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  • Question 1 - In a 7-year-old child with chickenpox, which of the following would you advise...

    Incorrect

    • In a 7-year-old child with chickenpox, which of the following would you advise the mother NOT to do?

      Your Answer: Use topical emollients to help ease the itching

      Correct Answer: Give ibuprofen for the fever

      Explanation:

      Chickenpox (varicella zoster) is a highly contagious airborne disease and has an incubation period of between 7-21 days. It often has a prodromal phase when there is a fever, aches and headaches, dry cough, and sore throat before onset of rash.

      Some recognized complications of chickenpox are:
      Orchitis
      Hepatitis
      Pneumonia
      Encephalitis
      Infected spots
      Otitis media
      Myocarditis
      Glomerulonephritis
      Appendicitis
      Pancreatitis

      Treatment is symptomatic and includes using paracetamol to manage fever. There is a link between use of ibuprofen in patients with chicken-pox and necrotizing fasciitis so Ibuprofen should NOT be used.

      An emollient and antihistamine can be used to ease the itchy rash and oral hydration is encouraged.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      46.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A patient with a central line in situ for the past 10...

    Correct

    • A patient with a central line in situ for the past 10 days now has erythema surrounding the catheter insertion site and shows signs of sepsis. You suspect line sepsis.

      Which of these antibacterial agents would be most appropriate to prescribe for this patient?

      Your Answer: Vancomycin

      Explanation:

      The current recommendation by NICE and the BNF is to use vancomycin as first-line in treatment of septicaemia related to vascular catheter. A broad-spectrum antipseudomonal beta-lactam antibiotic should be added to vancomycin if a Gram-negative sepsis is suspected especially in an immunocompromised patient.

      In any patient that has had a central venous catheter in situ for a period longer than a week, it should be suspected as the source of sepsis.

      The features suggesting the vascular catheter as the source of infection include:
      Presence of the catheter before onset of fever.
      The absence of another identifiable source of infection.
      Presence of inflammation or purulent material at the insertion site or along the tunnel.
      An immunocompetent patient without any underlying disease developing bacteraemia (or fungaemia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Principles Of Microbiology
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 60-year-old female is referred to the Oncology clinic due to the presence...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old female is referred to the Oncology clinic due to the presence of lumps in her neck. There is a non-tender enlargement of several groups of cervical lymph nodes on examination. She is sent for a lymph node biopsy. The results show the presence of lymphoma cells, but there are no Reed-Sternberg cells.

      Which one is most appropriate for this case out of the following diagnoses?

      Your Answer: Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma

      Explanation:

      Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma (NHL) causes neoplastic transformation of both B cell (85%) and T cell (15%) lines.

      The most common presentation is with enlarged, rubbery, painless lymph nodes. The patient may also have B symptoms which consist of night sweats, weight loss and fevers. Multiple myeloma most commonly presents with bone pain, especially in the back and ribs.

      The presence of Reed-Sternberg cells characterises Hodgkin’s lymphoma. Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia will present with features of anaemia, thrombocytopenia and leukopenia. The most common symptoms of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia are fatigue, night sweats and low-grade fever.

      The peak incidence of NHL is in the 50-70 years age group, it affects men and women equally, but affects the Caucasian population more commonly than black and Asian ethnic groups.
      The following are recognised risk factors for NHL:
      Chromosomal translocations and molecular rearrangements
      Epstein-Barr virus infection
      Human T-cell leukaemia virus type-1 (HTLV-1)
      Hepatitis C
      Congenital and acquired immunodeficiency states
      Autoimmune disorders, e.g. Sjogren’s syndrome and Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      33.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - You examine an elderly man who is experiencing chest pain. He doesn't recall...

    Correct

    • You examine an elderly man who is experiencing chest pain. He doesn't recall all of his medications, but he does know that he takes a diuretic.

      The enzyme carbonic anhydrase is inhibited by which of the following diuretics?

      Your Answer: Acetazolamide

      Explanation:

      Acetazolamide is a non-competitive, reversible inhibitor of carbonic anhydrase found in the cytosol of cells and on the brush border of the proximal convoluted tubule. Bicarbonate and hydrogen ions are converted to carbonic acid by carbonic anhydrase, which then converts carbonic acid to carbon dioxide and water. As a result, acetazolamide reduces the availability of hydrogen ions, causing sodium and bicarbonate ions to accumulate in the renal tubule, resulting in diuresis.
      The mechanism of action of the various types of diuretics is summarised below:

      1) Loop diuretics, e.g. furosemide, bumetanide
      Act on the Na.K.2Cl co-transporters in the ascending loop of Henlé to inhibit sodium, chloride and potassium reabsorption.

      2) Thiazide diuretics, e.g. Bendroflumethiazide, hydrochlorothiazide
      Act on the Na.Cl co-transporter in the distal convoluted tubule to inhibit sodium and chloride reabsorption.

      3) Osmotic diuretics, e.g. mannitol
      Increases the osmolality of the glomerular filtrate and tubular fluid, increasing urinary volume by an osmotic effect.

      4) Aldosterone antagonists, e.g. spironolactone
      Acts in the distal convoluted tubule as a competitive aldosterone antagonist resulting in inhibition of sodium reabsorption and increasing potassium reabsorption.

      5) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors, e.g. acetazolamide
      Inhibit the enzyme carbonic anhydrase preventing the conversion of bicarbonate and hydrogen ions into carbonic acid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      14.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following clinical features is most suggestive of a lesion of...

    Correct

    • Which of the following clinical features is most suggestive of a lesion of the occipital lobe:

      Your Answer: Homonymous hemianopia

      Explanation:

      Homonymous hemianopia is a visual field defect involving either the two right or the two left halves of the visual fields of both eyes. It is caused by lesions of the retrochiasmal visual pathways, ie, lesions of the optic tract, the lateral geniculate nucleus, the optic radiations, and the cerebral visual (occipital) cortex

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      24.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A patient who shows symptoms of infection and is admitted under supervision of...

    Correct

    • A patient who shows symptoms of infection and is admitted under supervision of the medical team. The organism which caused this, is a Gram-negative bacterium, according to the culture. A penicillin therapy is suggested by the microbiologist.

      Which of the penicillins listed below is the most effective against Gram-negative bacteria?

      Your Answer: Amoxicillin

      Explanation:

      Amoxicillin and Ampicillin are more hydrophilic (broad-spectrum) penicillins than benzylpenicillin and phenoxymethylpenicillin. Because they may penetrate through gaps in the outer phospholipid membrane, they are effective against Gram-negative bacteria. Amoxicillin and Ampicillin are resistant to penicillinase-producing microbes.

      Community-acquired pneumonia, otitis media, sinusitis, oral infections, and urinary tract infections are among the most prevalent conditions for which they are prescribed. The normal adult oral dose of Amoxicillin is 500 mg three times/day, which can be increased to 1 g three times/day if necessary. Ampicillin is given to adults in doses of 0.5-1 g every 6 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      32.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A patient is diagnosed as having a glucagonoma. Her blood serum glucagon concentration...

    Correct

    • A patient is diagnosed as having a glucagonoma. Her blood serum glucagon concentration is 1246 pg/mL.
      Glucagon is produced in which of the following cells? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Alpha-cells in the pancreas

      Explanation:

      Glucagon is a peptide hormone that is produced and secreted by alpha cells of the islets of Langerhans, which are located in the endocrine portion of the pancreas. The main physiological role of glucagon is to stimulate hepatic glucose output, thereby leading to increases in glycaemia. It provides the major counter-regulatory mechanism to insulin in maintaining glucose homeostasis.
      Hypoglycaemia is the principal stimulus for the secretion of glucagon but may also be used as an antidote in beta-blocker overdose and in anaphylaxis in patients on beta-blockers that fail to respond to adrenaline.
      Glucagon then causes:
      Glycogenolysis
      Gluconeogenesis
      Lipolysis in adipose tissue
      The secretion of glucagon is also stimulated by:
      Adrenaline
      Cholecystokinin
      Arginine
      Alanine
      Acetylcholine
      The secretion of glucagon is inhibited by:
      Insulin
      Somatostatin
      Increased free fatty acids
      Increased urea production

      Glycolysis is the metabolic pathway that converts glucose into pyruvate. The free energy released by this process is used to form ATP and NADH. Glycolysis is inhibited by glucagon, and glycolysis and gluconeogenesis are reciprocally regulated so that when one cell pathway is activated, the other is inactive and vice versa.

      Glucagon has a minor effect of enhancing lipolysis in adipose tissue. Lipolysis is the breakdown of lipids and involves the hydrolysis of triglycerides into glycerol and free fatty acids. It makes fatty acids available for oxidation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      21.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which family of receptors does the glucagon receptor belong?
    ...

    Correct

    • Which family of receptors does the glucagon receptor belong?

      Your Answer: G-protein coupled receptors

      Explanation:

      Glucagon binds to class B G-protein coupled receptors and activates adenylate cyclase, increasing cAMP intracellularly.

      This activates protein kinase A. Protein kinase A phosphorylates and activates important enzymes in target cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Regarding cytotoxic T cells, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding cytotoxic T cells, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: They only recognise antigen in associated with HLA class II molecules.

      Correct Answer: They kill target cells by inducing cell apoptosis.

      Explanation:

      CD8+ T-cells (Cytotoxic T cells)
      Recognise antigen only in association with HLA Class I molecules (found on all nucleated cells; present endogenous antigens such as those found in cells infected by viruses or intracellular bacteria.)
      Comprise about 25% of peripheral T-cells
      Responsible for cytotoxic killing of target cells

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune Responses
      • Pathology
      31.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 62-year-old man complains of chest pain and goes to the emergency room....

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old man complains of chest pain and goes to the emergency room. You diagnose him with an acute coronary syndrome and prescribe enoxaparin as part of his treatment plan.

      Enoxaparin inactivates which of the following?

      Your Answer: Thrombin

      Explanation:

      Enoxaparin is a low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) that works in the same way as heparin by binding to and activating the enzyme inhibitor antithrombin III. Antithrombin III inactivates thrombin by forming a 1:1 complex with it. Factor Xa and a few other clotting proteases are also inhibited by the heparin-antithrombin III complex.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      26.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 52-year-old man develops pneumonia 3 days following an admission for investigation of...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old man develops pneumonia 3 days following an admission for investigation of chest pain. He has coarse left basal crackles and evidence of consolidation in the left lower lobe of chest X-ray. He has no known drug allergies.
      According to the latest NICE guidelines, which of the following antibacterial agents would be most appropriate to prescribe in this case? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Co-amoxiclav

      Explanation:

      Nosocomial infections are defined as those occurring within 48 hours of hospital admission, 3 days of discharge or 30 days of an operation. They affect 1 in 10 patients admitted to hospital. Annually, this results in 5000 deaths with a cost to the National Health Service of a billion pounds. On average, a patient with hospital acquired infection spent 2.5-times longer in hospital, incurring additional costs of £3000 more than an uninfected patient. Intensive care units (ICU) have the highest prevalence of hospital-acquired infections in the hospital setting.
      The current recommendations by NICE and the BNF on the treatment of hospital acquired pneumonia are:
      Early onset infection(less than 5 days after admission to hospital): co-amoxiclav or cefuroxime for 7 days
      Late-onset infection(more than 5 days after admission to hospital): an antipseudomonal penicillin (e.g. piperacillin with tazobactam), a broad-spectrum cephalosporin (e.g. ceftazidime), or a quinolone (e.g. ciprofloxacin)
      If the patient developed a hospital-acquired pneumonia within 5 days of admission – co-amoxiclav would be the most appropriate choice.
      If the patient has developed a hospital-acquired pneumonia > 5 days after admission – ciprofloxacin would be the most appropriate choice from the list of options available.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Principles Of Microbiology
      28.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which of the following problems is associated with Helicobacter pylori infection? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following problems is associated with Helicobacter pylori infection?

      Your Answer: Haemolytic uraemic syndrome

      Correct Answer: Gastric malignancy

      Explanation:

      Helicobacter pylori is a ubiquitous organism that is present in about 50% of the global population. Chronic infection with H pylori causes atrophic and even metaplastic changes in the stomach, and it has a known association with peptic ulcer disease. The most common route of H pylori infection is either oral-to-oral or faecal-to-oral contact.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      29.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 30-year-old man presents with piriformis syndrome pain, tingling, and numbness in her...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man presents with piriformis syndrome pain, tingling, and numbness in her buttocks. He noted that the pain gets worse upon sitting down. He was seen by a physiotherapist and a diagnosis of piriformis syndrome was made.

      Which of the following nerves becomes irritated in piriformis syndrome?

      Your Answer: Nerve to piriformis

      Correct Answer: Sciatic nerve

      Explanation:

      Piriformis syndrome is a clinical condition of sciatic nerve entrapment at the level of the ischial tuberosity. While there are multiple factors potentially contributing to piriformis syndrome, the clinical presentation is fairly consistent, with patients often reporting pain in the gluteal/buttock region that may shoot, burn or ache down the back of the leg (i.e. sciatic-like pain). In addition, numbness in the buttocks and tingling sensations along the distribution of the sciatic nerve is not uncommon.

      The sciatic nerve runs just adjacent to the piriformis muscle, which functions as an external rotator of the hip. Hence, whenever the piriformis muscle is irritated or inflamed, it also affects the sciatic nerve, which then results in sciatica-like pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      38.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Nitrous oxide is associated with which of the following adverse effects: ...

    Incorrect

    • Nitrous oxide is associated with which of the following adverse effects:

      Your Answer: Hypotension

      Correct Answer: Megaloblastic anaemia

      Explanation:

      Exposure to nitrous oxide for prolonged periods, either by continuous or by intermittent administration, may result in megaloblastic anaemia as a result of interference with the action of vitamin B12; neurological toxic effects can occur without preceding overt haematological changes. Depression of white cell formation may also occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia
      • Pharmacology
      66.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which JVP waveform correlates to atrial systole? ...

    Correct

    • Which JVP waveform correlates to atrial systole?

      Your Answer: The a wave

      Explanation:

      JVP Waveform in Cardiac Cycle Physiology: a wave Right atrial contraction causes atrial systole (end diastole). the c wave During right isovolumetric ventricular contraction, the tricuspid valve bulges into the right atrium, resulting in isovolumetric contraction (early systole). descent by x Rapid ventricular ejection (mid systole) is caused by a combination of right atrial relaxation, tricuspid valve downward movement during right ventricular contraction, and blood ejection from both ventricles. the v-wave Ventricular ejection and isovolumetric relaxation (late systole) occur as a result of venous return filling the right atrium. y lineage Ventricular filling occurs when the tricuspid valve opens, allowing blood to flow rapidly from the right atrium to the right ventricle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the following microbes binds strongly to CD4 antigen: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following microbes binds strongly to CD4 antigen:

      Your Answer: HIV

      Explanation:

      HIV mainly infects CD4+ T helper cells. Viral replication results in progressive T-cell depletion and impaired cell-mediated immunity with subsequent secondary opportunistic infections and increased risk of malignancy. B-cell function is also reduced as a result of lack of T-cell stimulation.
      HIV is not a notifiable disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Principles
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - When the pulmonary artery is completely blocked, what is the ventilation over perfusion...

    Correct

    • When the pulmonary artery is completely blocked, what is the ventilation over perfusion ratio for the area that it supplies?

      Your Answer: Infinity

      Explanation:

      The ventilation/perfusion ratio (V/Q ratio) is a ratio used to assess the efficiency and adequacy of the matching ventilation and perfusion.

      A pulmonary artery carries deoxygenated blood from the right side of the heart to the lungs. When a large pulmonary embolus completed blocked a pulmonary artery the alveoli were ventilated but not perfused at all, then the V/Q ratio would be infinity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory Physiology
      185.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Pancreatic ductal alkaline fluid secretion is mainly stimulated by which of the following hormones:...

    Correct

    • Pancreatic ductal alkaline fluid secretion is mainly stimulated by which of the following hormones:

      Your Answer: Secretin

      Explanation:

      Pancreatic exocrine secretion is controlled by:
      Parasympathetic stimulation which enhances secretion of both the enzyme and aqueous components
      Sympathetic stimulation which inhibits pancreatic secretion
      Secretin which stimulates secretion of the alkaline-rich fluid from ductal cells
      Cholecystokinin which stimulates secretion of the enzyme-rich fluid from acinar cellsSomatostatin which inhibits secretion from both acinar and ductal cells
      Gastrin which stimulates pancreatic acinar cells to secrete digestive enzymes

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      128.2
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Streptococcus pneumoniae is commonly implicated in all of the following infectious diseases EXCEPT...

    Correct

    • Streptococcus pneumoniae is commonly implicated in all of the following infectious diseases EXCEPT for:

      Your Answer: Impetigo

      Explanation:

      Impetigo is a highly contagious infection of the superficial epidermis that most commonly affects young children but can occur in any age group. In children it is the most common bacterial skin infection and it is the third most common skin disease overall, behind dermatitis and viral warts.
      The commonest causative organism is Staphylococcus aureus. Streptococcus pyogenesis the second commonest and causes fewer cases, either alone or in combination withS. aureus.The streptococcal form tends to be commoner in warmer, more humid climates. (Hirschmann JV. Impetigo: etiology and therapy. Curr Clin Top Infect Dis. 2002;22:42–51.)
      Impetigo is most commonly spread by direct person-to-person contact, and can spread rapidly through families and school classes. It can also, less commonly, be spread by indirect contact.
      There are two main forms of impetigo:
      Non-bullous impetigo – lesions usually start as tiny pustules or vesicles that evolve rapidly into honey-crusted plaques that tend to be under 2 cm in diameter. These can be itchy but are rarely painful.
      Bullous impetigo – lesions have a thin roof and tend to rupture spontaneously. This type is more likely to be painful and may be associated with systemic upset.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Regarding anaemia, which of the following statements is INCORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding anaemia, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer: Children tend to have lower haemoglobin than adults.

      Correct Answer: Anaemia is usually associated with a decrease in red cell 2,3 - DPG.

      Explanation:

      Anaemia is defined as a reduction in haemoglobin concentration below the normal range for the age and sex of the individual. Children tend to have lower haemoglobin than adults, and women tend to have lower haemoglobin than men. Anaemia may occur from an actual reduction in total circulating haemoglobin mass, or with an increase in plasma volume e.g. in pregnancy, causing a dilutional anaemia. After acute major blood loss, anaemia is not immediately apparent because total blood volume is reduced and it takes up to a day for plasma volume to be replaced and hence the degree of anaemia to become apparent. The initial clinical features in acute haemorrhage are therefore a result of reduction in blood volume rather than that of anaemia. When anaemia develops slowly, the associated symptoms are often very mild as the body has time to adapt to the fall in haemoglobin. This involves mechanisms such as an increase in red cell 2,3 -diphosphoglycerate (2,3 – DPG), which shifts the oxygen dissociation curve to the right, allowing enhanced delivery of O2 to the tissues, and an increase in stroke volume and heart rate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      55.8
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Microbiology (4/6) 67%
Specific Pathogen Groups (0/1) 0%
Principles Of Microbiology (2/2) 100%
Haematology (1/2) 50%
Pathology (1/3) 33%
Cardiovascular Pharmacology (2/2) 100%
Pharmacology (3/4) 75%
Anatomy (1/2) 50%
Central Nervous System (1/1) 100%
Infections (1/1) 100%
Endocrine Physiology (2/2) 100%
Physiology (5/5) 100%
Immune Responses (0/1) 0%
Pathogens (1/2) 50%
Lower Limb (0/1) 0%
Anaesthesia (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
Principles (1/1) 100%
Respiratory Physiology (1/1) 100%
Gastrointestinal (1/1) 100%
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