00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
Retry this test Dashboard

  • Question 1 - A patient with profuse watery diarrhoea was found to have C. difficile cytotoxin....

    Correct

    • A patient with profuse watery diarrhoea was found to have C. difficile cytotoxin. Which of the following complications is NOT a typical complication of pseudomembranous colitis:

      Your Answer: Volvulus

      Explanation:

      Dehydration, electrolyte imbalance, acute kidney injury secondary to diarrhoea, toxic megacolon, bowel perforation, and sepsis secondary to intestinal infection are all possible complications of pseudomembranous colitis.

      When the intestine twists around itself and the mesentery that supports it, an obstruction is created. This condition is known as a volvulus. Volvulus is caused by malrotation and other anatomical factors, as well as postoperative abdominal adhesions, and not by Clostridium difficile infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      68.6
      Seconds

  • Question 2 - A 25 year old man presents to the emergency room with abdominal pain,...

    Correct

    • A 25 year old man presents to the emergency room with abdominal pain, vomiting and constipation. A CT scan is done which is suggestive of Meckel's diverticulum. Where does the blood supply of the Meckel's diverticulum originate?

      Your Answer: Superior mesenteric artery

      Explanation:

      Meckel’s diverticulum has certain classic characteristics.
      1. It lies on the antimesenteric border of the middle-to-distal ileum
      2. It is approximately 2 feet proximal to the ileocaecal junction
      3. It appears as a blind-ended tubular outpouching of bowel
      4. It is about 2 inches long,
      5. It occurs in about 2% of the population,
      6. It may contain two types of ectopic tissue (gastric and pancreatic).
      7. The diverticulum is supplied by the superior mesenteric artery.
      8. Proximal to the major duodenal papilla the duodenum is supplied by the gastroduodenal artery (branch of the coeliac trunk)
      9. Distal to the major duodenal papilla it is supplied by the inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery (branch of superior mesenteric artery).
      10. The arterial supply to the jejunoileum is from the superior mesenteric artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      45.3
      Seconds

  • Question 3 - Which of the following body location is the appropriate site to apply pressure...

    Correct

    • Which of the following body location is the appropriate site to apply pressure when performing a carotid sinus massage?

      Your Answer: Thyroid cartilage

      Explanation:

      The common carotid artery runs through the neck and divides into internal and external carotid arteries on both sides near the upper thyroid cartilage. In emergency situations, carotid sinus massage is also used to diagnose or treat paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia.

      During the procedure, to maximize access to the carotid artery, the patient is put in a supine position with the neck extended (i.e. elevating the chin away from the chest). The carotid sinus is normally positioned inferior to the angle of the jaw, near the arterial impulse, at the level of the thyroid cartilage. For 5 to 10 seconds, pressure is administered to one carotid sinus.

      Although pulsatile pressure applied in a vigorous circular motion may be more effective, continuous pressure is preferred since it is more reproducible. If the predicted reaction is not obtained, the operation is repeated on the opposite side after a one- to two-minute wait.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      3328.9
      Seconds

  • Question 4 - A 29-year-old man has been complaining about his recent headaches. Detailed history was...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old man has been complaining about his recent headaches. Detailed history was taken and a neurological examination was performed.

      Which of the following cranial nerves is correctly paired with its lesion?

      Your Answer: The oculomotor nerve: the eye appears to look ‘down and out’

      Explanation:

      The following are the lesions of the cranial nerves:
      1. Olfactory nerve (I)
      Reduced taste and smell, but not to ammonia which stimulates the pain fibres carried in the trigeminal nerve

      2. Optic nerve (II)
      Manifested by visual field defects, pupillary abnormalities, optic neuritis, optic atrophy, papilledema

      3. Oculomotor nerve (III)
      A fixed, dilated pupil which doesn’t accommodate, ptosis, complete internal ophthalmoplegia (masked by ptosis), unopposed lateral rectus causes outward deviation of the eye. If the ocular sympathetic fibres are also affected behind the orbit, the pupil will be fixed but not dilated.

      4. Trochlear nerve (IV)
      Diplopia due to weakness of downward and inward eye movement. The most common cause of a pure vertical diplopia. The patient tends to compensate by tilting the head away from the affected side.

      5. Trigeminal nerve (V)
      Reduced sensation or dysesthesia over the affected area. Weakness of jaw clenching and side-to-side movement. If there is a lower motor neuron (LMN) lesion, the jaw deviates to the weak side when the mouth is opened. There may be fasciculation of temporalis and masseter.

      6. Abducens nerve (VI)
      Inability to look laterally. The eye is deviated medially because of unopposed action of the medial rectus muscle.

      7. Facial nerve (VII)
      Facial weakness. In an LMN lesion the forehead is paralysed – the final common pathway to the muscles is destroyed; whereas the upper facial muscles are partially spared in an upper motor neurone (UMN) lesion because of alternative pathways in the brainstem. There appear to be different pathways for voluntary and emotional movement. CVAs usually weaken voluntary movement, often sparing involuntary movements (e.g., spontaneous smiling). The much rarer selective loss of emotional movement is called mimic paralysis and is usually due to a frontal or thalamic lesion.

      8. Vestibulocochlear nerve (VIII)
      Unilateral sensorineural deafness, tinnitus. Slow-growing lesions seldom present with vestibular symptoms as compensation has time to occur.

      9. Glossopharyngeal nerve (IX)
      Unilateral lesions do not cause any deficit because of bilateral corticobulbar connections. Bilateral lesions result in pseudobulbar palsy. These nerves are closely interlinked.

      10. Vagus nerve (X)
      Palatal weakness can cause ‘nasal speech’ and nasal regurgitation of food. The palate moves asymmetrically when the patient says ‘ahh’. Recurrent nerve palsy results in hoarseness, loss of volume and ‘bovine cough’.

      11. Accessory nerve (XI)
      Weakness and wasting of sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles

      12.Hypoglossal nerve (XII)
      An LMN lesion produces wasting of the ipsilateral side of the tongue, with fasciculation; and on attempted protrusion the tongue deviates towards the affected side, but the tongue deviates away from the side of a central lesion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      126.4
      Seconds

  • Question 5 - For which of the following class of drugs can neostigmine be used as...

    Incorrect

    • For which of the following class of drugs can neostigmine be used as a reversal agent?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Non-depolarising muscle relaxants

      Explanation:

      Neostigmine is used specifically for reversal of nondepolarizing (competitive) blockade and is anticholinesterase. It acts within one minute of intravenous injection, and the effects last for 20 to 30 minutes. After this time period, a second dose may then be necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 6 - The following are all examples of type IV hypersensitivity EXCEPT for: ...

    Incorrect

    • The following are all examples of type IV hypersensitivity EXCEPT for:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Extrinsic allergic alveolitis

      Explanation:

      Examples of type IV reactions includes:
      Contact dermatitis
      Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
      Primary biliary cholangitis
      Tuberculin skin test (Mantoux test)
      Chronic transplant rejection
      Granulomatous inflammation (e.g. sarcoidosis, Crohn’s disease)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune Responses
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 7 - A 50-year-old man presents with signs and symptoms of an anaphylactic reaction. His...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents with signs and symptoms of an anaphylactic reaction. His GP had recently given him a new medication.

      Which one of these is the most likely medication responsible for the drug-induced anaphylactic reaction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Penicillin

      Explanation:

      The most common cause of drug-induced anaphylaxis is penicillin.

      The second commonest cause are NSAIDs. Other drugs associated with anaphylaxis are ACE inhibitors and aspirin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 8 - Which of the following ions is more abundant in extracellular fluid than in...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following ions is more abundant in extracellular fluid than in intracellular fluid:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cl -

      Explanation:

      Protein and phosphate are the primary intracellular anions, while chloride (Cl-) and bicarbonate are the predominant extracellular anions (HCO3-).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 9 - All of the following are actions of insulin except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following are actions of insulin except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased gluconeogenesis

      Explanation:

      Major Actions of Insulin:
      ↑ Glucose uptake into cells
      ↑ Glycogenesis
      ↓ Glycogenolysis
      ↓ Gluconeogenesis
      ↑ Protein synthesis
      ↓ Protein degradation
      ↑ Fat deposition
      ↓ Lipolysis
      ↓ Ketoacid production
      ↑ K+ uptake into cells

      Major Actions of Glucagon:
      ↓ Glycogenesis
      ↑ Glycogenolysis
      ↑ Gluconeogenesis
      ↓ Fatty acid synthesis
      ↑ Lipolysis
      ↑ Ketoacid production

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 10 - A 30-year-old patient has a mild exacerbation of his asthma. His steroid inhaler...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old patient has a mild exacerbation of his asthma. His steroid inhaler ran out a couple of weeks ago, and he has not replaced it.

      Which of these statements describes the mechanism of action of corticosteroids in asthma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reduction of bronchial inflammation

      Explanation:

      Inhaled corticosteroids suppresses airway inflammation seen in asthma by downregulating pro-inflammatory proteins.
      They also appear to reverse components of asthma-induced structural changes (airway remodelling), including increased vascularity of the bronchial wall.
      Corticosteroids reduces the number of inflammatory cells (eosinophils, T lymphocytes, mast cells, and dendritic cells) in the airways.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      • Respiratory Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 11 - A patient presents with a history of excessive thirst, urination and high fluid...

    Incorrect

    • A patient presents with a history of excessive thirst, urination and high fluid intake. His blood sugar is normal. You estimate his osmolarity as part of his work-up.

      Which of these equations can be used to estimate osmolarity?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2 (Na + ) + 2 (K + ) + Glucose + Urea

      Explanation:

      Osmolality and osmolarity are measurements of the solute concentration of a solution. Although the two terms are often used interchangeably, there are differences in the definitions, how they are calculated and the units of measurement used.

      Osmolarity, expressed as mmol/L, is an estimation of the osmolar concentration of plasma. It is proportional to the number of particles per litre of solution.
      Measured Na+, K+, urea and glucose concentrations are used to calculate the value indirectly.
      It is unreliable in pseudohyponatremia and hyperproteinaemia.

      The equations used to calculate osmolarity are:
      Osmolarity = 2 (Na+) + 2 (K+) + Glucose + Urea (all in mmol/L)
      OR
      Osmolarity = 2 (Na+) + Glucose + Urea (all in mmol/L)

      Doubling of sodium accounts for the negative ions associated with sodium, and the exclusion of potassium approximately allows for the incomplete dissociation of sodium chloride.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular Physiology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 12 - Which of the following virulence factors of E. coli is important for attachment...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following virulence factors of E. coli is important for attachment to host epithelial cells in the pathogenesis of urinary tract infections:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pili

      Explanation:

      Escherichia coli is the most common cause of urinary tract infection. Uropathic strains are characterised by pili with adhesion proteins that bind to specific receptors on the urinary tract epithelium. The motility of E. coli aids its ability to ascend the urethra into the bladder or ascend the ureter into the kidney.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 13 - A patient is diagnosed as having a glucagonoma. Her blood serum glucagon concentration...

    Incorrect

    • A patient is diagnosed as having a glucagonoma. Her blood serum glucagon concentration is 1246 pg/mL.
      Glucagon is produced in which of the following cells? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alpha-cells in the pancreas

      Explanation:

      Glucagon is a peptide hormone that is produced and secreted by alpha cells of the islets of Langerhans, which are located in the endocrine portion of the pancreas. The main physiological role of glucagon is to stimulate hepatic glucose output, thereby leading to increases in glycaemia. It provides the major counter-regulatory mechanism to insulin in maintaining glucose homeostasis.
      Hypoglycaemia is the principal stimulus for the secretion of glucagon but may also be used as an antidote in beta-blocker overdose and in anaphylaxis in patients on beta-blockers that fail to respond to adrenaline.
      Glucagon then causes:
      Glycogenolysis
      Gluconeogenesis
      Lipolysis in adipose tissue
      The secretion of glucagon is also stimulated by:
      Adrenaline
      Cholecystokinin
      Arginine
      Alanine
      Acetylcholine
      The secretion of glucagon is inhibited by:
      Insulin
      Somatostatin
      Increased free fatty acids
      Increased urea production

      Glycolysis is the metabolic pathway that converts glucose into pyruvate. The free energy released by this process is used to form ATP and NADH. Glycolysis is inhibited by glucagon, and glycolysis and gluconeogenesis are reciprocally regulated so that when one cell pathway is activated, the other is inactive and vice versa.

      Glucagon has a minor effect of enhancing lipolysis in adipose tissue. Lipolysis is the breakdown of lipids and involves the hydrolysis of triglycerides into glycerol and free fatty acids. It makes fatty acids available for oxidation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 14 - Which of the following risk ratios indicates no difference in risk between two groups:...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following risk ratios indicates no difference in risk between two groups:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1

      Explanation:

      A risk ratio of 1 indicates no difference in risk between groups.If the risk ratio of an event is > 1, the rate of that event is increased in the exposed group compared to the control group.If the risk ratio is < 1, the rate of that event is reduced in the exposed group compared to the control group.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      • Statistics
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 15 - Which of the following acts to inhibit antidiuretic hormone (ADH) release from the...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following acts to inhibit antidiuretic hormone (ADH) release from the posterior pituitary:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atrial natriuretic peptide

      Explanation:

      ADH release is inhibited by low plasma osmolality, alcohol, caffeine, glucocorticoids and atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP).

      ADH release is stimulated primarily by raised plasma osmolality detected by osmoreceptors in the anterior hypothalamus. Other factors that increase ADH release include: extracellular fluid volume depletion, angiotensin II, nausea, pain, stress, exercise, emotion, hypoglycaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 16 - A 25-year-old patient requires procedural sedation for reduction of an open fracture of...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old patient requires procedural sedation for reduction of an open fracture of his tibia and fibula. You plan on using ketamine as the sedative agent.
      Ketamine works as a result of action on what type of receptor? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA)

      Explanation:

      Ketamine is the only anaesthetic agent available that has analgesic, hypnotic, and amnesic properties. When used correctly it is a very useful and versatile drug.
      Ketamine acts by non-competitive antagonism of the NMDA receptor Ca2+ channel pore and also inhibits NMDA receptor activity by interaction with the phencyclidine binding site.
      Ketamine can be used intravenously and intramuscularly. The intramuscular dose is 10 mg/kg, and when used by this route, it acts within 2-8 minutes and has a duration of action of 10-20 minutes. The intravenous dose is 1.5-2 mg/kg administered over a period of 60 seconds. When used intravenously, it acts within 30 seconds and has a duration of action of 5-10 minutes. Ketamine is also effective when administered orally, rectally, and nasally.
      Ketamine causes tachycardia, an increase in blood pressure, central venous pressure, and cardiac output, secondary to an increase in sympathetic tone. Baroreceptor function is well maintained, and arrhythmias are uncommon.
      The main disadvantage to the use of ketamine is the high incidence of hallucinations, nightmares, and other transient psychotic effects. These can be reduced by the co-administration of a benzodiazepine, such as diazepam or midazolam.
      The main side effects of ketamine are:
      Nausea and vomiting
      Hypertension
      Nystagmus
      Diplopia
      Rash

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 17 - A p value < 0.05 obtained from a study with a significance level...

    Incorrect

    • A p value < 0.05 obtained from a study with a significance level (α) of 0.05, means all of the following, EXCEPT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: the result is clinically significant.

      Explanation:

      A p value < 0.05:is statistically significantmeans that the probability of obtaining a given result by chance is less than 1 in 20means the null hypothesis is rejectedmeans there is evidence of an association between a variable and an outcomeNote that this does not tell us whether the result is clinically significant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      • Statistics
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 18 - A 25-year-old man suffers from a shoulder injury that damaged the nerve that...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man suffers from a shoulder injury that damaged the nerve that innervates the infraspinatus muscle.

      Which of the following nerves may most likely be affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The suprascapular nerve

      Explanation:

      The suprascapular nerve (C5-C6) innervates the infraspinatus. It originates at the superior trunk of the brachial plexus. It runs laterally across the lateral cervical region to supply the infraspinatus and also the supraspinatus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 19 - A patient who shows symptoms of infection and is admitted under supervision of...

    Incorrect

    • A patient who shows symptoms of infection and is admitted under supervision of the medical team. The organism which caused this, is a Gram-negative bacterium, according to the culture. A penicillin therapy is suggested by the microbiologist.

      Which of the penicillins listed below is the most effective against Gram-negative bacteria?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amoxicillin

      Explanation:

      Amoxicillin and Ampicillin are more hydrophilic (broad-spectrum) penicillins than benzylpenicillin and phenoxymethylpenicillin. Because they may penetrate through gaps in the outer phospholipid membrane, they are effective against Gram-negative bacteria. Amoxicillin and Ampicillin are resistant to penicillinase-producing microbes.

      Community-acquired pneumonia, otitis media, sinusitis, oral infections, and urinary tract infections are among the most prevalent conditions for which they are prescribed. The normal adult oral dose of Amoxicillin is 500 mg three times/day, which can be increased to 1 g three times/day if necessary. Ampicillin is given to adults in doses of 0.5-1 g every 6 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 20 - You examine a 43-year-old woman who was referred to you by a friend....

    Incorrect

    • You examine a 43-year-old woman who was referred to you by a friend. She suffers from a variety of medical conditions and takes a variety of medications, including amitriptyline.

      Which of the following is NOT a contraindication to amitriptyline treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Breastfeeding

      Explanation:

      Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) that is most commonly used to treat depression, but it can also be used to treat anxiety disorders, chronic pain, and attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). It inhibits reuptake, raising serotonin and noradrenaline levels while also inhibiting acetylcholine action.

      TCAs have a number of drawbacks, including:
      Acute Porphyria
      Arrhythmias
      During bipolar disorder’s manic phase
      Heart block
      After a myocardial infarction, there is an immediate recovery period.

      TCA levels in breast milk are too low to be harmful, and use can be continued while breastfeeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • CNS Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 21 - A 19-year-old woman presents with dysuria and vaginal discharge. A swab was taken...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old woman presents with dysuria and vaginal discharge. A swab was taken for culture. Culture results showed the presence of Neisseria gonorrhoeae infection. Treatment of azithromycin and doxycycline was started.

      Which of the following statements is considered correct regarding Neisseria gonorrhoeae?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Throat swabs can be used for diagnosis

      Explanation:

      Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a Gram-negative diplococcus that causes gonorrhoea. Gonorrhoea is an acute pyogenic infection of nonciliated columnar and transitional epithelium; infection can be established at any site where these cells are found. Gonococcal infections are primarily acquired by sexual contact and occur primarily in the urethra, endocervix, anal canal, pharynx, and conjunctiva.

      In men, acute urethritis, usually resulting in purulent discharge and dysuria (painful urination), is the most common manifestation. The endocervix is the most common site of infection in women. Symptoms of infection, when present, include dysuria, cervical discharge, and lower abdominal pain. Some cases in women may be asymptomatic leading to complications such as pelvic inflammatory disease. Blood-borne dissemination occurs in less than 1% of all infections, resulting in purulent arthritis and rarely septicaemia. Fever and a rash on the extremities can also be present. Other conditions associated with N. gonorrhoeae include anorectal and oropharyngeal infections. Infections in these sites are more common in men who have sex with men but can also occur in women.

      Pharyngitis is the chief complaint in symptomatic oropharyngeal infections, whereas discharge, rectal pain, or bloody stools may be seen in rectal gonorrhoea. Approximately 30% to 60% of women with genital gonorrhoea have concurrent rectal infection. Newborns can acquire ophthalmia neonatorum, a gonococcal eye infection, during vaginal delivery through an infected birth canal.

      Specimens collected for the recovery of N. gonorrhoeae may come from genital sources or from other sites, such as the rectum, pharynx, and joint
      fluid. According to the 2010 STD Treatment guidelines, cephalosporins (e.g., ceftriaxone, cefixime) are currently recommended treatments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 22 - Which of the following presentations is NOT consistent with the diagnosis of anaphylaxis...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following presentations is NOT consistent with the diagnosis of anaphylaxis following exposure to a known allergen:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Generalised urticaria and angioedema alone

      Explanation:

      Anaphylaxis is characterised by sudden onset and rapidly developing, life-threatening airway, breathing and circulation problems associated with skin and/or mucosal changes. Reactions can vary greatly, from hypotension alone, to reactions with predominantly asthmatic features, to cardiac/respiratory arrest. Skin or mucosal changes may be absent or subtle in up to 20% of cases but skin or mucosal changes alone are not a sign of an anaphylactic reaction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 23 - A 54-year-old man who is acutely unwell has his blood sent for test...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man who is acutely unwell has his blood sent for test and the results come back with a CRP of 115.

      Which of these statements about C-reactive protein is FALSE?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is produced in the bone marrow

      Explanation:

      C-reactive protein(CRP) is synthesized in the liver in response to increased interleukin-6 (IL-6) secretion by macrophages and T-cells.
      Some conditions that cause CRP levels to a rise include: bacterial infection, fungal infection, severe trauma, autoimmune disease, Organ tissue necrosis, malignancy and surgery.

      It is useful in the clinical setting as a marker of inflammatory activity and can be used to monitor infections.

      CRP levels start to rise 4-6 hours after an inflammatory trigger and reaches peak levels at 36-50 hours.

      In the absence of a disease process, the normal plasma concentration is less than 5 mg/l.

      CRP is useful for monitoring inflammatory conditions (e.g. rheumatoid arthritis and malignancy), can be used as a prognostic marker in acute pancreatitis, and serial measurement can be used to recognize the onset of nosocomial infections in the intensive care settling.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 24 - A 67-year-old man complains of chest pain and goes to the emergency room....

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man complains of chest pain and goes to the emergency room. He takes several medications, including amiodarone.

      Which of the following is amiodarone mechanism of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Blocks Na + and K + channels and beta-adrenoreceptors in the heart

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone is an anti-arrhythmic medication that can be used to treat both ventricular and atrial arrhythmias. It’s a class III anti-arrhythmic that works by blocking a variety of channels, including Na+ and K+ channels, as well as beta-adrenoreceptors. As a result, it slows conduction through the SA and AV nodes and prolongs phase 3 of the cardiac action potential (slowing repolarisation).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 25 - The most important nerves for inversion of the foot are: ...

    Incorrect

    • The most important nerves for inversion of the foot are:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tibial and deep fibular nerve

      Explanation:

      Inversion of the foot is achieved by the tibialis anterior which is innervated by the deep fibular nerves, and the tibialis posterior muscles which is innervated by the tibial nerve respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 26 - A dermatological examination on a patient presenting with a lump shows a small...

    Incorrect

    • A dermatological examination on a patient presenting with a lump shows a small visible skin elevation containing an accumulation of pus.

      Which one of these best describes the lump you have found on examination?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pustule

      Explanation:

      A pustule is a small visible skin elevation containing an accumulation of pus.

      A carbuncle is a collection of individual boils clustered together.

      A bulla is a visible collection of clear fluid measuring greater than 0.5 cm in diameter.

      A furuncle, or boil, is a pyogenic infection of the hair follicle commonly caused by infection with Staphylococcus aureus.

      A vesicle is a visible collection of fluid measuring less than 0.5 cm in diameter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 27 - The neurotransmitter in the synaptic cleft is either eliminated or deactivated after the...

    Incorrect

    • The neurotransmitter in the synaptic cleft is either eliminated or deactivated after the postsynaptic cell responds to the neurotransmitter.

      Which of the following enzymes catalyses the breakdown of noradrenaline?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT)

      Explanation:

      The neurotransmitter in the synaptic cleft is either eliminated or deactivated after the post-synaptic cell responds to the neurotransmitter.

      This can be accomplished in a variety of ways:
      Re-uptake
      Breakdown
      Diffusion

      Serotonin is an example of a neurotransmitter that is uptake. Serotonin is absorbed back into the presynaptic neuron via the serotonin transporter (SERT), which is found in the presynaptic membrane. Re-uptake neurotransmitters are either recycled by repackaging into vesicles or broken down by enzymes.
      Specific enzymes found in the synaptic cleft can also break down neurotransmitters. The following enzymes are examples of these enzymes:
      Acetylcholinesterase (AChE) catalyses the acetylcholine breakdown (ACh)
      The enzyme catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT) catalyses the breakdown of catecholamines like adrenaline , dopamine and noradrenaline.

      The breakdown of catecholamines, as well as other monoamines like serotonin, tyramine, and tryptamine, is catalysed by monoamine oxidases (MOA).
      Diffusion of neurotransmitters into nearby locations can also be used to eliminate them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular Physiology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 28 - Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding potassium replacement? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding potassium replacement?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral potassium supplements are often required for patients taking spironolactone.

      Explanation:

      It is very seldom that potassium supplements are required with the small doses of diuretics given to treat hypertension. Potassium-sparing diuretics like spironolactone (rather than potassium supplements), are recommended for hypokalaemia prevention when diuretics are given to eliminate oedema, such as furosemide or the thiazides.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids And Electrolytes
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 29 - A 30-year old male is brought to the emergency room after a terrible...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year old male is brought to the emergency room after a terrible fall during a photoshoot. The patient reported falling on his right forearm. There is evident swelling and tenderness on the affected area, with notable weakness of the flexor pollicis longus muscle. Radiographic imaging showed a fracture on the midshaft of the right radius.

      Which of the following nerves is most likely injured in the case above?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The anterior interosseous nerve

      Explanation:

      Flexor pollicis longus receives nervous supply from the anterior interosseous branch of median nerve, derived from spinal roots C7 and C8.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 30 - Depression of the eyeball is primarily produced by which of the following muscles: ...

    Incorrect

    • Depression of the eyeball is primarily produced by which of the following muscles:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inferior rectus and superior oblique

      Explanation:

      Depression of the eyeball is produced by the inferior rectus and the superior oblique muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Microbiology (1/1) 100%
Pathogens (1/1) 100%
Abdomen (1/1) 100%
Anatomy (3/3) 100%
Head And Neck (1/1) 100%
Central Nervous System (1/1) 100%
Passmed
Retry this test Dashboard