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Question 1
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Which segment of the colon is most likely to be affected in diverticulitis?
Your Answer: Sigmoid colon
Explanation:Diverticulitis refers to inflammation and infection associated with a diverticulum and is estimated to occur in 10% to 25% of people with diverticulosis. Peridiverticular and pericolic infection results from a perforation (either macroscopic or microscopic) of a diverticulum, which leads to contamination, inflammation, and infection. The spectrum of disease ranges from mild, uncomplicated diverticulitis that can be treated in the outpatient setting, to free perforation and diffuse peritonitis that requires emergency laparotomy. Most patients present with left sided abdominal pain, with or without fever, and leucocytosis. The most common location for diverticulitis is the sigmoid colon.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen And Pelvis
- Anatomy
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Question 2
Correct
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You are reviewing a patient following a fall from a horse. You suspect they may have an Erb's palsy as a result of a brachial plexus injury. Regarding Erb's palsy, which one of the following statements is CORRECT:
Your Answer: Erb's palsy may result in loss of sensation of the regimental badge area.
Explanation:Erb’s palsy is caused by damage to the C5 and C6 nerve roots and thus primarily involves the musculocutaneous, suprascapular and axillary nerves. It commonly result from an excessive increase in the angle between the neck and the shoulder e.g. a person thrown from a motorbike or horseback or during a difficult birth. There is loss or weakness of abduction, lateral rotation and flexion of the arm and flexion and supination of the forearm and loss of sensation on the lateral arm. A characteristic ‘Waiter’s tip’ deformity may be present where the limb hangs limply by the side, medially rotated by the unopposed action of pectoralis major with the forearm pronated due to paralysis of the biceps brachii.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 3
Correct
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Which of the following statements is correct regarding hyponatraemia?
Your Answer: Correction of serum sodium that is too rapid can precipitate central pontine myelinolysis.
Explanation:Hyponatraemia refers to a serum sodium concentration < 135 mmol/L.
It is safer to quickly correct acute hyponatremia than chronic hyponatremia but correction should not be too fast, especially in chronic hyponatraemia, because of the risk of central pontine myelinolysis. Hyponatraemia is usually associated with a low plasma osmolality.
Under normal circumstances, if serum osmolality is low, then urine osmolality should also be low because the kidneys should be trying to retain solute.
In SIADH, excess ADH causes water retention, but not the retention of solute. Therefore, urine that is concentrated and relatively high in sodium is produced, even though the serum sodium is low (urine osmolality > 100 mosmol/kg). -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine
- Physiology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 53-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of visual impairment in his right eye. On examination, you notice that neither his right nor left pupil constricts when you shine a light in his right eye. When you flash a light in his left eye, the pupils of both his left and right eyes constrict. Which of the following nerves is the most likely to be affected:
Your Answer: Optic nerve
Explanation:In full optic nerve palsy, the afferent pupillary light reflex is lost. Because the afferent optic nerve does not sense light flashed in the afflicted eye, the ipsilateral direct and contralateral consensual reflexes are gone. However, the contralateral direct and ipsilateral consensual reflexes are intact because the efferent oculomotor nerve is normal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Cranial Nerve Lesions
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Question 5
Correct
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A 42-year-old patient with worsening epigastric pain has been referred to you by a GP. The patient has been taking omeprazole for a month, but her symptoms are getting worse.
Which of the following is NOT a well-known side effect of proton pump inhibitor treatment?Your Answer: Pelvic fracture
Explanation:Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) have a variety of side effects, including:
Vomiting and nausea
Pain in the abdomen
Flatulence
Diarrhoea
Constipation
HeadachePPIs have been linked to a significant increase in the risk of focal tachyarrhythmias (link is external).
Low serum magnesium and sodium levels have been linked to long-term use of PPIs, according to the US Food and Drug Administration (link is external).Long-term PPI use has also been linked to an increased risk of fracture, according to epidemiological evidence (link is external). Observational studies have discovered a slight link between hip, wrist, and spine fractures. However, there is no link between the two and an increased risk of pelvic fracture. For this reason, the MHRA recommends that patients at risk of osteoporosis who take PPIs maintain an adequate calcium and vitamin D intake.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 6
Correct
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Regarding diuretics, which of the following statements is CORRECT:
Your Answer: Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors have their effect by inhibiting bicarbonate reabsorption.
Explanation:Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors e.g. acetazolamide block the reaction of carbon dioxide and water and so prevent Na+/H+exchange and bicarbonate reabsorption. The increased bicarbonate levels in the filtrate oppose water reabsorption. Proximal tubule sodium reabsorption is also reduced because it is partly dependent on bicarbonate reabsorption.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Renal
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Question 7
Correct
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A pheochromocytoma is diagnosed in a 38-year-old female who has had episodes of acute sweating, palpitations, and paroxysmal hypertension.
Which of the following is the MOST SUITABLE INITIAL TREATMENT?Your Answer: Alpha-blocker
Explanation:A phaeochromocytoma is a rare functional tumour that develops in the adrenal medulla from chromaffin cells. Extra-adrenal paragangliomas (extra-adrenal pheochromocytomas) are tumours that arise in the sympathetic nervous system’s ganglia and are closely connected to extra-adrenal paragangliomas (extra-adrenal pheochromocytomas). Catecholamines are secreted by these tumours, which generate a variety of symptoms and indications associated with sympathetic nervous system hyperactivity.
Hypertension is the most prevalent presenting symptom, which can be continuous or intermittent.Symptoms are usually intermittent, occurring anywhere from many times a day to occasionally. The symptoms of the condition tend to grow more severe and frequent as the disease progresses.
The ultimate therapy of choice is surgical resection, and if full resection is done without metastases, hypertension is typically cured.Preoperative medical treatment is critical because it lowers the risk of hypertensive crises during surgery. This is commonly accomplished by combining non-competitive alpha-blockers (such as phenoxybenzamine) with beta-blockers. To allow for blood volume expansion, alpha-blockade should be started at least 7-10 days before surgery. Beta-blockade, which helps to regulate tachycardia and some arrhythmias, can be started after this is accomplished. Hypertensive crises can be triggered if beta-blockade is started too soon.
There should also be genetic counselling, as well as a search for and management of any linked illnesses. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine Physiology
- Physiology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 28-year-old female arrives after taking an unknown chemical in excess. She is tired and her speech is slurred. The following are her observations and results:HR 118,BP 92/58,SaO2 96%
HR 118, 11/15 The following are the results of his arterial blood gas (ABG):
pH: 7.24pO 2 : 9.4kPa PCO2 : 3.3kPa HCO 3 -: 22 mmol/lNa + : 143 mmol/lCl – : 99 mmol/lLactate: 5 IU/l
Which of the following statements about this patient is TRUE?Your Answer: Her anion gap is elevated
Explanation:The interpretation of arterial blood gas (ABG) aids in the measurement of a patient’s pulmonary gas exchange and acid-base balance.
The normal values on an ABG vary a little depending on the analyser, but they are roughly as follows:
Variable
Range
pH
7.35 – 7.45
PaO2
10 – 14 kPa
PaCO2
4.5 – 6 kPa
HCO3-
22 – 26 mmol/l
Base excess
-2 – 2 mmol/lThe patient’s history indicates that she has taken an overdose in this case. Because her GCS is 11/15 and she can communicate with slurred speech, she is clearly managing her own airway, there is no current justification for intubation.
The following are the relevant ABG findings:
Hypoxia (mild)
pH has been lowered (acidaemia)
PCO2 levels are low.
bicarbonate in its natural state
Lactate levels have increasedThe anion gap represents the concentration of all the unmeasured anions in the plasma. It is the difference between the primary measured cations and the primary measured anions in the serum. It can be calculated using the following formula:
Anion gap = [Na+] – [Cl-] – [HCO3-]The reference range varies depending on the technique of measurement, but it is usually between 8 and 16 mmol/L.
The following formula can be used to compute her anion gap:
Anion gap = [143] – [99] – [22]
Anion gap = 22As a result, it is clear that she has a metabolic acidosis with an increased anion gap.
The following are some of the causes of type A and type B lactic acidosis:
Type A lactic acidosis
Type B lactic acidosis
Shock (including septic shock)
Left ventricular failure
Severe anaemia
Asphyxia
Cardiac arrest
CO poisoning
Respiratory failure
Severe asthma and COPD
Regional hypoperfusion
Renal failure
Liver failure
Sepsis (non-hypoxic sepsis)
Thiamine deficiency
Alcoholic ketoacidosis
Diabetic ketoacidosis
Cyanide poisoning
Methanol poisoning
Biguanide poisoning -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Renal Physiology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 64-year-old man presents with an acute episode of gout. He has a history of chronic heart failure and hypertension. His current medications include ramipril and furosemide.
Which of the following statements regarding the treatment of gout is true? Select ONE answer only.Your Answer: Colchicine has a role in prophylactic treatment
Explanation:In the absence of any contra-indications, high-dose NSAIDs are the first-line treatment for acute gout. Naproxen 750 mg as a stat dose followed by 250 mg TDS is a commonly used and effective regime.
Aspirin should not be used in gout as it reduces the urinary clearance of urate and interferes with the action of uricosuric agents. Naproxen, Diclofenac or Indomethacin are more appropriate choices.
Allopurinol is used prophylactically, preventing future attacks by reducing serum uric acid levels. It should not be started in the acute phase as it increases the severity and duration of symptoms.
Colchicine acts on the neutrophils, binding to tubulin to prevent neutrophil migration into the joint. It is as effective as NSAIDs in relieving acute attacks. It also has a role in prophylactic treatment if Allopurinol is not tolerated.
NSAIDs are contra-indicated in heart failure as they can cause fluid retention and congestive cardiac failure. Colchicine is the preferred treatment in patients with heart failure or those who are intolerant of NSAIDs. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 10
Correct
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In the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, the tenase complex is:
Your Answer: Factor VIIa-tissue factor complex
Explanation:The extrinsic pathway for initiating the formation of prothrombin activator begins with a traumatized vascular wall or traumatized extravascular tissues that come in contact with the blood. Exposed and activated by vascular injury, with plasma factor VII. The extrinsic tenase complex, factor VIIa-tissue factor complex, activates factor X to factor Xa.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Cellular
- Physiology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 70-year-old man has severe diarrhoea one week after taking co-amoxiclav for a chest infection. The diarrhoea is yellow in colour and smell is offensive.
What is the SINGLE MOST likely causative organism?
Your Answer: Clostridium difficile
Explanation:Clostridium difficile, a Gram-positive, anaerobic, spore forming bacteria is present in the gut of approximately 3% of healthy adults (2012 UK HPA estimates). Following use of broad spectrum antibiotics, which alter normal gut flora, Clostridium difficile associated diarrhoea (CDAD) occurs.
About 80% of Clostridium difficile infections are seen in people over the age of 65 and its main clinical features are:
Abdominal cramps, severe bloody and/or watery diarrhoea, offensive smelling diarrhoea, and fever. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Specific Pathogen Groups
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Question 12
Correct
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A 53 year old male is found to have megaloblastic anaemia secondary to folate deficiency. He has a known history of alcohol abuse. Which of the following is characteristic of this condition?
Your Answer: Increased mean corpuscular volume (MCV)
Explanation:Megaloblastic anaemia occurs when there is inhibition of DNA synthesis as red blood cells are produced. Impairment of DNA synthesis causes the cell cycle to be unable to progress from the growth stage to the mitosis stage. As a result, there is continuous cell growth without division, with an increase in mean corpuscular volume (MCV), which presents as macrocytosis. The most common cause of this defect in red cell DNA synthesis is hypovitaminosis, in particular, vitamin B12 deficiency or folate deficiency.
Folate is an essential vitamin that can be found in most foods, and is highest in liver, green vegetables and yeast. 200 – 250 μg is found in the normal daily diet, and about 50% is absorbed. The daily adult requirement is about 100 μg and its absorption is principally from the duodenum and jejunum. Folate stores are normally only adequate for 4 months and so clinical features of folate deficiency usually become evident after this time. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
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Question 13
Correct
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Which of the following is NOT a typical clinical feature of diabetic ketoacidosis:
Your Answer: Cheyne–Stokes respiration
Explanation:Clinical features of DKA:
Symptoms: Polyuria, polydipsia, thirst, lethargy, weight loss, nausea, vomiting, anorexia, abdominal pain, dehydration, headache, altered mental state
Signs: Dry mucous membranes, ketotic breath, tachycardia, hypotension, Kussmaul breathing, focal signs of precipitant e.g. infection -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine
- Physiology
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Question 14
Correct
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Regarding autoregulation of local blood flow, which of the following statements is CORRECT:
Your Answer: An increase in blood flow dilutes locally produced vasodilating factors causing vasoconstriction.
Explanation:Autoregulation is the ability to maintain a constant blood flow despite variations in blood pressure (between 50 – 170 mmHg). It is particularly important in the brain, kidney and heart. There are two main methods contributing to autoregulation:
The myogenic mechanism involves arterial constriction in response to stretching of the vessel wall, probably due to activation of smooth muscle stretch-activated Ca2+channels and Ca2+entry. A reduction in pressure and stretch closes these channels, causing vasodilation.
The second mechanism of autoregulation is due to locally produced vasodilating factors; an increase in blood flow dilutes these factors causing vasoconstriction, whereas decreased blood flow has the opposite effect. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 15
Correct
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After collapsing in his nursing home, a 70-year-old man is brought into the ER. He is a known case of diabetes mellitus and is on medication for it. An RBS of 2.5 mmol/L (3.9-5.5 mmol/L) is recorded in the ER.
Out of the following, which medication for diabetes mellitus is MOST likely responsible for his hypoglycaemic episode?Your Answer: Pioglitazone
Explanation:Pioglitazone is used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus. It selectively stimulates the nuclear receptor peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor gamma (PPAR-γ) and to a lesser extent PPAR-α.
Of the medications mentioned in this question, only pioglitazone is a recognized cause of hypoglycaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 16
Correct
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All of the following predisposes to lithium toxicity in patients taking long-term therapy EXCEPT:
Your Answer: Hypernatraemia
Explanation:A common complication of long term lithium therapy results in most cases of lithium intoxication. It is caused by reduced excretion of the drug which can be due to several factors including deterioration of renal function, dehydration, hyponatraemia, infections, and co-administration of diuretics or NSAIDs or other drugs that may interact.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Central Nervous System
- Pharmacology
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Question 17
Correct
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A 50-year-old man managed by the renal team for stage 4 chronic kidney disease which appears to be deteriorating presents with a history of shortness of breath and ankle oedema. His most recent blood tests shows low calcium levels.
Which of these increases the renal reabsorption of calcium?Your Answer: Parathyroid hormone
Explanation:Parathyroid hormone (PTH), a polypeptide containing 84 amino acids, is the principal hormone that controls free calcium in the body.
Its main actions are:
Increases osteoclastic activity
Increases plasma calcium concentration
Decreases renal phosphate reabsorption
Decreases plasma phosphate concentration
Increases renal tubular reabsorption of calcium
Increases calcium and phosphate absorption in the small intestine
Increases renal conversion of 25-hydroxycholecalciferol to 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine Physiology
- Physiology
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Question 18
Correct
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A 6-year-old child presents with profuse watery diarrhoea and dehydration.
Which of the following statements is considered correct regarding infective diarrhoea?Your Answer: E.Coli can cause diarrhoea and renal failure
Explanation:E. coli may cause several different gastrointestinal syndromes. Based on virulence factors, clinical manifestation, epidemiology, and different O and H serotypes, there are five major categories of diarrheagenic E. coli, enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC), enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC), enteropathogenic E. coli (EPEC), enterohemorrhagic E. coli (EHEC), and enteroadherent, which includes diffusely adherent E. coli (DAEC) and enteroaggregative E. coli (EAEC). These five categories are sometimes
collectively referred to as enterovirulent E. coli or diarrheagenic E. coli.Norwalk virus is part of the Caliciviridae family of viruses which are single-stranded RNA viruses and are the most common cause of infectious gastroenteritis in the US.
Rotaviruses are the most common cause of viral gastroenteritis
in infants and children. With the introduction in 2006 of a human-bovine rotavirus vaccine (RV5; RotaTeq, Merck), a delay in the onset of rotavirus
season was seen. RotaTeq is a series of three oral vaccines beginning at 6 to 12 weeks of age. A second vaccine, Rotarix (RV1; GlaxoSmithKline, Middlesex, England), was approved in June 2008.Cryptosporidium causes an illness characterized by abdominal cramping, watery diarrhoea, vomiting, fever, and anorexia. This organism is resistant to chlorine, so public swimming pools can be the source of an outbreak.
G. lamblia has a worldwide distribution and has frequently been identified as the causative agent of outbreaks of gastroenteritis and traveller’s diarrhoea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Specific Pathogen Groups
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Question 19
Correct
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A 60-year-old patient had a sudden onset of palpitations and shortness of breath. He had a history of poorly controlled hypertension and ischemic heart disease. His ECG also shows atrial fibrillation. Based on the patient’s condition, which pharmacologic cardioversion would be best to use?
Your Answer: Amiodarone
Explanation:Chemical cardioversion, or pharmacologic cardioversion, is the treatment of abnormal heart rhythms using drugs.
Flecainide and propafenone are examples of drugs used as chemical cardioverters.
However, given the situation of the patient, these drugs are contraindicated for his ischaemic heart disease. Amiodarone is also an antiarrhythmic drug and is the best choice for this situation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Pharmacology
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Question 20
Correct
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A 40-year-old male presents to your clinic complaining of a cough with bloody sputum for the past three months. He has also had fever, night sweats, and has noticed some weight loss over the past three months.
Which ONE of the following statements regarding this disease is correct?Your Answer: It can be diagnosed using the Ziehl-Neelson stain
Explanation:Tuberculosis is an infection caused by the microorganism Mycobacterium tuberculosis. TB can affect any organ system in the body, but it most commonly affects the lungs, followed by the lymph nodes.
Option Tuberculosis is spread by the faecal-oral route: It is spread by inhalation of droplet nuclei.
There are different methods to diagnose a tuberculosis infection.
1) Direct Microscopy: The organisms are visualised using Ziehl-Neelsen or Auramine staining. This is the quickest method to establish a diagnosis and start treatment.
2) Culture: M. tuberculosis can be grown on Lowenstein-Jensen or Ogawa mediums, but it can take up to 8 weeks; therefore, ZN staining is also performed to start treatment immediately.Option There are several types of vaccine currently available: The BCG vaccine is the only vaccine approved to prevent TB and is administered at birth.
Option Miliary tuberculosis refers to tuberculosis that affects the spine: Miliary tuberculosis refers to a tuberculosis infection disseminated throughout the body’s organ systems via the blood or lymphatics. Pott’s disease is extrapulmonary TB that affects the spine. It usually affects the lower thoracic and upper lumbar regions.
Option A Ghon focus typically appears at the apex of a lung: The Ghon focus is a primary sign of TB that forms in the lung of previously unaffected patients. It typically occurs in the mid or lower zones of the lung.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Specific Pathogen Groups
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Question 21
Correct
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A 70-year-old woman presents with exacerbation of her chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), increased cough, wheeze and chest tightness. On examination, she is tachypnoeic and oxygen saturation is 86%. You plan to administer supplemental oxygen.
Which oxygen delivery system is most appropriate to use initially?Your Answer: Venturi mask
Explanation:In life-threatening emergencies, oxygen should be started immediately otherwise, it should be prescribed like any other drug. The prescription should include a target saturation range.
Until blood gases can be measured, initial oxygen should be administered using a controlled concentration of 24% or 28%.
The ideal mask is a Venturi mask.The other mask are not ideal for initial use
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
- Respiratory Pharmacology
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Question 22
Correct
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A young female was diagnosed with a urinary tract infection and was sent home with medications. However, after 48 hours of discharge, she returned to the hospital because there had been no relief from her symptoms. She is pregnant in her second trimester.
The urine sensitivity test report is still unavailable. Fresh blood tests were sent, and her estimated GFR is calculated to be >60 ml/minute.
She was prescribed nitrofurantoin 100 mg modified-release orally twice a day for two days.
Out of the following, which antibiotic is most appropriate to be prescribed to this patient?Your Answer: Cefalexin
Explanation:The NICE guidelines for pregnant women with lower UTIs are:
1. Prescribe an antibiotic immediately, taking into account the previous urine culture and susceptibility results or avoiding past antibiotics that may have caused resistance
2. Obtain a midstream urine sample before starting antibiotics and send for urine culture and susceptibility
– Review the choice of antibiotic when the results are available
– change the antibiotic according to susceptibility results if the bacteria are resistant, using a narrow-spectrum antibiotic wherever possibleThe first choice of antibiotics for pregnant women aged 12 years and over is:
1. Nitrofurantoin
100 mg modified-release PO BD for 3 days – if eGFR >45 ml/minuteThe second-choice (no improvement in lower UTI symptoms on first-choice for at least 48 hours, or when first-choice is not suitable) are:
1. Amoxicillin
500 mg PO TDS for seven days (ONLY if culture results available and susceptible)
2. Cefalexin
500 mg BD for seven days
Alternative second-choices – consult local microbiologist, choose antibiotics based on culture and sensitivity results -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infections
- Pharmacology
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Question 23
Correct
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A young 20-year-old boy is a known case of type I diabetes mellitus. Today, he presents with polyuria, polydipsia, and abdominal pain in the emergency department. His blood sugar is drawn, which is markedly elevated to 7 mmol/L. Quick ABGs are drawn, which show metabolic acidosis. You diagnose the patient to be suffering from diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) and immediately commence its treatment protocol in which insulin is also administered.
Out of the following, which parameter is MOST likely to change due to initiating insulin?Your Answer: Potassium
Explanation:Diabetes ketoacidosis is an acute complication of diabetes mellitus. Insulin is administered to achieve euglycemia, and crystalloids or colloidal solution is administered to achieve euvolemia and euelectrolytaemia.
Potassium levels severely fluctuate during the treatment of DKA, hypokalaemia being more common. Insulin promotes the cell to take up potassium from the extracellular space via increased sodium-potassium pump activity.
It is important to monitor potassium levels during the treatment of DKA regularly. It is widely suggested that the normal saline shall be used for initial resuscitation, and once the potassium level is retrieved, the patient can be started on potassium replacement should the serum potassium level be between 3.3 and 4.5 mmol/L
If potassium levels fall below 3.3 mmol/l, insulin administration may need to be interrupted to correct the hypokalaemia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 24
Correct
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For the treatment of his atrial fibrillation, a 67-year-old man is about to begin taking warfarin. He also takes a number of other medications.
Which of the following medications will prevent warfarin from working?Your Answer: Phenytoin
Explanation:Many medications, including warfarin, require cytochrome P450 enzymes for their metabolism. When co-prescribing cytochrome p450 enzyme inducers and inhibitors with warfarin, it’s critical to be cautious.
Inhibitors of the cytochrome p450 enzyme inhibit the effects of warfarin, resulting in a lower INR. To remember the most commonly encountered cytochrome p450 enzyme inducers, use the mnemonic PC BRASS:
P– Phenytoin
C– Carbamazepine
B– Barbiturates
R– Rifampicin
A– Alcohol (chronic ingestion)
S– Sulphonylureas
S– Smoking -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 25
Correct
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A 15-year-old male is admitted to a rehabilitation centre with a history of multiple strokes, myopathy and learning disabilities since childhood. He is under the care of a multidisciplinary team, and his genetic testing reports show the presence of a mitochondrial disorder.
Which one of the following diseases does this patient most likely have?Your Answer: MELAS
Explanation:Mitochondrial diseases are a group of disorders caused by dysfunctional mitochondria. Most cases are maternally inherited, as we inherit our mitochondrial DNA from our mothers only, although mutations in nuclear DNA cause some cases.
Examples of Mitochondrial Diseases include:
1. Mitochondrial encephalomyopathy, lactic acidosis and stroke-like episodes (MELAS)
2. Mitochondrial epilepsy with ragged red fibres (MERRF)
3. Leber’s hereditary optic neuropathy (LHON)
4. Diabetes mellitus and deafness (DAD)
5. Neuropathy, ataxia, retinitis pigmentosa, and ptosis (NARP)
6. Leigh syndrome (subacute sclerosing encephalopathy).Red-green colour blindness and G6PD deficiency have an X-linked recessive pattern of inheritance.
Tay-Sachs Disease and spinal muscular atrophy have an autosomal recessive pattern of inheritance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Pathology
- Pathology
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Question 26
Correct
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Gastrin primarily acts to perform which of the following functions:
Your Answer: Stimulate gastric acid secretion
Explanation:Gastrin primarily  acts to stimulate acid secretion from parietal cells (both directly and indirectly by stimulating release of histamine from ECL cells).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Physiology
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Question 27
Correct
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The Frank-Starling curve is shifted downhill in heart failure due to which of the following?
Your Answer: Decrease in contractility
Explanation:The Frank–Starling mechanism states that the left ventricle can increase its force of contraction and hence stroke volume in response to increases in venous return and thus preload.
Changes in afterload or inotropy cause the Frank–Starling curve to rise or fall. In heart failure, the Frank–Starling curve is shifted downward (flattened), requiring higher venous return and filling pressure to enhance contractility and stroke volume.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 28
Correct
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Question 29
Correct
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A 21-year-old student presents with fever, headache, malaise, fatigue, and muscle aches after returning from a trip to India. A diagnosis of malaria was suspected.
Which of the following statements is considered correct regarding malaria?Your Answer: Haemoglobinuria and renal failure following treatment is suggestive of Plasmodium falciparum
Explanation:Malaria results from infection with single-celled parasites belonging to the Plasmodium genus. Five species of Plasmodium are known to cause disease in humans: P. falciparum, P. vivax, P. ovale, P. malariae, and P. knowlesi.
Chloroquine remains the mainstay of treatment for uncomplicated vivax malaria.
The female Anopheles mosquito serves as the biologic vector and definitive host.
A complication of infection with P. falciparum is blackwater fever, a condition characterized by haemoglobinuria.
Plasmodium ovale has the longest incubation period, which can be up to 40 days. Plasmodium falciparum has a shorter incubation period of 7-14 days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Specific Pathogen Groups
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Question 30
Correct
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A 24-year-old female visits her family physician to complain of painless lumps in her neck. Her physician notes several enlarged, rubbery, non-tender cervical lymph nodes on examination. He immediately refers the patient for a lymph node biopsy, the results of which show the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells.
What is the diagnosis in this case based on the above scenario?Your Answer: Hodgkin’s lymphoma
Explanation:The presence of Reed-Sternberg cells is pathognomonic for Hodgkin’s Lymphoma, which is a disease-causing neoplastic transformation of lymphocytes. There is a bimodal age distribution with peaks in the 20s and 60s. Patients typically present with enlarged, rubbery, non-tender lymph nodes. Symptoms such as fever, night sweats and weight loss may be present.
Pain after alcohol consumption is a pathognomonic sign of Hodgkin’s lymphoma, it is, however, not a ‘B’ symptom. It is rare though, only occurring in 2-3% of patients with Hodgkin’s lymphoma.
The Ann Arbour clinical staging is as follows:
Stage I: one involved lymph node group
Stage II two involved lymph node groups on one side of the diaphragm
Stage III: lymph node groups involved on both sides of the diaphragm
Stage IV: Involvement of extra-nodal tissues, such as the liver or bone marrow
Diagnosis is made by lymph node biopsy, which should be taken from a sufficiently large specimen or excisional biopsy, as opposed to a fine needle biopsy.Multiple myeloma most commonly presents with bone pain, especially in the back and ribs.
In non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma, Reed-Sternberg cells are not present.
Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia will present with features of anaemia, thrombocytopenia and leukopenia.
The most common symptoms of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia are fatigue, night sweats and low-grade fever.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
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