takes part in a study looking into the effects of different dietary substrates on metabolism. She receives a 24-hour ethyl alcohol infusion.
A constant volume, closed system respirometer is used to measure CO2 production and consumption. The production of carbon dioxide is found to be 200 mL/minute.
Which of the following values most closely resembles her anticipated O2 consumption at the conclusion of the trial?Your Answer: 250 mL/minute
Correct Answer: 300 mL/minute
Explanation:The respiratory quotient (RQ) is the ratio of CO2 produced by the body to O2 consumed in a given amount of time.
CO2 produced / O2 consumed = RQ
CO2 is produced at a rate of 200 mL per minute, while O2 is consumed at a rate of 250 mL per minute. An RQ of around 0.8 is typical for a mixed diet.
The RQ will change depending on the energy substrates consumed in the diet. Granulated sugar is a refined carbohydrate that contains 99.999 percent carbohydrate and no lipids, proteins, minerals, or vitamins.
Glucose and other hexose sugars (glucose and other hexose sugars):
RQ=1Fats:
RQ = 0.7Proteins:
Approximately 0.9 RQEthyl alcohol is a type of alcohol.
200/300 = 0.67 RQ
For complete oxidation, lipids and alcohol require more oxygen than carbohydrates.
When carbohydrate is converted to fat, the RQ can rise above 1.0. Fat deposition and weight gain are likely to occur in these circumstances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Which of the following organism is highly resistant to penicillin?
Your Answer: Beta-haemolytic Streptococci
Correct Answer: Escherichia coli
Explanation:Penicillinase is a narrow spectrum ?-lactamase that opens the ?-lactam ring and inactivates Penicillin G and some closely related congeners. The majority of Staphylococci and some strains of gonococci, B. subtilis, E. coli, and a few other bacteria produce penicillinase.
N. meningitidis is sensitive to penicillin and less than 20% resistance is found in pseudomonas.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 13
Correct
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Which of the following statements is an accurate fact about the vertebral column?
Your Answer: Herniation of intervertebral disc between the fifth and sixth cervical vertebrae will compress the sixth cervical nerve root
Explanation:The vertebral (spinal) column is the skeletal central axis made up of approximately 33 bones called the vertebrae.
Cervical disc herniations occur when some or all of the nucleus pulposus extends through the annulus fibrosus. The most commonly affected discs are the C5-C6 and C6-C7 discs. Each vertebrae has a corresponding nerve root which arises at a level above it. This means that a hernation of the C5-C6 disc will cause a compression of the C6 nerve root.
The foramen transversarium is a part of the transverse process of each cervical vertebrae, however, the vertebral artery only runs through the C1-C6 foramen transversarium.
The costal facets are the point of joint formation between a rib and a vertebrae. As such, they are only present on the transverse processes of T1-T10.
The lumbar vertebrae do not form a joint with the ribs, nor do they possess a foramina in their transverse process.
Intervertebral discs are thickest in the cervical and lumbar regions of the spinal column. However, there are no discs between C1 and C2.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Concerning forced alkaline diuresis, which of the following statements is true?
Your Answer: Is used in poisoning or overdoses with alkaline drugs
Correct Answer: Can be used in a barbiturate overdose
Explanation:In situations of poisoning or drug overdose with acid dugs like salicylates and barbiturates, forced alkaline diuresis may be used.
With regards to overdose with alkaline drugs, forced acid diuresis is used.
By changing the pH of the urine, the ionised portion of the drug stays in the urine, and this prevents its diffusion back into the blood. Charged molecules do not readily cross biological membranes.
The process involves the infusion of specific fluids at a rate of about 500ml per hour. This requires monitoring of the central venous pressure, urine output, plasma electrolytes, especially potassium, and blood gas analysis.
The fluid regimen recommended is:
500ml of 1.26% sodium bicarbonate (not 200ml of 8.4%)
500ml of 5% dextrose and
500ml of 0.9% sodium chloride. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 15
Correct
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A morbidly obese (BMI=48) patient has the following co-morbidities: type II diabetes mellitus and hypertension. It is recommended for the patient to undergo bariatric surgery.
If the patient is laid flat for induction of anaesthesia, what physiologic changes of the respiratory system is the most important to consider?Your Answer: Functional residual capacity will decrease
Explanation:A decrease in the functional residual capacity (FRC) is the most important physiologic change to consider for such patients.
FRC is the sum of the expiratory reserve volume and the residual volume. It is the resting volume of the lung, and is an important marker for lung function. During this time, the alveolar pressure is equal to the atmospheric pressure. When morbidly obese individuals lie supine, the FRC decreases by as much as 40% because the abdominal contents push the diaphragm into the thoracic cavity.
Chest wall compliance is expected to reduce because of fat deposition surrounding adjacent structures.
Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) is expected to increase, and peak expiratory flow is expected to decrease, however the decrease in FRC is more important to consider because of the risk of hypoxia secondary to premature airway closure and ventilation-perfusion mismatch.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 16
Correct
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In an experimental study, a healthy subject was given one litre of 5% dextrose within a 15-minute period. Which of the following mechanisms is expected to affect the urine output?
Your Answer: Inhibition of arginine vasopressin (AVP) secretion
Explanation:Changes in the osmolality of body fluids (changes as minor as 1% are sufficient) play the most important role in regulating AVP secretion. The receptors that monitor changes in osmolality of body fluids (termed osmoreceptors) are distinct from the cells that synthesize and secrete AVP, and are located in the organum vasculosum of the lamina terminalis (OVLT) of the hypothalamus. The osmoreceptors sense changes in body osmolality by either shrinking or swelling. When the effective osmolality of the plasma increases, the osmoreceptors send signals to the AVP synthesizing/secreting cells located in the supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei of the hypothalamus, and AVP synthesis and secretion are stimulated. Conversely, when the effective osmolality of the plasma is reduced, secretion is inhibited. Because AVP is rapidly degraded in the plasma, circulating levels can be reduced to zero within minutes after secretion is inhibited.
In this scenario, the osmolality of the plasma will decrease to an estimate of 2.5%, hence inhibition of AVP.
Stimulation of atrial stretch receptors is incorrect because the increase in plasma volume is still below the threshold for its activation.
Osmotic diuresis is incorrect because 5% dextrose is isotonic, hence osmotic diuresis is not probable.
Renin is inhibited when an excess of NaCl in the tubular fluid is sensed by the macula densa.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old female, known case of diabetes, has come in for a check-up at the diabetic foot clinic. The pulses of her feet are examined. The posterior tibial pulse and dorsalis pedis pulses are palpated.
Which of the following artery continues as the dorsalis pedis artery?Your Answer: Peroneal artery
Correct Answer: Anterior tibial artery
Explanation:At the ankle joint, midway between the malleoli, the anterior tibial artery changes names, becoming the dorsalis pedis artery (dorsal artery of the foot).
The dorsalis pedis artery is palpated against the underlying tarsals, immediately lateral to the tendon of extensor hallucis longus, from the midpoint between the malleoli to the proximal end of the first intermetatarsal space.
The popliteal artery forms the anterior tibial artery.
The tibioperoneal trunk is a branch of the popliteal artery.
The peroneal artery (also known as the fibular artery) supplies the lateral compartment of the leg.
The external iliac artery is formed from the common iliac artery at the level of the pelvis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 18
Correct
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How data is collected for the Delphi survey technique?
Your Answer: Questionnaires
Explanation:The Delphi is a group facilitation technique that seeks to obtain consensus on the opinions of `experts’ through a series of structured questionnaires (commonly referred to as rounds). By using successive questionnaires, opinions are considered in a non-adversarial manner, with the current status of the groups’ collective opinion being repeatedly fed back. Studies employing the Delphi make use of individuals who have knowledge of the topic being investigated
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 19
Correct
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What can an outbreak of flu that has spread globally be termed as?
Your Answer: Pandemic
Explanation:An epidemic is declared when the increase in a give disease is above a certain level in a specific interval of time.
An endemic is the general, usual level of a disease in a population at a particular time.
A pandemic is an epidemic that is spread across many countries and continents.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Iron is one of the most important micronutrients in the body.
Out of the following, which one has the most abundant storage of iron in the body?Your Answer: Ferritin and haemosiderin
Correct Answer: Haemoglobin
Explanation:Iron is a necessary micronutrient for proper erythropoietic function, oxidative metabolism, and cellular immune responses. Although dietary iron absorption (1-2 mg/d) is tightly controlled, it is only just balanced by losses.
The adult body contains 35-45 mg/kg iron (about 4-5 g)
Iron can be found in a variety of forms, including haemoglobin, ferritin, haemosiderin, myoglobin, haem enzymes, and transferrin bound proteins.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 21
Correct
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What is the order of the anatomical components of the tracheobronchial tree from proximal to distal?
Your Answer: Bronchioles, terminal bronchioles, respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts, alveolar sacs
Explanation:The tracheobronchial tree is subdivided into the conducting and the respiratory zones.
The zones from proximal to distal are:
Trachea
Bronchi
Bronchioles
Terminal bronchioles
Respiratory bronchioles
Alveolar ducts
Alveolar sacsfrom the trachea to terminal bronchioles are the conducting zone while the respiratory zone is from the respiratory bronchioles to the alveola sacs
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 22
Correct
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A 65-year-old man, presents to the emergency department. He explains that an hour ago, he experienced central chest pain, which moved down his left arm.
On ECG, elevation in the ST-segment was noted in the anterior leads. He undergoes emergency percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) which requires the cardiologist to access the heart via the femoral artery.
Where is the surface marking for identifying the femoral artery?Your Answer: Midway between the ASIS and the pubic symphysis
Explanation:The surface marking for locating the femoral artery is the mid-inguinal point, which is the halfway point between the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) and the pubic symphysis.
The other mentioned options are not specific for any landmark.
However, it is important to note the difference between the mid inguinal point and the midpoint of the inguinal ligament, which is travels from the ASIS to the pubic tubercle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Which one of the following pharmacokinetic models is most suitable for target-controlled infusion (TCI) of propofol in paediatric patients?
Your Answer: Minto
Correct Answer: Kataria
Explanation:Marsh (adult) model, when used with children caused over-estimation of plasma concentration. To address this issue Kataria et al developed a three-compartmental model for propofol in children. The pharmacokinetic models used by Target controlled infusion (TCI) systems are used to calculate the relative sizes of the central (vascular), vessel-rich peripheral, and vessel-poor peripheral compartments. The relative volumes of these compartments are different in young children when compared to adults.
Kataria, therefore, is the correct option as described above.
The Maitre model is a three-compartmental model for alfentanil TCI.
The Marsh model describes a propofol TCI model for adults
The Minto model applies to TCI remifentanil.
The Schnider model is also an adult model for propofol that incorporates age and lean body mass as covariates.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 24
Correct
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What is the most sensitive method of detecting an intra-operative air embolism?
Your Answer: Transoesophageal echocardiogram
Explanation:An intra-operative air embolism occurs when air becomes trapped in the blood vessels during surgery.
A transoesophageal echocardiography (OE) uses invasive echocardiography to monitor the integrity and performance of the heart. It is the gold standard as it provides real-time imaging of the heart to enable early diagnosis and treatment.
Precordial doppler ultrasonography can also be used to detect into-operative air emboli. It is non-invasive and more practical, but is less sensitive.
A change in end-tidal CO2 could be indicative of and increase in physiological dead-space, but could also be indicative of any processes that reduces the excretion or increases the production of CO2, making it non-specific.
A transoesophageal stethoscope can be used to listen for the classic mill-wheel murmur produced by a large air embolus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man will have a PICC line inserted as he requires long-term parenteral nutrition. To gain venous access, the line is inserted into the basilic vein at the elbow region.
As the catheter tip advances into the basilic vein, which venous structure will it first encounter?
Your Answer: Cephalic vein
Correct Answer: Axillary vein
Explanation:A peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) line is a long, thin tube inserted into the vein of a patient’s arm to gain access to the large central veins near the heart. PICC line is indicated for parenteral nutrition or to deliver medications. They can be used for medium-term venous access, defined as anywhere between several weeks to 6 months.
The veins of choice for PICC are:
1. Basilic
2. Brachial
3. Cephalic
4. Medial cubital veinThe vein of choice is the right basilic vein as it has a large circumference and is located superficially. It has the most straight route to the final destination of PICC (SVC or Right atrium). It courses through the axillary vein, then the subclavian, and finally settles into the SVC. It also has the least number of valves and a shallow angle of insertion when compared to the other veins.
The basilic vein drains the medial end of the dorsal arch of the upper limb, passes along the medial aspect of the forearm, and pierces the deep fascia at the elbow. The basilic vein joins the venae comitantes of the brachial artery to form the axillary vein at the elbow.
The posterior circumflex humeral vein is encountered before the axillary vein. However, a PICC line is unlikely to enter this structure because of its entry angle into the basilic vein. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 26
Correct
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A 76-year-old female, presents to her GP. She complains of fatigue and increased shortness of breath. On examination, she is noted to have pallor, an increased respiratory and heart rate. Her GP requests further diagnostic investigations, including a full blood count (FBC) which finds decreased MCV and MCHC.
What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?Your Answer: Iron deficiency
Explanation:The patient’s diagnosis is microcytic hypochromic anaemia which is often as a result of iron deficiency and thalassaemia.
Macrocytic anaemia is often caused by folate and B12 deficiencies and alcohol abuse.
Normocytic normochromic anaemia is often caused by acute blood loss, haemolytic anaemia, anaemia of chronic disease and leucoerythroblastic anaemias.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 27
Correct
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An 85-year old female is being investigated and treated for pancytopenia of unknown origin. Her most recent blood test is shown below which shows that he has a low platelet count.
Hb-102 g/l
WBC - 2.9* 109/l
Platelets - 7 * 109/l
Which of the following normally stimulates platelet production?
Your Answer: Thrombopoietin
Explanation:Interleukin-4 is a cytokine which acts to regulate the responses of B and T cells.
Erythropoietin is responsible for the signal that initiated red blood cell production.
Granulocyte-colony stimulating factor stimulates the bone marrow to produce granulocytes.
Interleukin-5 is a cytokine that stimulates the proliferation and activation of eosinophils.
Thrombopoietin is the primary signal responsible for megakaryocyte and thus platelet production.
Platelets are also called thrombocytes. They, like red blood cells, are also derived from myeloid stem cells. The process involves a megakaryocyte developing from a common myeloid progenitor cell. A megakaryocyte is a large cell with a multilobulated nucleus, this grows to become massive where it will then break up to form platelets.Immune cells are generated from haematopoietic stem cells in bone marrow. They generate two main types of progenitors, myeloid and lymphoid progenitor cells, from which all immune cells are derived.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Suppose the afterload and myocardial contractility remain unchanged, which of the following factors in the pressure-volume loop indicates an increase in the preload of the left ventricle?
Your Answer: Increased end-systolic volume
Correct Answer: Increased end-diastolic volume
Explanation:If the afterload and myocardiac contractility remains unchanged, an increase in the preload can be attributed to an increase in end-diastolic volume.
Preload can be defined as the initial stretching of the cardiac myocytes prior to contraction. Preload, therefore, is related to muscle sarcomere length. Because sarcomere length cannot be determined in the intact heart, other indices of preload are used such as ventricular end-diastolic volume or pressure. When venous return to the heart is increased, the end-diastolic pressure and volume of the ventricles are increased, which stretches the sarcomeres, thereby increasing their preload.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Physics
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Question 29
Correct
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Which of the following drugs can have significant clinical effects on neonates when used in appropriate doses for a caesarean section?
Your Answer: Alfentanil
Explanation:Opioid should be avoided in the caesarean section as it crosses the placental membrane and causes respiratory depression.
Even though inhalational and intravenous anaesthetic agents readily cross the placenta, they do not have significant effects on APGAR score when used in clinical doses.
Vecuronium and suxamethonium are highly polar molecules and thus do not cross the placenta in significant amounts.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 30
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A 28-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant presented with significant proteinuria and severe headache. On examination, the blood pressure recorded was consistently raised at 190/110. Subsequently, she was admitted to the labour ward as a case of pre-eclampsia.
A loading dose of IV magnesium sulphate 4g is given, followed by a 1g/hour infusion.
The most suitable parameter to access magnesium toxicity is?Your Answer: Tendon reflexes
Explanation:Magnesium is a very important cation due to its various physiological roles in the body. This includes:
– playing the role of a cofactor in many enzymatic reactions
– influencing hormone receptor binding
– affecting calcium channels
– impact on cardiac, vascular and neural cellsMagnesium sulphate is used as first line in the treatment of eclampsia. Moreover, it has some preventive role in patients with severe pre-eclampsia. All the clinical effects of magnesium are in line with its plasma concentration.
The first sign of magnesium toxicity in obstetric patients is the loss of patellar reflex, which is regularly monitored during treatment. The other options are all late signs of magnesium toxicity.
Whenever there is a doubt, serum magnesium levels should always be monitored.
The table below correlates the effects of increased levels of magnesium on the body:
Plasma Concentration
(mmol/L) Effect
0.7-1.2 Normal
4-8 Decreased deep tendon reflexes, nausea, headache, weakness, malaise, lethargy and facial flushing
5-10 ECG changes (prolonged PR, prolonged QT, and widened QRS)
10 Muscle weakness, loss of deep tendon reflexes, hypotension
15 SA/AV nodal block, respiratory paralysis and depression
20 Cardiac arrest -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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