30mL 0.5% bupivacaine, 1mL 1 in 1,000 adrenaline and 89mL 0.9% N. Saline is the correct answer.
Initial concentration of bupivacaine is 0.5% with a volume of 30mL

The volume is doubled (60mL) by the addition of 0.9% N. saline (30mls) and the concentration of bupivacaine is halved to (0.25%).

If the volume is doubled again (120mL) by the addition of further 0.9% N. saline (59mls) the final concentration of bupivacaine is halved again to 0.125%. Total N. saline = 89mls

The 1 mL of 1 in 1000 adrenaline has also been diluted into the final volume of 120 mL making it a 1 in 120000 concentration.

Propranolol is a nonselective beta-blocker with a half-life of 3 to 6 hours.

Since it is lipid-soluble it crosses the blood-brain barrier and causes Central Nervous System side effects like sedation, nightmares, and depression.

They are contraindicated in asthma, Congestive heart failure, and diabetes.

It has a large volume of distribution with no intrinsic sympathomimetic action.

Hepatotoxicity due to halothane administration is relatively common and is a major factor in its rapidly declining use. Type 1 hepatotoxicity has an incidence of 20% to 30%. A comprehensive report in 1969 demonstrated an incidence of type 2 hepatotoxicity (hepatitis) of 1 case per 6000 to 20000 cases, with fatal cases occurring approximately once in 35000 patients following a single exposure to the anaesthetic. This incidence of fatal cases increases to approximately 1 in 1000 patients following multiple exposures. Following this study was a large-scale review in the United Kingdom, which showed similar results. To put this into perspective, there is only a single case of hepatotoxicity confirmed after the administration of desflurane and 2 cases per 1 million after enflurane. By the 1970s, halothane was the most common cause of drug-induced liver failure.

Halothane-induced hepatotoxicity has a female to male ratio of two to one. Younger patients are less likely to be affected; 80% of the cases are typically in patients 40 years or older. Other risk factors include obesity and underlying liver dysfunction. Medications such as phenobarbital, alcohol, and isoniazid may play a role in affecting CYP2E1 metabolism, increasing one’s risk.

The clinical potency of the anaesthetic agent is measured using minimal alveolar concentration(MAC).

MAC and oil: gas partition coefficient is inversely related. Anaesthetic agent Oil/gas partition coefficient and Minimal alveolar concentration (MAC) is given respectively as

Desflurane 18 6
Isoflurane 90 1.2
Nitrous oxide 1.4 104
Sevoflurane 53.4 2
Xenon 1.9 71

With these data, we can conclude Isoflurane is the most potent with the highest oil/gas partition coefficient of 90 and the lowest MAC of 1.2

Propofol is considered a safe drug to use in porphyria because even if causes mild elevation of porphyrins inpatient, it does not cause any symptoms.

Since barbiturates are inducers of ALA synthetase, they are contraindicated in porphyria patients. So, thiopentone most not be used.

Etomidate is a potent inhibitor of adrenal 11 beta-hydroxylase and 17 alpha-hydroxylase reducing cortisol and aldosterone synthesis in the adrenal cortex and has been associated with exacerbations of porphyria in animal studies and it is advisable not to use it in this condition.

Ketamine should be reserved for the hemodynamically unstable patient, however, it is a safe drug.

Diazepam is safe in porphyria but is not usually used for a rapid sequence induction.

The Beers criteria, a US set of criteria for good prescribing in the older patient, preclude the use of metoclopramide in Parkinson’s disease. The Adverse Reactions Register of the UK Committee on Safety of Medicines (CSM) for the years 1967 to 1982 contained 479 reports of extrapyramidal reactions in which metoclopramide was the suspected drug; 455 were for dystonic-dyskinetic reactions, 20 for parkinsonism and four for tardive dyskinesia. Effects can occur within days of initiation of treatment and may take months to wear off.

Other antiemetics are available, such as cyclizine (Valoid), domperidone and ondansetron, which would be more appropriate to use in those with Parkinson’s disease.

Cyclizine is a piperazine derivative with histamine H1 receptor antagonist and anticholinergic activity. It is used for the treatment of nausea, vomiting, (particularly opioid-induced vomiting), vertigo, motion sickness, and labyrinthine disorders.

Prochlorperazine is an antipsychotic known to cause tardive dyskinesia, tremor and parkinsonian symptoms and is therefore likely to exacerbate Parkinson’s disease. Prochlorperazine is not favoured for older patients because of the increased risk of stroke and transient ischaemic attack (TIA).

Droperidol and phenothiazine are also potent antagonists on D2 receptors and must also be avoided.

Sevoflurane is highly fluorinated methyl isopropyl ether widely used as an inhalational anaesthetic. It is suggested that sevoflurane preconditioning occurs via the opening of mitochondrial Potassium ATP dependent channel similar to that of Ischemic Preconditioning protection.

Metronidazole is a nitroimidazole antiprotozoal drug that is selectively absorbed by anaerobic bacteria and sensitive protozoa. Once taken up be anaerobes, it is nonenzymatically reduced by reacting with reduced ferredoxin. This reduction results in products that accumulate in and are toxic to anaerobic cells. The metabolites of metronidazole are taken up into bacterial DNA, forming unstable molecules. This action occurs only when metronidazole is partially reduced, and, because this reduction usually happens only in anaerobic cells, it has relatively little effect on human cells or aerobic bacteria.

Alfentanil is less lipid-soluble than fentanyl and thus is less permeable to the membrane making it less potent.

Alfentanil is a phenylpiperidine opioid analgesic with rapid onset and shorter duration of action.

Alfentanil has less volume of distribution due to its high plasma protein binding (92%)

It can cause respiratory depression and can cause sedation

Moderately high doses of dopamine produce a positive inotropic (direct?1 and D1 action + that due to Noradrenaline release), but the little chronotropic effect on the heart.

Vasoconstriction (?1 action) occurs only when large doses are infused.

At doses normally employed, it raises cardiac output and systolic BP with little effect on diastolic BP. It has practically no effect on nonvascular ? and ? receptors; does not penetrate the blood-brain barrier—no CNS effects.

Structural isomers have a similar molecular formula, but they have a different structural formula as their atoms are arranged in a different manner. Such small changes lead to the differential pharmacological activity. Enflurane and isoflurane are two prime examples of structural isomers.

Stereoisomers are those substances that have a similar molecular and structural formula, but the arrangement spatially of atoms are different and have optical activity.

Enantiomers are a pair of stereoisomers, which are non-superimposable mirror images of each other. They also have chiral centres of molecular symmetry. Ketamine is considered as an example of racemic mixture (contain 50% R and 50% S enantiomers)

Geometric isomers contain a carbon-carbon double bond (i.e. C=C) or a rigid carbon-carbon single bond in a heterocyclic ring. Cis-atracurium is one example.

Dynamic isomers or Tautomers are a pait of unstable structural isomers, which are present in equilibrium. One isomer can easily change after the change in pH. Midazolam and thiopentone are their examples.

Tranylcypromine is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor that binds irreversibly to target enzyme.

Monoamine oxidase inhibitors are responsible for blocking the monoamine oxidase enzyme. The monoamine oxidase enzyme breaks down different types of neurotransmitters from the brain: norepinephrine, serotonin, dopamine, and tyramine. MAOIs inhibit the breakdown of these neurotransmitters thus, increasing their levels and allowing them to continue to influence the cells that have been affected by depression.

There are two types of monoamine oxidase, A and B. The MAO A is mostly distributed in the placenta, gut, and liver, but MAO B is present in the brain, liver, and platelets. Serotonin and noradrenaline are substrates of MAO A, but phenylethylamine, methylhistamine, and tryptamine are substrates of MAO B. Dopamine and tyramine are metabolized by both MAO A and B. Selegiline and rasagiline are irreversible and selective inhibitors of MAO type B, but safinamide is a reversible and selective MAO B inhibitor.

MAOIs prevent the breakdown of tyramine found in the body and certain foods, drinks, and other medications. Patients that take MAOIs and consume tyramine-containing foods or drinks will exhibit high serum tyramine level. A high level of tyramine can cause a sudden increase in blood pressure, called the tyramine pressor response. Even though it is rare, a high tyramine level can trigger a cerebral haemorrhage, which can even result in death.

Eating foods with high tyramine can trigger a reaction that can have serious consequences. Patients should know that tyramine can increase with the aging of food; they should be encouraged to have fresh foods instead of leftovers or food prepared hours earlier. Examples of high levels of tyramine in food are types of fish and types of meat, including sausage, turkey, liver, and salami. Also, certain fruits can contain tyramine, like overripe fruits, avocados, bananas, raisins, or figs. Further examples are cheeses, alcohol, and fava beans; all of these should be avoided even after two weeks of stopping MAOIs. Anyone taking MAOIs is at risk for an adverse hypertensive reaction, with accompanying morbidity. Patients taking reversible MAOIs have fewer dietary restrictions.

Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant, and citalopram and escitalopram are selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors.

The action of class 1 anti-arrhythmic is sodium channel blockade. Subclasses of this action reflect effects on the action potential duration (APD) and the kinetics of sodium channel blockade.

Drugs with class 1A prolong the APD and refractory period, and dissociate from the channel with intermediate kinetics.

Drugs with class 1B action shorten the APD in some tissues of the heart, shorten the refractory period, and dissociate from the channel with rapid kinetics.

Drugs with class 1C action have minimal effects on the APD and the refractory period, and dissociate from the channel with slow kinetics.

Ciprofloxacin belongs to the quinolone group of antibiotics, and doxycycline and minocycline are tetracyclines. So, they are not affected by beta-lactamase.
However, amoxicillin is a beta-lactam antibiotic and beta-lactamase cleaves the beta-lactam ring present in amoxicillin. This results in the breakdown of the antibiotic and thus the area of erythema dramatically increased.
Co-amoxiclav contains amoxicillin and clavulanic acid which protects amoxicillin from beta-lactamase.

Gentamicin is a broad-spectrum antibiotic whose mechanism of action involves inhibition of protein synthesis by binding to 30s ribosomes. Its major adverse effect is nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity

Aminoglycoside bind to 30s subunit of ribosome causing misreading of mRNA

Tetracyclines inhibit protein synthesis through reversible binding to bacterial 30s ribosomal subunits, which prevent binding of new incoming amino acids (aminoacyl-tRNA) and thus interfere with peptide growth.

Chloramphenicol binds to the 50s subunit and inhibits peptidyl transferase

Clindamycin binds to the 50s ribosomal subunit of bacteria and disrupts protein synthesis by interfering with the transpeptidation reaction, which thereby inhibits early chain elongation.

Propofol is a short-acting medication used for starting and maintenance of general anaesthesia, sedation for mechanically ventilated adults, and procedural sedation.
The dose of propofol is 1-2 mg/kg.

Dose of some other important drugs are listed below:
Thiopental dose: 3-7 mg/kg
Ketamine dose: 1-2 mg/kg
Etomidate dose: 0.3 mg/kg
Methohexitone dose: 1.0-1.5 mg/kg

Ondansetron is a serotonin antagonist at the 5HT3 receptor. 5HT3 receptors in the gastrointestinal tract and in the vomiting centre of the medulla participate in the vomiting reflex. They are particularly important in vomiting caused by chemical triggers such as cancer chemotherapy drugs.

The nucleus solitarius is the recipient of all visceral afferents, and an essential part of the regulatory centres of the internal homeostasis, through its multiple projections with cardiorespiratory and gastrointestinal regulatory centres. It participates in the reflexes of the nerves innervating the nucleus, so it mediates cough reflex, carotid sinus reflex, gag reflex, and vomiting reflex.

Rifampicin is a derivative of a rifamycin (other derivatives are rifabutin and rifapentine). It is bactericidal against both dividing and non-dividing mycobacterium and acts by inhibiting DNA-dependent RNA polymerase. Thus this drug inhibits RNA synthesis.

Erythromycin binds to the 50s subunit of bacterial rRNA complex and inhibits protein synthesis.

Gentamicin is a broad-spectrum antibiotic whose mechanism of action involves inhibition of protein synthesis by binding to 30s ribosomes. Its major adverse effect is nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity

Aminoglycoside bind to 30s subunit of ribosome causing misreading of mRNA

Tetracyclines inhibit protein synthesis through reversible binding to bacterial 30s ribosomal subunits, which prevent binding of new incoming amino acids (aminoacyl-tRNA) and thus interfere with peptide growth.

Amiodarone is the longest-acting anti-arrhythmic drug. It possesses the action of all classes of antiarrhythmic drugs (Sodium channel blockade, Beta blockade, Potassium channel blockade, and Calcium channel blockade). Due to this property, it has the widest anti-arrhythmic spectrum and thus can be used in both broad and narrow complex tachyarrhythmia.

Adenosine is shortest acting anti-arrhythmic drug.

Daptomycin alters the curvature of the membrane, which creates holes that leak ions. This causes rapid depolarization, resulting in loss of membrane potential. Thus it interferes with the outer membrane of gram-positive bacteria resulting in cell death.

The elimination of phenytoin follows first order kinetics. Plasma concentrations determine the rate of elimination. The relationship between drug X plasma concentration and time is described by an exponential process in the following equation used to describe the rate of elimination:

C = C0. e-kt

C=drug concentration, C0= drug concentration at time zero (extrapolated), k = rate constant and t=time

As enzyme systems become saturated when phenytoin concentrations are above the usual range, clearance of the medication becomes zero-order. The medication is metabolised at a constant pace, regardless of its plasma levels. Aspirin and ethyl alcohol are two more significant examples of medications that operate in this way.

A plot of drug concentration with time is a washout exponential curve.

A graph of concentration with time is a straight line i.e. Zero-order kinetics

The amount eliminated per unit time is constant defines the point at which zero order kinetics commences.

Elimination involves a rate-limiting reaction operating at its maximal velocity is incorrect.

The half life of the drug is proportional to the drug concentration in the plasma corresponds to a definition of first-order kinetics.

Opioid receptors are a large family of seven transmembrane domain receptors. They are of four types:

1) Delta opioid receptor

2) Mu opioid receptor

3) Kappa opioid receptor

4) Orphan receptor-like 1

They contain about 372-400 amino acids and thus their molecular weight is different.

Opioid receptor activation reduces the intracellular cAMP formation and opens K+ channels (mainly through µ and δ receptors) or suppresses voltage-gated N-type Ca2+ channels (mainly κ receptor). These actions result in neuronal hyperpolarization and reduced availability of intracellular Ca2+ which results in decreased neurotransmitter release by cerebral, spinal, and myenteric neurons (e.g. glutamate from primary nociceptive afferents).

However, other mechanisms and second messengers may also be involved, particularly in the long-term

Nitrous oxide increases cerebral blood flow by direct cerebral stimulation and tends to elevate intracranial pressure (ICP)

It increases the cerebral metabolic rate of oxygen consumption (CMRO2)

It is not an NMDA agonist as it antagonizes NMDA receptors.

Cerebral autoregulation is impaired with the use of nitrous oxide but when used with propofol, it is maintained.

Carbon dioxide reactivity is not affected by it.

Resistance pulmonary arteries constrict in response to alveolar and airway hypoxia, diverting blood to better-oxygenated alveoli.

In atelectasis, pneumonia, asthma, and adult respiratory distress syndrome, hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction optimises O2 uptake. Hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction helps maintain systemic oxygenation during single-lung anaesthesia.

A redox-based O2 sensor within pulmonary artery smooth muscle cells is involved in hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction. The production of reactive oxygen species by smooth muscle cells in the pulmonary artery varies in proportion to PaO2. Hypoxic removal of these redox second messengers inhibits voltage-gated potassium channels, depolarizing smooth muscle cells in the pulmonary artery.

L-type calcium channels are activated by depolarization, which raises cytosolic calcium and causes hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction. Some anaesthetics suppress this response, increasing the risk of further deterioration in ventilation perfusion mismatch.

Agents that inhibit HPV are ether, halothane, and desflurane (>1.6 MAC).
Agents with no effect on HPV include thiopentone, fentanyl, desflurane (1MAC), isoflurane (<1.5MAC), sevoflurane(1MAC), and propofol.

Doxycycline belongs to the family of tetracyclines and inhibits protein synthesis through reversible binding to bacterial 30s ribosomal subunits, which prevent binding of new incoming amino acids (aminoacyl-tRNA) and thus interfere with peptide growth.

The maximum safe amount of bupivacaine is 2mg/kg. Addition of adrenaline slows down absorption of the local anaesthetic and allows a maximum dose of 2.5mg/kg to be used.

The maximum safe dose of bupivacaine for this patient is 125 mg.

A 0.125% solution will contain 0.125g/100mL or 125mg/100 mL.

The maximum volume of local anaesthetic is approximately 80-100 mL.

Entonox is a gas that consists of 50% oxygen and 50% Nitrous oxide. Nitrous oxide is sometimes used for anaesthetics but in this combination, it works as a short-acting painkiller.

Under normal working conditions, it exists only in gaseous form in a cylinder. The gauge pressure of a full Entonox cylinder is 137 bar.

Entonox cylinders should be stored horizontally at a temperature above 0 C. At temperatures below this the nitrous oxide component may separate.

Pseudocritical temperature and pseudocritical pressure can be defined as the molal average critical temperature and pressure of mixture components. In other words, the pseudo-critical temperature is the temperature at which the two gases separate. The pseudo-critical temperature of Entonox is approximately -5.50 C

Tetracyclines inhibit protein synthesis through reversible binding to bacterial 30s ribosomal subunits (not 50s) which prevent binding of new incoming amino acids (aminoacyl-tRNA) and thus interfere with peptide growth.

They penetrate macrophages and are thus a drug of choice for treating infections due to intracellular organisms.

Tetracycline does not inhibit transpeptidation. Meanwhile, it is chloramphenicol which is responsible for inhibiting transpeptidation.

Tetracycline can get deposited in growing bone and teeth due to its calcium-binding effect and thus causes dental discoloration and dental hypoplasia. Due to this reason, they should be avoided in pregnant or lactating mothers.

Simultaneous administration of aluminium hydroxide can impede the absorption of tetracyclines.

Patients who present for surgery may be on prescription medication or natural/herbal therapies. These have relevance for anaesthesia since they can cause drug interactions.

Ephedra (Ma Huang) is a drug derived from the plant Ephedra sinica that is used as a CNS stimulant, weight reduction aid, and asthma therapy. It is a combination of alkaloids that includes ephedrine which stimulates noradrenaline release from pre-synaptic neurones by acting directly on alpha and beta adrenoreceptors. The use of sympathomimetic drugs together can cause cardiovascular instability.

Ginkgo Biloba contains anti-oxidant characteristics and is used to treat Alzheimer’s disease, vascular dementia, and peripheral vascular disease. It lowers platelet adhesiveness and raises the risk of bleeding by decreasing platelet activating factor (PAF), especially in individuals who are also taking anticoagulants and antiplatelet drugs.

The extract from St. John’s Wort is utilised as an antidepressant because it is a cytochrome P450 isoenzyme inhibitor as well as a serotonin uptake inhibitor. When drugs like fentanyl or tramadol are used during an anaesthetic, there is a risk of serotonin syndrome developing.

The root of a pepper is used to make kava (Piper methysticum). It is a weak GABAA agonist which has the potential to augment the effects of propofol and benzodiazepines, which are volatile anaesthetics.

Garlic is made from the allium sativum plant and is used to treat hypertension and hyperlipidaemia. It includes cysteine, which inhibits platelet aggregation irreversibly, amplifying the effects of aspirin and NSAIDs.

Echinacea is a common herbal medicine that stimulates the immune system by modulating cytokine signalling. In individuals who require organ transplantation, it should be avoided.

Mivacurium is metabolised primarily by plasma cholinesterase at an In vitro rate of about 70% that of succinylcholine. Mivacurium is contraindicated in patients with genetic and acquired plasma cholinesterase deficiencies.

The clearance of atracurium is by Hoffman degradation and ester hydrolysis in the plasma and is independent of both hepatic and renal function.

Rocuronium is eliminated primarily by the liver after metabolises to a less active metabolite, 17-desacetyl-rocuronium. Its duration of action is not affected much by renal impairment.

Vecuronium undergoes hepatic metabolism into 3-desacetyl-vecuronium which has 50-80% the activity of the parent drug. It undergoes biliary (40%) and renal excretion (30%). The aminoglycoside antibiotics possess additional neuromuscular blocking activity. The potency of gentamicin > streptomycin > amikacin. Calcium can be used to reverse the muscle weakness produced by gentamicin but not neostigmine. When vecuronium and gentamycin are given together the effect on neuromuscular blockade is synergistic.

Significant residual neuromuscular block 2 hours after the administration of these drugs is unlikely In this scenario.

Any recovery from neuromuscular blockade with suxamethonium in a patient with deficiency of plasma cholinesterase demonstrate four twitches on a train of four count.

After ingestion of more than 150 mg/kg paracetamol within 24 hours, hepatotoxicity can occur but can also develop rarely after ingestion of doses as low as 75 mg/kg within 24 hours. Hepatocellular damage will not occur in this patient and therefore no need to engage management pathway for paracetamol overdose. If his weight was <33 kg or he already had a history of impaired liver function, then the management would bde different. Subsequent post-operative doses will be a standard dose of 1 g 6 hourly. This is a drug administration error and should be reported as an incident even though the patient will not be harmed.

Perioperative and postoperative analgesia can both be provided by an inguinal hernia field block. The Iliohypogastric and ilioinguinal nerves, as well as the skin, superficial fascia, and deeper structures, must be blocked for maximum effectiveness. The local anaesthetic should ideally have a long duration of action, be highly concentrated, and have a volume of at least 30 mL.

Plain bupivacaine has a maximum safe dose of 2 mg/kg body weight.

Because the patient weighs 75 kg, 150 mg bupivacaine can be safely administered. Both 30 mL 0.5 percent bupivacaine (150 mg) and 60 mL 0.25 percent bupivacaine (150 mg) are acceptable doses, but 30 mL 0.5 percent bupivacaine represents the optimal volume and strength, potentially providing a denser and longer block.

The maximum safe dose of plain lidocaine has been estimated to be between 3.5 and 5 mg/kg. The patient weighs 75 kg and can receive a maximum of 375 mg using the higher dosage regimen:

There are 200 mg of lidocaine in 10 mL of 2% lidocaine (and therefore 11 mL contains 220 mg)
200 mg of lidocaine is contained in 20 mL of 1% lidocaine.

While alternatives are available, Although the doses of 11 mL lidocaine 2% and 20 mL lidocaine 1% are well within the dose limit, the volumes used are insufficient for effective field block for this surgery.

With 1 in 200,000 epinephrine, the maximum safe dose of lidocaine is 7 mg/kg. The patient can be given 525 mg in this case. Even with epinephrine, 60 mL of 1% lidocaine is 600 mg, which could be considered an overdose.

Because enflurane is much less soluble in blood and has a blood: gas partition coefficient of 1.8, both wash-in and wash-out should be faster.

Sevoflurane’s sweet-smelling, non-irritant nature, combined with a low blood: gas partition coefficient, would result in similar offset and onset characteristics.

Isoflurane and enflurane have a molecular weight of 184.

The oil: gas partition coefficient on a volatile agent is a measure of lipid solubility, potency, and thus MAC. Halothane has an oil: gas partition coefficient of 220 and a MAC of 0.74. One would expect the MAC to be higher with an oil gas partition coefficient of 180 (less lipid soluble).

The conversion of halothane (20%) to trifluoroacetic acid via oxidative metabolism has been linked to the development of hepatitis.

P450 2E1 converts sevoflurane to hexafluoroisopropanol, which results in the release of inorganic fluoride ions. It’s the only fluorinated volatile anaesthetic that doesn’t break down into trifluoracetic acid.

Desflurane is likely to cause airway irritation, which can lead to coughing, apnoea, and laryngospasm, despite its low blood:gas partition coefficient (0.42).

There are two types of drug dose-response relationships, namely, the graded dose-response and the quantal dose-response relationships.

Drug response curves are plotted as percentage response again LOG drug concentration. This graph is sigmoid in shape.

Agonists are drugs with high affinity and high intrinsic activity. Meanwhile, the antagonist is a drug with high affinity but no intrinsic activity. Intrinsic activity determines the maximal response. The maximal response can be achieved even by activation of a small proportion of receptor sites.

Phase I and phase II metabolism are used by the liver to break down paracetamol.

1st Phase:

Prostaglandin synthetase and cytochrome P450 (CYP1A2, CYP2E2, CYP3A4 and CYP2D6) to N-acetyl-p-benzoquinoneimine (NAPQI) and N-acetylbenzo-semiquinoneimine. NAPQI is a toxic metabolite that binds to the sulfhydryl groups of cellular proteins in hepatocytes, making it toxic. This can result in centrilobular necrosis.

Glutathione and glutathione transferases prevent NAPQI from binding to hepatocytes at low paracetamol doses by preferentially binding to these toxic metabolites. The cysteine and mercapturic acid conjugates are then excreted in the urine. Depletion of glutathione occurs at higher doses of paracetamol, resulting in high levels of NAPQI and the risk of hepatocellular damage. Hepatotoxicity would not be an issue if the body’s glutathione stores were sufficient.

N-acetylcysteine is a precursor for glutathione synthesis and is the drug of choice for the treatment of paracetamol overdose.

Phase II:

Conjugation with glucuronic acid to paracetamol glucuronide is the most common method of metabolism and excretion, accounting for 60% of renally excreted metabolites. Paracetamol sulphate (35%), unchanged paracetamol (5%), and mercapturic acid are among the other renally excreted metabolites (3 percent ). The capacity of conjugation pathways is limited. The capacity of the sulphate conjugation pathway is lower than that of the glucuronidation pathway.

Because of the low pH in the stomach, paracetamol absorption is minimal (pKa value is 9.5). Paracetamol is absorbed quickly and completely in the alkaline environment of the small intestine. Oral bioavailability is extremely high, approaching 100%.

As a result, measuring paracetamol levels in plasma after an injury is important. Peak plasma concentrations are reached after 30-60 minutes, with a volume of distribution of 0.95 L/kg. It binds to plasma proteins at a rate of 10% to 25%.

The first line of defence against acid-base disorder is buffering. The blood mainly utilizes bicarbonate ion (HCO3-) for its buffering capacity (total of 53%, plasma and red blood cells combined).

Strong acids, when acted upon by a buffer, release H+, which then combines to HCO3- and forms carbonic acid (H2CO3). When acted upon by the enzyme carbonic anhydrase, H2CO3 dissociates into H2O and CO.

The rest are the percentage of utilization for the following buffers:
Haemoglobin (by RBCs) – 35%
Plasma proteins (by plasma) – 7%
Organic phosphates (by RBCs) – 3%
Inorganic phosphates (by plasma) – 2%

Based on the presenting symptoms and clinical examination, it is a case of an adult sinus bradycardia with adverse signs. The first pharmacological treatment for this condition is atropine 500mcg intravenously and if necessary repeat every three to five minutes up to a maximum of 3 mg.

If the bradycardia does not subside even after the administration of atropine, cardiac pacing should be considered. If pacing cannot be achieved promptly, we should consider the use of second-line drugs like adrenaline, dobutamine, or isoprenaline.

Mivacurium, when administered at doses greater than 0.2 mg/kg,increases the risk for hypotension, tachycardia, and erythema. This is due to the ability of mivacurium to release histamine with increasing dose. Contrary to this fact, anaphylaxis is rare for mivacurium because of the short duration of histamine release.

The effective dose 50 (ED50) of mivacurium is between 0.08-0.15 mg/kg. It is administered slowly to prevent and decrease the risk of developing adverse effects.

Mivacurium has a high potency thus a longer duration of action, however this is not the answer that we are looking for.

Although drug metabolism takes longer for mivacurium than succinylcholine, it has no effect on the dose required for intubation.

Epoprostenol has a half-life of only 42 seconds and has rapid offset. It is used for the treatment of pulmonary hypertension.

Aspirin inhibits the COX enzyme irreversibly. It inhibits thromboxane synthesis but does not inhibit the enzyme thromboxane synthetase.

Ticlopidine, clopidogrel and prasugrel act as irreversible antagonists of P2 Y12 receptor of Adenosine Diphosphate (ADP). These drugs interfere with the activation of platelets by ADP and fibrinogen. Both aspirin and clopidogrel act irreversibly so they are not correct.

Paclitaxel is a long-acting antiproliferative agent used for the prevention of restenosis (recurrent narrowing) of coronary and peripheral stents and is not the correct answer.

Tirofiban has the next shortest duration of action after epoprostenol. If epoprostenol is not given in the question, it would be the best answer.

Bupivacaine is used to decrease sensation in a specific area. It is injected around a nerve that supplies the area, or into the spinal canal’s epidural space.

The maximum volume of 0.5% bupivacaine that should be administered to a 10kg child is 5 ml

In first order kinetics the rate of elimination is proportional to plasma concentration.

Rate of elimination is described by the following equation:

C = C0. e^-kt

Where:
C=drug concentration,
C0= drug concentration at time zero (extrapolated),
k = rate constant and
t = time.

The initial concentration of this drug is 12 mcg/ml therefore:

The plasma concentration will have halved to 6 mcg/ml at 2 hours.
The plasma concentration will have halved to 3 mcg/ml at 4 hours and
The plasma concentration will have halved to 1.5 mcg/ml t 6 hours.

The usual method of calculating the dose of a drug to be given to patients of normal weight is to use total body weight (TBW). This is because the lean body weight (LBW) and ideal body weight (IBW) dosing scalars are similar in these patients.

Because the LBW and fat mass do not increase in proportion in patients with morbid obesity, this is not the case. Drugs that are lipid soluble, such as propofol or thiopentone, can cause a relative overdose. Lean body mass is a better scalar in these situations.

Suxamethonium has a small volume of distribution, so the dose is best calculated using the TBW to ensure optimal and deep intubating conditions. The higher dose was justified because these patients’ plasma cholinesterase activity was elevated.

Other scalars include:

The dose of highly lipid soluble drugs like benzodiazepines, thiopentone, and propofol can be calculated using lean body weight (LBW). The formula LBW = IBW + 20% can be used on occasion.

Fentanyl, rocuronium, atracurium, vecuronium, morphine, paracetamol, bupivacaine, and lidocaine are all administered with LBW.

Formulas can be used to calculate the ideal body weight (IBW). There are a number of drawbacks, including the fact that patients of the same height receive the same dose, and the formulae do not account for changes in body composition associated with obesity. Because IBW is typically lower than LBW, administering a drug based on IBW may result in underdosing. The body mass index (BMI) isn’t used to calculate drug dosage directly.

The ?-2 adrenoceptor has three subtypes (2a, 2b and 2c). The receptors are generally presynaptic, meaning they prevent noradrenaline from being released at nerve endings. Both the central and peripheral nerve systems are affected by the ?-2 agonists. ?-2 agonists cause drowsiness, analgesia, and euphoria centrally in the locus coeruleus (in the brainstem), lower the MAC of volatile anaesthetic drugs, and are used to treat acute withdrawal symptoms in chronic opioid addicts.

The most common impact of ?-2 agonists on heart rate is bradycardia. The adrenoreceptors ?-1 and ?-2 are blocked by phenoxybenzamine.

Clonidine is a selective agonist for the ? -2 receptor, having a 200:1 affinity ratio for the ?-2: ?-1 receptors, respectively.

Tizanidine is similar to clonidine but has a few key variances. It has the same sedative, anxiolytic, and analgesic characteristics as clonidine, although for a shorter period of time and with less effect on heart rate and blood pressure.

Dexmedetomidine, like clonidine, is a highly selective ?-2 adrenoreceptor agonist having a higher affinity for the ?-2 receptor. In the case of ?-2: ?-1 receptors, the affinity ratio is 1620:1. It has a biphasic blood pressure impact and induces a brief rise in blood pressure and reflex bradycardia (activation of ?-2b subtypes of receptors in vascular smooth muscles), followed by a reduction in sympathetic outflow from the brainstem and hypotension/bradycardia.

A prodrug is methyldopa. It blocks the enzyme dopa-decarboxylase, which converts L-dopa to dopamine (a precursor of noradrenaline and adrenaline). It is also converted to alpha-methyl noradrenaline, a centrally active agonist of the ?-2 adrenoreceptor. These two processes contribute to its blood pressure-lowering effect. Without a rise in heart rate, cardiac output is generally maintained. The heart rate of certain patients is slowed.

Phentolamine is a short-acting antagonist of peripheral ?-1 and ?-2 receptors that causes peripheral vascular resistance to reduce and vasodilation to increase. It’s used to treat hypertensive situations that aren’t life threatening (e.g. hypertension from phaeochromocytoma).

A baroreceptor reflex commonly causes reflex tachycardia when systemic vascular resistance drops.

Choosing an appropriate dose of local anaesthetic to reduce the chance of toxicity is the most important safety aspect in performing a caudal block.

The caudal will have to be inserted following induction of anaesthesia as performing it in an awake child is not a viable option.

The patient is placed in the lateral position and the sacral hiatus is identified. Under strict asepsis, a needle ( usually a 21-23FG needle) is advanced at an angle of approximately 55-65° to the coronal plane at the apex of the sacrococcygeal membrane. When there is loss of resistance, thats the endpoint. The needle must first be aspirated before anaesthetic agent is injected because there is a risk (1 in 2000) of perforating the dura or vascular puncture.

Alternatively, a 22-gauge plastic cannula can be used. Following perforation of the sacrococcygeal membrane, the stilette is removed and only the blunter plastic cannula is advanced. This reduces the risk of intravascular perforation.

Eliciting an appropriate end motor response at an appropriate current strength when the caudal and epidural spaces are stimulated helps in improving the efficacy and safety of neural blockade. A 22G insulated needle is advanced in the caudal canal until a pop is felt. If the needle is placed correctly, an anal sphincter contractions (S2 to S4) is seen when an electrical stimulation of 1-10 mA is applied.

The application of ultrasound guidance in identification of the caudal epidural space has been shown to prevent inadvertent dural puncture and to increase the safety and efficacy of the block in children.

Calcium channel blocker (CCB) blocks L-type of voltage-gated calcium channels present in blood vessels and the heart. By inhibiting the calcium channels, these agents decrease the frequency of opening of calcium channels activity of the heart, decrease heart rate, AV conduction, and contractility.

Three groups of CCBs include
1) Phenylalkylamines: Verapamil, Norverapamil
2) Benzothiazepines : Diltiazem
3) Dihydropyridine : Nifedipine, Nicardipine, Nimodipine, Nislodipine, Nitrendipine, Isradipine, Lacidipine, Felodipine and Amlodipine.

Even though verapamil as good absorption from GIT, its oral bioavailability is low due to high first-pass metabolism.

Nimodipine is a Cerebro-selective CCB, used to reverse the compensatory vasoconstriction after sub-arachnoid haemorrhage and is more lipid soluble analogue of nifedipine

Calcium channel antagonist can potentiate the effect of non-depolarising muscle relaxants.

Accumulation of morphine-6-glucuronide is a risk factor for opioid toxicity during morphine treatment. Morphine is metabolized in the liver to morphine-6-glucuronide and morphine-3-glucuronide, both of which are excreted by the kidneys. In the setting of renal failure, these metabolites can accumulate, resulting in a lowering of the seizure threshold. However, it does not occur in all patients with renal insufficiency, which is the most common reason for accumulation of morphine-6-glucuronide; this suggests that other risk factors can contribute to morphine-6-glucuronide toxicity.

The active metabolites of codeine are morphine and the morphine metabolite morphine-6-glucuronide. The enzyme systems responsible for this metabolism are: CYP2D for codeine and UGT2B7 for morphine, codeine-6-gluronide, and morphine-6-glucuronide. Both of these systems are subject to genetic variation. Some patients are ultrarapid metabolizers of codeine and produce higher levels of morphine and active metabolites in a very short period of time after administration. These increased levels will produce increased side effects, especially drowsiness and central nervous system depression.

Dose response curves are plotted as % response to drug against Logarithm of drug concentration. The graph is usually sigmoid shaped.

Any drug that has high affinity and high intrinsic activity is likely an agonist. A drug with high affinity but no intrinsic activity will act as an antagonist. Displacement of an agonist also depends on the relative concentrations of the two drugs at the receptor sites.

Maximal response may be achieved by activation of a small proportion of receptor sites.

Approximately 20% of halothane and 0.02% desflurane undergo hepatic biotransformation. Desflurane, halothane, and isoflurane are metabolised in the liver by cytochrome p450 to trifluoroacetate. Through an immunological mechanism involving trifluoroacetyl hapten formation, trifluoroacetate is thought to be responsible for hepatotoxicity.

Potency of inhaled anaesthetic agents is measured using the minimal alveolar concentration (MAC). The MAC of halothane is 0.74% while that of desflurane is 6.3%. The potency can also be compared using the oil: gas partition coefficient (224 and 18.7 for halothane and desflurane respectively).

Onset of action of volatile agents depends on the blood:gas partition coefficient. A lower blood:gas partition coefficient and insolubility in blood means faster onset and offset of action. The blood gas coefficient for halothane is 2.4 while that of desflurane is 0.42. Desflurane is less soluble than halothane in blood. Halothane has a pungent smell that can irritate the airway which limits its use for a gaseous induction especially in paediatric anaesthesia. desflurane is not pungent.

Desfluranes boiling point is only slightly above normal room temperature (22.8°C) making it extremely volatile while the boiling point of halothane is approximately 50.2°C.

Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) cause bronchospasm, rhinorrhoea, and nasal obstruction in some asthma patients.

The inhibition of cyclooxygenase-1 (Cox-1) appears to be the cause of NSAID-induced reactions. This activates the lipoxygenase pathway, which increases the release of cysteinyl leukotrienes (Cys-LTs), which causes bronchospasm and nasal obstruction.

The following changes in arachidonic acid (AA) metabolism have been observed in NSAID-intolerant asthmatic patients:

Prostaglandin E2 production is low, possibly due to a lack of Cox-2 regulation.
An increase in leukotriene-C4 synthase expression and
A decrease in the production of metabolites (lipoxins) released by AA’s transcellular metabolism.

Phospholipase A produces membrane phospholipids, which are converted to arachidonic acid.

TXA2 causes vasoconstriction as well as platelet aggregation and adhesion.

PGI2 causes vasodilation and a reduction in platelet adhesion.

PGE2 is involved in parturition initiation and maintenance, as well as thermoregulation.

Because alpha glucosidase inhibitors slow starch digestion in the small intestine, glucose from a meal enters the bloodstream more slowly and can be matched more effectively by an impaired insulin response or sensitivity, glucose from a meal enters the bloodstream more slowly and can be matched more effectively by an impaired insulin response or sensitivity.

Biguanides decrease hepatic glucose output while increasing glucose uptake in peripheral cells.

The meglitinides are secretagogues that act on a different site of the KATP receptors.

Insulin secretion is stimulated by sulphonylureas, which stimulate insulin secretion from pancreatic beta cells. The KATP channels are inhibited by these substances.

Insulin-sensitive genes are influenced by thiazolidinediones, which increase the production of mRNAs for insulin-dependent enzymes. As a result, the cells make better use of glucose.

Dystonia is characterised by repetitive twisting movements or abnormal postures. They are classified as either primary or secondary.

Primary dystonia is a genetic disorder that is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern.
Secondary dystonia can be caused by focal brain lesions, Parkinson’s disease, or certain medications.

The following drugs cause the most common drug-induced dystonic reactions:
Antipsychotics, antiemetics (especially prochlorperazine and metoclopramide), and antidepressants.

Following the administration of the neuroleptic prochlorperazine, 16 percent of patients experience restlessness (akathisia) and 4% experience dystonia.

Several published reports have linked the anaesthetics thiopentone, fentanyl, and propofol to opisthotonos and other abnormal neurologic sequelae. Dystonias following a general anaesthetic are uncommon. Tramadol has been linked to serotonin syndrome, while remifentanil has been linked to muscle rigidity.

The following are some of the risk factors:

Positive family history
Male
Children
An episode of acute dystonia occurred previously.
Dopamine receptor (D2) antagonists at high doses and recent cocaine use

Dystonia is treated in a variety of ways, including:

Benztropine (as a first-line therapy):

1-2 mg intravenous injection for adults
Child: 0.02 mg/kg to 1 mg maximum

Benzodiazepines are a type of benzodiazepine (second line treatment).

Midazolam:

1-2 mg intravenously, or 5-10 mg IV/PO diazepam

Antihistamines with anticholinergic activity (H1receptor antagonists):

Promethazine 25-50 mg IV/IM, or diphenhydramine 50 mg IV/IM (1 mg/kg in children) are used when benztropine is not available.

To begin, one must determine the child’s approximate weight. There are a variety of formulas to choose from. It is acceptable to use the advanced paediatric life support formula:

(Age + 4) 2 = Weight

A 5-year-old child will weigh around 18 kilogrammes.

10 mcg/kg (0.1 ml/kg of 1 in 10 000 adrenaline) = 180 mcg is the appropriate dose of intravenous or intraosseous adrenaline.

The correct energy level to deliver is 4 J/kg, which equals 72 joules.

The pad size that is appropriate for this patient is 8-12 cm. For an infant, a 4.5 cm pad is appropriate.

To allow adequate separation in infants and small children, the pads should be placed anteriorly and posteriorly on the chest.

When using a bag and mask to ventilate, take two breaths for every 15 chest compressions. If chest compressions are being applied intubated and without interruption, a ventilation rate of 10-20 breaths per minute should be given.

Chest compressions should be done at a rate of 100-120 per minute, the same as an adult.

The ideal agent for this case should have low blood: gas coefficient, pleasant smell, and high oil: gas coefficient (potent with a low Minimum alveolar coefficient (MAC)). Among the given options, Sevoflurane is perfect with 0.692 blood: gas partition coefficient and is low pungency, and is sweet.

Other drugs with their blood: gas partition coefficient and their smell are given as:
Blood/gas partition coefficient MAC Smell
Enflurane 1.8 1.68 Pungent, ethereal
Desflurane 0.42 7 Pungent, ethereal
Halothane 2.54 0.71 Sweet
Isoflurane 1.4 1.15 Pungent, ethereal

Cephalosporin belongs to a family of beta-lactam antibiotics. All ?-lactam antibiotics interfere with the synthesis of the bacterial cell walls. The ?-lactam antibiotics inhibit the transpeptidases so that cross-linking (which maintains the close-knit structure of the cell wall) does not take place i.e. they inhibit bacterial cell wall formation.

Porphyria is a group of disorders in which there is excess production and excess excretion of porphyrins and their precursors. They are usually genetic and are caused due to defects in the haem metabolic pathway. However, other factors like infection, pregnancy, mensuration, starvation may precipitate the attack.

Sulphonamides, barbiturates (methohexitone and thiopental), and phenytoin are considered to be precipitants so are not safe to use
Chloral hydrate is thought to be safe to use.
Etomidate lacks proper studies and may be used with caution but it is generally advised not to use this drug especially if other alternatives are available.

Prilocaine is the drug of choice for intravenous regional anaesthesia. 0.5% prilocaine (40 ml) is indicated for this condition.
Lidocaine is another alternative for this condition but volume and dose are likely to be inadequate for the procedure.

Always call for help early. This patient is at risk of gastro-oesophageal reflux, which is why a rapid sequence induction has been chosen. The patient is not pregnant, and the surgery is not urgent.

Plan A is to perform a rapid sequence induction under optimal conditions and secure the airway with a tracheal tube.

No more than three attempts with a direct laryngoscope (plus one attempt with a videolaryngoscope) should be made to intubate the trachea. Keep in mind that suxamethonium is wearing off. Ensuring adequate neuromuscular blockade at this stage is crucial; this might include administering a non-depolarizing relaxant if oxygenation can be maintained with bag-mask ventilation. Given the non-immediate nature of the surgery, there should be a low threshold to abandon intubation attempts and resort to Plan B.

An alternative strategy can then be planned.

The most important initial step is to declare a “failed intubation.” This will prevent further intubation attempts and alert your assistant that Plan A has failed. Maintaining oxygenation and anesthesia is also critical before implementing Plan B.

Do not administer another dose of suxamethonium. Insert a supraglottic airway if oxygenation fails and adequate ventilation cannot be maintained.

Plan D follows the declaration of a CICO (Cannot Intubate, Cannot Oxygenate) situation.

Erythromycin binds to the 50s subunit of bacterial rRNA complex and inhibits protein synthesis.

Vancomycin binds to the acyl-D-ala-D-ala portion of the growing cell wall in a susceptible gram-positive bacterium. After binding, it prevents the cell wall from forming the cross-linking.

Trimethoprim binds to dihydrofolate reductase and inhibits the reduction of dihydrofolic acid to tetrahydrofolic acid. Tetrahydrofolic acid is an essential precursor in the thymidine synthesis pathway and interference with this pathway inhibits bacterial DNA synthesis.