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  • Question 1 - Very small SI units are easily expressed using mathematical prefixes.

    One femtolitre is equal...

    Correct

    • Very small SI units are easily expressed using mathematical prefixes.

      One femtolitre is equal to which of the following volumes?

      Your Answer: 0.000, 000, 000, 000, 001 L

      Explanation:

      Small measurement units are denoted by the following SI mathematical prefixes:

      1 deci = 0.1
      1 milli = 0.001
      1 micro = 0.000001
      1 nano = 0.000000001
      1 pico = 0.000000000001
      1 femto = 0.000000000000001 (used to measure red blood cell volume)
      1 atto = 0.000000000000000001

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Physics
      18.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following statement is not true regarding Adrenaline or Epinephrine? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statement is not true regarding Adrenaline or Epinephrine?

      Your Answer: Inhibits Insulin secretion

      Correct Answer: Inhibits Glucagon secretion in the pancreas

      Explanation:

      Adrenaline acts on ?1, ?2,?1, and ?2 receptors and also on dopamine receptors (D1, D2) and have sympathomimetic effects.

      Natural catecholamines are Adrenaline, Noradrenaline, and Dopamine

      Adrenaline is a sympathomimetic amine with both alpha and beta-adrenergic stimulating properties.
      Adrenaline is the drug of choice for anaphylactic shock
      Adrenaline is also used in patients with cardiac arrest. The preferred route is i.v. followed by the intra-osseous and endotracheal route.

      Adrenaline is released by the adrenal glands, acts on ? 1 and 2, ? 1 and 2 receptors, and is responsible for fight or flight response.

      It acts on ? 2 receptors in skeletal muscle vessels-causing vasodilation.

      It acts on ? adrenergic receptors to inhibit insulin secretion by the pancreas. It also stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver and muscle, stimulates glycolysis in muscle.

      It acts on ? adrenergic receptors to stimulate glucagon secretion in the pancreas. It also stimulates Adrenocorticotrophic Hormone (ACTH) and stimulates lipolysis by adipose tissue

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      39
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 28-year-old girl, Sam, has suffered a road traffic accident. She is brought...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old girl, Sam, has suffered a road traffic accident. She is brought to the emergency department and undergoes investigations and treatment.

      On X-ray of the humerus, she has a mid-shaft fracture.

      What structure is at the highest risk of damage with a mid-shaft humeral fracture?

      Your Answer: Radial nerve

      Explanation:

      Mid-shaft fractures of the humerus usually occur after a direct blow to the upper arm, which can occur after a fall or RTAs.
      The most important clinical significance of a mid-shaft humeral fracture is an injury to the radial nerve. The radial nerve originates from the brachial plexus and has roots of C5-T1. It crosses the spiral groove on the posterior side of the shaft of the humerus.
      On examination, the patient may have a wrist drop, loss or weakness of finger extension, and decreased or absent sensation to the posterior forearm, digits 1 to 3, and the radial half of the fourth digit.

      The humeral shaft has two compartments:
      1. Anterior:
      Brachial artery and vein
      Biceps brachii, brachialis, coracobrachialis
      Musculocutaneous, median, and ulnar nerves
      2. Posterior:
      Radial nerve
      Triceps

      Other significant nerve injuries are:
      1. Axillary nerve – surgical neck fracture of the humerus
      2. Brachial Artery – supracondylar fracture of the humerus
      3. Axillary artery – surgical neck fracture of the humerus, but is relatively uncommon

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following nerves is responsible for relaying sensory information from the...

    Correct

    • Which of the following nerves is responsible for relaying sensory information from the laryngeal mucosa?

      Your Answer: Laryngeal branches of the vagus

      Explanation:

      Sensory innervation of the larynx is controlled by branches of the vagus nerve.

      The internal and external bifurcations of the superior laryngeal nerve is responsible for sensory innervation of the aspect of the larynx superior to the vocal cords, while the recurrent laryngeal nerve is responsible for sensory innervation of the intrinsic musculature of the larynx except for the cricothyroid muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      21.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following drugs is an enzyme inducer? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following drugs is an enzyme inducer?

      Your Answer: Rifampicin

      Explanation:

      Rifampicin is a potent inducer of liver cytochrome enzymes. Other enzyme inducers are:
      Carbamazepine
      Sodium valproate
      Phenytoin
      Phenobarbitone

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following drugs would cause the most clinical concern if accidentally...

    Correct

    • Which of the following drugs would cause the most clinical concern if accidentally administered intravenously to a 4-year-old boy?

      Your Answer: 20 mg codeine

      Explanation:

      To begin, one must determine the child’s approximate weight. There are a variety of formulas to choose from. It is acceptable to use the advanced paediatric life support formula:

      (age + 4) 2 = weight

      A 5-year-old child will weigh around 18 kilogrammes.

      The following are the appropriate doses of the drugs listed above:

      Gentamicin (once daily) – 5-7 mg/kg = 90-126 mg and subsequent dose modified according to plasma levels
      Ondansetron – 0.1 mg/kg, but a maximum of 4 mg as a single dose = 1.8 mg
      Codeine should be administered orally at a dose of 1 mg/kg rather than intravenously, as the latter can cause ‘dangerous’ hypotension due to histamine release.
      15 mg/kg paracetamol = 270 mg orally or intravenously (a loading dose of 20 mg/kg, or 360 mg, is sometimes recommended, which is not far short of the doses listed above).
      Cefuroxime – the initial intravenous dose is 20 mg/kg (360 mg) depending on the indication (again, similar to the dose given in the answer options above).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following can be evaluated by the Delphi method? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following can be evaluated by the Delphi method?

      Your Answer: Patient satisfaction

      Correct Answer: Expert consensus

      Explanation:

      The Delphi method relies on expert consensus. This method kicks off with an open ended questionnaire and uses its responses as a survey instrument for the next round in which each of the participants is asked to rate the items that the investigators have summarized on the basis of the data collected in the first round. Any disagreement is further discussed in phases to come on the basis of information obtained from previous phases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following statements about the central venous pressure (CVP) waveform is...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements about the central venous pressure (CVP) waveform is true?

      Your Answer: Tricuspid regurgitation causes large A waves

      Correct Answer: Third degree heart block causes canon A waves

      Explanation:

      The central venous pressure (CVP) waveform depicts changes of pressure within the right atrium. Different parts of the waveform are:

      A wave: which represents atrial contraction. It is synonymous with the P wave seen during an ECG. It is often eliminated in the presence of atrial fibrillation, and increased tricuspid stenosis, pulmonary stenosis and pulmonary hypertension.

      C wave: which represents right ventricle contraction at the point where the tricuspid valve bulges into the right atrium. It is synonymous with the QRS complex seen on ECG.

      X descent: which represents relaxation of the atrial diastole and a decrease in atrial pressure, due to the downward movement of the right ventricle as it contracts. It is synonymous with the point before the T wave on ECG.

      V wave: which represents an increase in atrial pressure just before the opening of the tricuspid valve. It is synonymous with the point after the T wave on ECG. It is increased in the background of a tricuspid regurgitation.

      Y descent: which represents the emptying of the atrium as the tricuspid valve opens to allow for blood flow into the ventricle in early diastole.

      Canon waves: which refer to large waves present on the trace that do not correspond to the A, V or C waves. They usually occur in a background of complete heart blocks or junctional arrythmias.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Of the following, which is NOT a branch of the subclavian artery? ...

    Incorrect

    • Of the following, which is NOT a branch of the subclavian artery?

      Your Answer: Thyrocervical trunk

      Correct Answer: Superior thyroid artery

      Explanation:

      The left subclavian artery originates from the aortic arch, while the right subclavian artery originates from the brachiocephalic artery.

      The subclavian artery gives off branches on both sides of the body:
      1. Vertebral artery
      2. Internal thoracic artery
      3. Thyrocervical trunk
      4. Costocervical trunk
      5. Dorsal scapular artery

      The superior thyroid artery is the first branch of the external carotid artery. The other branches of the external carotid artery are:
      1. Superior thyroid artery
      2. Ascending pharyngeal artery
      3. Lingual artery
      4. Facial artery
      5. Occipital artery
      6. Posterior auricular artery
      7. Maxillary artery
      8. Superficial temporal artery

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      20.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - An individual who recently moved his residence from the plains to the mountains...

    Correct

    • An individual who recently moved his residence from the plains to the mountains will experience immediately which physiologic response to high altitude and hypoxia?

      Your Answer: Increased cardiac output

      Explanation:

      A person remaining at high altitudes for days, weeks, or years becomes more and more acclimatized to the low PO2, so it causes fewer deleterious effects on the body.

      After acclimatization, it becomes possible for the person to work harder without hypoxic effects or to ascend to still higher altitudes. The principal means by which acclimatization comes about are (1) a great increase in pulmonary ventilation, (2) increased numbers of red blood cells, (3) diffusing capacity of the lungs, (4) increased vascularity of the peripheral tissues, and (5) increased ability of the tissue cells to use oxygen despite low PO2.

      The cardiac output often increases as much as 30% immediately after a person ascends to high altitude but then decreases back toward normal over a period of weeks as the blood haematocrit increases, so the amount of oxygen transported to the peripheral body tissues remains about normal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      40.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which statement is the most accurate when describing electrical equipment and shock? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement is the most accurate when describing electrical equipment and shock?

      Your Answer: Type CF is considered to safe for direct connection with the heart

      Explanation:

      There are different classes of electrical equipment that can be classified in the table below:

      Class 1 – provides basic protection only. It must be connected to earth and insulated from the mains supply

      Class II – provides double insulation for all equipment. It does not require an earth.

      Class III – uses safety extra low voltage (SELV) which does not exceed 24 V AC. There is no risk of gross electrocution but risk of microshock exists.

      Type B – All of above with low leakage currents (0.5mA for Class IB, 0.1 mA for Class IIB)

      Type BF – Same as with other equipment but has ‘floating circuit’ which means that the equipment applied to patient is isolated from all its other parts.

      Type CF – Class I or II equipment with ‘floating circuits’ that is considered to be safe for direct connection with the heart. There are extremely low leakage currents (0.05mA for Class I CF and 0.01mA for Class II CF)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - What is the most sensitive method of detecting an intra-operative air embolism? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most sensitive method of detecting an intra-operative air embolism?

      Your Answer: Transoesophageal echocardiogram

      Explanation:

      An intra-operative air embolism occurs when air becomes trapped in the blood vessels during surgery.

      A transoesophageal echocardiography (OE) uses invasive echocardiography to monitor the integrity and performance of the heart. It is the gold standard as it provides real-time imaging of the heart to enable early diagnosis and treatment.

      Precordial doppler ultrasonography can also be used to detect into-operative air emboli. It is non-invasive and more practical, but is less sensitive.

      A change in end-tidal CO2 could be indicative of and increase in physiological dead-space, but could also be indicative of any processes that reduces the excretion or increases the production of CO2, making it non-specific.

      A transoesophageal stethoscope can be used to listen for the classic mill-wheel murmur produced by a large air embolus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      31
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 75-year-old man, visits his general practitioner. He complains of changes to his...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man, visits his general practitioner. He complains of changes to his bowel habit and unexpected weight loss in the last 6 months. He is scheduled for a colonoscopy and biopsy where he is diagnosed with a transverse colon malignancy.

      The transverse colon is one of many organs tethered to the posterior wall of the abdominal cavity by a double fold of the peritoneum.

      Which of the listed organs is also tethered to the peritoneum in a similar way?

      Your Answer: The tail of the pancreas

      Correct Answer: The stomach

      Explanation:

      The peritoneal cavity is made up of the omentum, the ligaments and the mesentery.

      The section of the peritoneum responsible for tethering organs to the posterior abdominal wall is the mesentery.

      These tethered organs are classified as intraperitoneal, and these include the stomach, spleen, liver, first and fourth parts of the duodenum, jejunum, ileum, transverse, and sigmoid colon.

      Retroperitoneal organs are located posterior to the peritoneum and include: the rest of the duodenum, the ascending colon, the descending colon, the middle third of the rectum, and the remainder of the pancreas

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      52.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - If a large volume of 0.9% N. saline is administered during resuscitation, it...

    Incorrect

    • If a large volume of 0.9% N. saline is administered during resuscitation, it is most likely to cause?

      Your Answer: Hyperchloremic metabolic alkalosis

      Correct Answer: Hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis

      Explanation:

      Crystalloids recommended for fluid resuscitation include 0.9% N saline and Hartmann’s solution(a physiological solution). 0.9% N. saline is not a physiological solution for the following reasons:

      Compared with the normal range of 98-102 mmol/L, its chloride concentration is high (154 mmol/L)
      It lacks calcium, magnesium, glucose and potassium
      It does not have bicarbonate or bicarbonate precursor buffer necessary to maintain plasma pH within normal limits

      There is a difference in the activity (concentration) of strong ions at a physiological pH. This imbalance can explain abnormalities of acid base balance. A normal strong ion difference (SID) is in the order of 40.

      SID = ([Na+] + [K+] + [Ca2+] + [Mg2+]) – ([Cl-] + [lactate] + [SO42-])

      This imbalance is made up with the weaker anions to maintain electrical neutrality.
      Administration of a large volume of 0.9% normal saline during resuscitation results in excessive chloride administration and this impairs renal bicarbonate reabsorption. The SID of 0.9% normal saline is 0 (Na+ = 154mmol/L and Cl- = 154mmol/L = 154 – 154 = 0). A large volume of NS will decrease the plasma SID causing an acidosis.

      Other causes of a hyperchloremic acidosis are:

      Diabetic ketoacidosis
      Total Parenteral Nutrition
      Overdose of ammonium chloride and hydrochloric acid
      Gastrointestinal losses of bicarbonate like in diarrhoea and pancreatic fistula
      Proximal renal tubular acidosis with failure of bicarbonate reabsorption

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 60-year old male has anaemia and is being investigated. The most common...

    Correct

    • A 60-year old male has anaemia and is being investigated. The most common combination of globin chains in a normal adult is:

      Your Answer: α2β2

      Explanation:

      There are 4 different types of globin chains which surround 4 heme molecules in haemoglobin (Hb) – α (alpha), β (beta), γ (gamma), and δ (delta)
      α chains are essential.
      δ2β2 and β2γ2 are not found in a healthy adult.
      97% of the Hb in a healthy adult is made of α2β2 (2 α chains and 2 β chains).
      α2δ2 accounts for around 1.5-3% of the adult Hb.
      α2γ2 accounts for less than 1%.

      With respect to oxygen transport in cells, almost all oxygen is transported within erythrocytes. There is limited solubility and only 1% is carried as solution. Thus, the amount of oxygen transported depends upon haemoglobin concentration and its degree of saturation.

      Haemoglobin is a globular protein composed of 4 subunits. Haem is made up of a protoporphyrin ring surrounding an iron atom in its ferrous state. The iron can form two additional bonds – one is with oxygen and the other with a polypeptide chain. There are two alpha and two beta subunits to this polypeptide chain in an adult and together these form globin. Globin cannot bind oxygen but can bind to CO2 and hydrogen ions. The beta chains are able to bind to 2,3 diphosphoglycerate. The oxygenation of haemoglobin is a reversible reaction. The molecular shape of haemoglobin is such that binding of one oxygen molecule facilitates the binding of subsequent molecules.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      2176.9
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - The prospects of setting up a health facility to help patients with ischaemic...

    Correct

    • The prospects of setting up a health facility to help patients with ischaemic heart disease in a remote area are under consideration and you have been asked to look into it.

      What's the crucial factor in finding out the amount of resources needed to go ahead with the idea?

      Your Answer: Prevalence

      Explanation:

      Both incidence and prevalence are indicators of the disease frequency. While incidence tells us about the number of cases reported per population in a provided time period, prevalence is the factor you should be vigilant about as it tells us about the total number of cases that have been reported in a population at a particular point of time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      20.9
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 19-year-old woman presents to the emergency department. She complains of symptoms indicative...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old woman presents to the emergency department. She complains of symptoms indicative of an acute exacerbation of known 'brittle' asthma. On history, she reveals her asthma is normally controlled using inhalers and she has never had an acute exacerbation requiring hospitalisation.

      On her admission into the ICU, further examination and diagnostic investigations are conducted. Her readings are:

      Physical state: Alert, anxious and non-cyanotic.
      Respiratory rate: 30 breaths/min
      Pulse: 120 beats/min
      Blood pressure: 150/90 mmHg
      SPO2: 95% on air
      Auscultation: Quiet breath sounds at both lung bases

      What is the next most important step of investigation?

      Your Answer: Erect chest x ray

      Correct Answer: Peak expiratory flow rate

      Explanation:

      Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) is the maximum speed of air flow generated during a single forced exhaled breath. It is most useful when expressed as a percentage of the best value obtained from the patient.

      Forced expiratory volume over 1 second (FEV1) is a lung parameter measured using spirometry. It is the amount of air forced out of the lung in one exhaled breath. It is a more accurate measure of lung obstructions as it doesn’t rely on effort like PEFR

      PEFR and FEV1 are usually similar, but become more different in asthmatic patients as airflow becomes increasingly obstructed.

      Acute severe asthma is most often diagnosed on history taking and examinations:

      Respiratory rate: >25 breaths/min
      Heart rate: >110 beats/min
      PEFR: 33 – 50% predicted (<200L/min)
      Patient state: Unable to complete a sentence in a single breath.

      A chest x-ray is not routinely required, and is only indicated in specific circumstances, which are:

      If a pneumomediastinum or pneumothorax is suspected
      Possible life threatening asthma
      Possible consolidation
      Unresponsive asthma
      If ventilation is required.

      An echocardiograph (ECG) is not necessary in this case

      Routine haematological and biochemical investigations are not urgent in this case as any abnormalities they detect will be secondary to the patient’s presentation.

      An arterial blood gas (ABG) will only be indicated if SPO2 was <92% or if patient presented with life threatening symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      59.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A chain smoker is interested in knowing how many years of his life...

    Incorrect

    • A chain smoker is interested in knowing how many years of his life would be lessened by smoking. You tell him explicitly that precise determination is impossible but you can tell him the proportion of people who died due to smoking. Which of the following epidemiological term is apt in this regard?

      Your Answer: Relative risk - the risk of an event relative to exposure.

      Correct Answer: Attributable risk - the rate in the exposed group minus the rate in the unexposed group

      Explanation:

      Attributable proportion is the proportion of disease that is caused due to exposure. It refers to the proportion of disease that would be eradicated from a particular population if the disease rate was diminished to match that of the unexposed group.

      Risk ratio (relative risk) compares the probability of an event in an exposed (experimental) group to that of an event in the unexposed (control) group. Thus two are not the same.

      The attributable risk is the rate of a disease in an exposed group to that of a group that has not been exposed to it i.e. how many deaths did the exposure cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      24.3
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which of the following best describes why phenytoin's hepatic extraction ratio is low? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following best describes why phenytoin's hepatic extraction ratio is low?

      Your Answer: It has an extensive first pass metabolism when given orally

      Correct Answer: It has a clearance that is insensitive to changes in liver blood flow

      Explanation:

      The following are the pharmacokinetic properties of drugs with a low hepatic extraction ratio:

      Changes in liver blood flow have no effect on drug clearance.
      When given orally, drug clearance is extremely sensitive to changes in protein binding, intrinsic metabolism, and excretion, and there is no first-pass metabolism.

      Warfarin and phenytoin are two drugs with low hepatic extraction ratios.

      The following are the pharmacokinetic properties of drugs with a high hepatic extraction ratio:

      When taken orally, undergo extensive first-pass metabolism; drug clearance is dependent on liver blood flow, and drug clearance is less sensitive to changes in protein binding and intrinsic metabolism.

      Morphine, lidocaine, propranolol, and etomidate are examples of drugs with high hepatic extraction ratios.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      188.2
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A caudal anaesthetic block is planned for a 3-year-old girl presenting for inguinal...

    Correct

    • A caudal anaesthetic block is planned for a 3-year-old girl presenting for inguinal hernia repair. Choose the best answer that explains why the caudal epidural space is accessed via the sacral hiatus.

      Your Answer: The failure of fusion of the laminae of S4 and S5 provides a suitable point of entry

      Explanation:

      The sacral hiatus is shaped by incomplete midline fusion of the posterior elements of the distal portion of S4 and S5. This inverted U shaped space is covered by the posterior aspect of the sacrococcygeal membrane and is an important landmark in caudal anaesthetic block. Distal most portion of the dural sac and the sacral hiatus usually terminate between levels S1 and S3. The dural sac ends at the level of S2 in adults and S3 in children.

      An equilateral triangle is formed between the apex of the sacral hiatus and the posterior superior iliac spines. This triangle is used to determine the location of the sacral hiatus during caudal anaesthetic block.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      34.1
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which of the following statements is true regarding alfentanil? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding alfentanil?

      Your Answer: Is less lipid soluble than fentanyl

      Explanation:

      Alfentanil is less lipid-soluble than fentanyl and thus is less permeable to the membrane making it less potent.

      Alfentanil is a phenylpiperidine opioid analgesic with rapid onset and shorter duration of action.

      Alfentanil has less volume of distribution due to its high plasma protein binding (92%)

      It can cause respiratory depression and can cause sedation

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      19.4
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Your manager asks you to inform patients that are suffering from a chronic...

    Incorrect

    • Your manager asks you to inform patients that are suffering from a chronic pain about a trial that is going to be conducted in order to determine the efficacy of a novel analgesic. What phase is the trial currently in?

      Your Answer: Phase 1

      Correct Answer: Phase 2

      Explanation:

      Phase 0 trials assist the scientists in studying the behaviour of drugs in humans by micro dosing patients. They are used to speed up the developmental process. They have no measurable therapeutic effect and efficiency.

      Phase 1 is associated with assessing whether a drug is safe to use or not. The process is extensive and can take up to several months. It also involves healthy participants (less than 100) that are paid to take part in the study. The side effects upon increasing dosage are also addressed by the study. The effects the drug has on humans including how its absorbed, metabolized and excreted are studied. Approximately 70% of the drugs pass this phase.

      Phase 2 trials involve patients that are suffering from the disease under study and are associated with determining the efficiency and the optimum dosage of the drug.

      Phase 3 also assesses the efficacy but at a higher scale with larger population sample.

      Phase 4 trials are involved with the long term effects and side effects of the drug.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      16.6
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - The immediate physiological response to massive perioperative blood loss is: ...

    Correct

    • The immediate physiological response to massive perioperative blood loss is:

      Your Answer: Stimulation of baroreceptors in carotid sinus and aortic arch

      Explanation:

      With regards to compensatory response to blood loss, the following sequence of events take place:

      1. Decrease in venous return, right atrial pressure and cardiac output
      2. Baroreceptor reflexes (carotid sinus and aortic arch) are immediately activated
      3. There is decreased afferent input to the cardiovascular centre in medulla. This inhibits parasympathetic reflexes and increases sympathetic response
      4. This results in an increased cardiac output and increased SVR by direct sympathetic stimulation. There is increased circulating catecholamines and local tissue mediators (adenosine, potassium, NO2)
      5. Fluid moves into the intravascular space as a result of decreased capillary hydrostatic pressure absorbing interstitial fluid.

      A slower response is mounted by the hypothalamus-pituitary-adrenal axis.
      6. Reduced renal blood flow is sensed by the intra renal baroreceptors and this stimulates release of renin by the juxta-glomerular apparatus.
      7. There is cleavage of circulating Angiotensinogen to Angiotensin I, which is converted to Angiotensin II in the lungs (by Angiotensin Converting Enzyme ACE)

      Angiotensin II is a powerful vasoconstrictor that sets off other endocrine pathways.
      8. The adrenal cortex releases Aldosterone
      9. There is antidiuretic hormone release from posterior pituitary (also in response to hypovolaemia being sensed by atrial stretch receptors)
      10. This leads to sodium and water retention in the distal convoluted renal tubule to conserve fluid
      Fluid conservation is also aided by an increased amount of cortisol which is secreted in response to the increase in circulating catecholamines and sympathetic stimulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      38.7
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - All of the following statements are true regarding calcium except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statements are true regarding calcium except:

      Your Answer: Trousseau's sign is when inflation of tourniquet induces carpopedal spasm

      Correct Answer: Serum calcium accounts for 10% of total body calcium stores

      Explanation:

      Calcium is a very important ion and is involved in:
      -cell homeostasis
      -coagulation
      -muscle contraction
      -neuronal impulse transmission/membrane stabilization
      -bone formation and skeletal strength
      -secretion processes

      99% is found in bone and 1% in the plasma. Of the 1% that is in the plasma
      -45% is free ionized calcium
      -45% is bound to proteins, mainly Albumin
      -10% is present as an anion complex

      Reduced levels of IONIZED calcium give rise to features of hypocalcaemia , resulting in increased excitability of membranes. This results when the total calcium concentration goes below 2 mmol/L.

      Features of mild to moderate hypocalcaemia are:
      -paraesthesia (peri-oral, fingers)
      -tetany
      -spasm
      -muscle cramps
      -ECG changes (prolonged QT)
      -Trousseau’s sign (inflation of tourniquet induces carpopedal spasm)
      -Chvostek’s sign (tapping the facial nerve – cranial nerve VII – causes facial muscle twitch/spasm)

      Features of severe hypocalcaemia are:
      -cardiogenic shock and congestive cardiac failure due to reduced myocardial contractility
      respiratory distress due to bronchospasm, agitation, confusion, seizures

      Features of hypercalcaemia (remember ‘bones, stones, groans and psychic moans’):
      -Abdominal pain
      -Vomiting
      -Constipation
      -Polyuria
      -Polydipsia
      -Depression
      -Lethargy
      -Anorexia
      -Weight loss
      -Hypertension
      -Confusion
      -Pyrexia
      -Calcification in the cornea
      -Renal stones
      -Renal failure
      -Decreased Q-T interval
      -Cardiac shock/collapse

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      16.8
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Concerning drug dose and response, one of the following statements is correct? ...

    Correct

    • Concerning drug dose and response, one of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer: Intrinsic activity determines maximal response

      Explanation:

      Dose response curves are plotted as % response to drug against Logarithm of drug concentration. The graph is usually sigmoid shaped.

      Any drug that has high affinity and high intrinsic activity is likely an agonist. A drug with high affinity but no intrinsic activity will act as an antagonist. Displacement of an agonist also depends on the relative concentrations of the two drugs at the receptor sites.

      Maximal response may be achieved by activation of a small proportion of receptor sites.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - The structure most likely to be damaged during cannulation of the subclavian vein...

    Incorrect

    • The structure most likely to be damaged during cannulation of the subclavian vein is?

      Your Answer: Pleura

      Correct Answer: Subclavian artery

      Explanation:

      The subclavian artery lies behind and partly above the subclavian vein. 3-4% of the time, it can be inadvertently cannulated during cannulation of the subclavian vein

      Because of its anatomical position, putting pressure on the subclavian artery is impossible so arresting bleeding with pressure when it is punctured is not viable.

      One of the consequences of subclavian vein cannulation (1%) is pleural puncture leading to a pneumothorax. This is because the apical pleura is inferior and caudal to the subclavian vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which of the following would most likely explain a failed post-operative analgesia via...

    Correct

    • Which of the following would most likely explain a failed post-operative analgesia via local anaesthesia of a neck abscess?

      Your Answer: pKA

      Explanation:

      For the local anaesthetic base to be stable in solution, it is formulated as a hydrochloride salt. As such, the molecules exist in a quaternary, water-soluble state at the time of injection. However, this form will not penetrate the neuron. The time for onset of local anaesthesia is therefore predicated on the proportion of molecules that convert to the tertiary, lipid-soluble structure when exposed to physiologic pH (7.4).

      The ionization constant (pKa) for the anaesthetic predicts the proportion of molecules that exists in each of these states. By definition, the pKa of a molecule represents the pH at which 50% of the molecules exist in the lipid-soluble tertiary form and 50% in the quaternary, water-soluble form. The pKa of all local anaesthetics is >7.4 (physiologic pH), and therefore a greater proportion the molecules exists in the quaternary, water-soluble form when injected into tissue having normal pH of 7.4.

      Furthermore, the acidic environment associated with inflamed tissues favours the quaternary, water-soluble configuration even further. Presumably, this accounts for difficulty when attempting to anesthetize inflamed or infected tissues; fewer molecules exist as tertiary lipid-soluble forms that can penetrate nerves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A graph is created to show the exponential relationship between bacterial growth (y-axis)...

    Incorrect

    • A graph is created to show the exponential relationship between bacterial growth (y-axis) and time (x-axis).

      Which of the following statements is most true about this kind of exponential relationship?

      Your Answer: Is an example of a build-up exponential

      Correct Answer: y = ex

      Explanation:

      The relationship between bacterial growth and time is a tear-away exponential. The mathematical relationship between y and x in this case is:

      y = ex

      Where: the power is x, and the base is e.

      Euler’s number (e) is a mathematical constant that is the base for all logarithms occurring naturally. Its value is 2.718.

      The statement X increasing with an increase in Y is proportional to Y refers to the change in y in terms of x when considering any exponential relationship.

      This is not a build-up exponential, and that is mathematically stated as y = 1-e-kt.

      The negative x axis being a horizontal asymptote and the y intercept being 0, 1 are examples of tearaway exponentials , but do not describe an exponential process.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      26
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A measuring system's response to change is complex, yet it can be mathematically modelled.

    Which of the following terms best characterises a pressure transducer's responsiveness to blood pressure changes?

    ...

    Incorrect

    • A measuring system's response to change is complex, yet it can be mathematically modelled.

      Which of the following terms best characterises a pressure transducer's responsiveness to blood pressure changes?

      Your Answer: Zero-offset drift

      Correct Answer: Dynamic second-order response

      Explanation:

      The static-response defines how a measuring system behaves while it is in equilibrium (i.e. when the measured values are not changing). If the value being measured changes over time, the reaction of a measuring system will change as well which would be a dynamic response.
      The dynamic response of a measuring system can be subdivided into zero-order, first-order and second-order responses:

      Zero-order:
      Consider a thermometer that has been left in a room for a week. The thermometer will display the current ambient temperature when you enter the room.

      First-order:
      Consider the use of a mercury thermometer to check a patient’s temperature. It is comprised of a mercury column that expands as it warms up. The scale’s initial temperature is room temperature, but when it’s placed under the patient’s tongue, the temperature readings rise until they reach body temperature.

      Second-order
      Consider putting weights on a mechanical weighing scale. The weight as reported on the measuring dial, will wobble around the correct value at first until reaching equilibrium. An example of this is in clinical practice is the direct measurement of arterial pressure with a transducer. The value of the input fluctuates around a central point.

      Drift is the progressive deterioration of a measurement system’s precision. With time, the measurement deviates from the genuine, calibrated value. The graph between this measurement and the real value should, ideally, be linear (e.g. on the y-axis the measured end-tidal CO2 against true value of the end-tidal CO2). Drift is split into three types: zero-offset, gradient, and zonal drift.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      74.7
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - From the following electromagnetic waves, which one has the shortest wavelength? ...

    Correct

    • From the following electromagnetic waves, which one has the shortest wavelength?

      Your Answer: X rays

      Explanation:

      Electromagnetic waves are categorized according to their frequency or equivalently according to their wavelength. Visible light makes up a small part of the full electromagnetic spectrum.

      Electromagnetic waves with shorter wavelengths and higher frequencies include ultraviolet light, X-rays, and gamma rays. Electromagnetic waves with longer wavelengths and lower frequencies include infrared light, microwaves, and radio and televisions waves.

      Different electromagnetic waves according to their wavelength from shorter to longer are X-rays, ultraviolet radiations, visible light, infrared radiation, radio waves. X-ray among electromagnetic waves has the shortest wavelength and higher frequency with wavelengths ranging from 10*-8 to 10* -12 and corresponding frequencies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      12.5
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Basic Physics (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (4/6) 67%
Anatomy (3/6) 50%
Statistical Methods (1/5) 20%
Clinical Measurement (1/3) 33%
Pathophysiology (2/2) 100%
Physiology (1/2) 50%
Physiology And Biochemistry (2/3) 67%
Anaesthesia Related Apparatus (1/2) 50%
Passmed