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Question 1
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An 81-year-old male presented to the emergency department following a fall at home. He was diagnosed with osteoporosis about five years ago. He presently complains of significant low back pain.
A lumbar spine X-ray was suggestive of a fractured lumbar vertebra.
A subsequent MRI scan of the lumbosacral spine revealed a new L3 burst fracture with no evidence of cord compression.
A neurosurgical consult was sought and conservative management was planned accordingly in the form of pain control, physiotherapy, and mobilization (as allowed by the pain).
He also has been diagnosed with chronic renal disease (stage IV) with a creatinine clearance of 21 ml/min, he was started on a Buprenorphine patch.
Which of the following opioids would be safest to use for his breakthrough pain?Your Answer: Diamorphine
Correct Answer: Oxycodone
Explanation:Oxycodone is a safer opioid to use in patients with moderate to end-stage renal failure.
Active metabolites of morphine accumulate in renal failure which means that long-term use is contraindicated in patients with moderate/severe renal failure.
These toxic metabolites can accumulate causing toxicity and risk overdose.
Oxycodone is mainly metabolised in the liver and thus safer to use in patients with moderate to end-stage renal failure with dose reductions.
Adverse effects:
Constipation is the most common overall side effect. Others include: asthenia, dizziness, dry mouth, headache, nausea, pruritus, etc.Medications in renal failure:
Drugs to be avoided in patients with renal failure
Antibiotics: tetracycline, nitrofurantoin
NSAIDs
Lithium
Metformin
Drugs that require dose adjustment:
Most antibiotics including penicillin, cephalosporins, vancomycin, gentamicin, streptomycin
Digoxin, atenolol
Methotrexate
Sulphonylureas
Furosemide
Opioids
Relatively safe drugs:
Antibiotics: erythromycin, rifampicin
Diazepam
Warfarin -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Geriatric Medicine
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old female presented with a lump in the upper outer quadrant of her left breast, which is 1.5cm in size and tender. What is the initial investigation to be done?
Your Answer: FNAC
Correct Answer: Ultrasound
Explanation:Tenderness is usually suggestive of a benign breast mass such as a breast abscess. Ultrasound is used to distinguish solid from cystic structures and to direct needle aspiration for abscess drainage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Women's Health
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Question 3
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A 3-year-old girl presents to A&E following a few days of being lethargic, having runny nose, sore throat, and fever. She has unceasing stridor and drooling of saliva while her body is inclined forward. What is the most important next step in her management?
Your Answer: Antibiotics IV
Correct Answer: Call ENT specialist
Explanation:A consultation with an ENT is required to establish the reason for the child’s drooling and stridor indicating and obstructive process. Enlarged tonsils and adenoids should be checked.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency & Critical Care
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man presented with difficulty in breathing. On examination he was severely dyspnoeic and tachycardic. What is the clinical sign that would favour the diagnosis of cardiac tamponade over constrictive pericarditis?
Your Answer: Muffled heart sounds
Correct Answer: Pulsus paradoxus
Explanation:Pulsus paradoxus is defined as the exaggerated fall in systolic blood pressure during inspiration by greater than 10 mmHg. Cardiac tamponade is the classic cause of pulsus paradoxus. Kussmaul’s sign (a rise in the jugular venous pressure on inspiration) is mostly seen in constrictive pericarditis. Hypotension, muffled heart sounds and raised JVP can be seen in both conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man is found incidentally to have hypercalcaemia during a routine health screen.
Which one of the following biochemical findings would be most suggestive of primary hyperparathyroidism rather than any other cause of hypercalcaemia?Your Answer: Elevated serum alkaline phosphatase activity
Correct Answer: Serum PTH concentration within the normal range
Explanation:Primary hyperparathyroidism (PHPT) is diagnosed based upon levels of blood calcium and parathyroid hormone (PTH). In most people with PHPT, both levels are higher than normal. Occasionally, a person may have an elevated calcium level and a normal or minimally elevated PTH level. Since PTH should normally be low when calcium is elevated, a minimally elevated PTH is considered abnormal and indicates PHPT.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 6
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A 71-year-old woman with a medical history of a blood transfusion in the early 1980s presents with a 10 month history of malaise and is noted to have impaired renal function. Her urine sediment reveals red cell casts.
The results of immunological investigations are as follows: serum IgG 6.5 g/L (normal range 6-13), IgA 1.5 g/L (normal range 0.8-4.0), IgM 5.7 g/L (normal range 0.4-2.0), serum electrophoresis shows a faint band in the gamma region, complement C3 1.02 g/L (normal range 0.75-1.65), complement C4 <0.02 g/L (normal range 0.20-0.65), and rheumatoid factor 894 IU/L (normal range <40).
Which of the following investigations is likely to be most important in making a definitive diagnosis?Your Answer: Cryoglobulins
Explanation:The patient’s history of a blood transfusion and lab results showing a markedly low C4 (with normal C3), elevated rheumatoid factor, and elevated serum IgM is highly suggestive of hepatitis C-associated cryoglobulinaemic vasculitis. Testing for Cryoglobulins will confirm this suspicion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man presents with tiredness and central weight gain.
He underwent pituitary surgery for a non-functional pituitary tumour two years ago. Although he recovered from his pituitary surgery well, he has been found to have complete anterior hypopituitarism. Accordingly he is receiving stable replacement therapy with testosterone monthly injections, thyroxine and hydrocortisone.
On examination, there are no specific abnormalities, his vision is 6/9 in both eyes and he has no visual field defects.
From his notes, you see that he has gained 8 kg in weight over the last six months and his BMI is 31. His blood pressure is 122/72 mmHg.
Thyroid function tests and testosterone concentrations have been normal. A postoperative MRI scan report shows that the pituitary tumour has been adequately cleared with no residual tissue.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of his current symptoms?Your Answer: Depression
Correct Answer: Growth hormone deficiency
Explanation:The somatotroph cells of the anterior pituitary gland produce growth hormone (GH).
GH deficiency in adults usually manifests as reduced physical performance and impaired psychological well-being. It results in alterations in the physiology of different systems of the body, manifesting as altered lipid metabolism, increased subcutaneous and visceral fat, decreased muscle mass, decreased bone density, low exercise performance, and reduced quality of life. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman presents to the clinic with nausea, thirst and dehydration. She mentioned that she has an uncle with previous parathyroid gland excision and a cousin who has recently been diagnosed with insulinoma.
On examination, her BP is 135/72 mmHg, her pulse is 70/min and regular, her BMI is 20. Cardiovascular, respiratory and abdominal examinations are unremarkable.
Investigations show:
Hb 12.6 g/dl
WCC 5.4 x109/l
PLT 299 x109/l
Na+ 139 mmol/l
K+ 4.4 mmol/l
Creatinine 121 ىmol/l
Albumin 37 g/l
Ca++ 2.95 mmol/l
PTH 18 (normal<10)
Which of the following is the most likely cause of her raised calcium?Your Answer: MEN 2a
Correct Answer: Parathyroid hyperplasia
Explanation:The combination of Insulinoma and Parathyroid diseases is suggestive of MEN 1 syndrome.
Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 (MEN1) is a rare hereditary tumour syndrome inherited in an autosomal dominant manner and characterized by a predisposition to a multitude of endocrine neoplasms primarily of parathyroid, entero-pancreatic, and anterior pituitary origin, as well as non-endocrine neoplasms.
Other endocrine tumours in MEN1 include foregut carcinoid tumours, adrenocortical tumours, and rarely pheochromocytoma. Nonendocrine manifestations include meningiomas and ependymomas, lipomas, angiofibromas, collagenomas, and leiomyomas.Primary hyperparathyroidism (PHPT), due to parathyroid hyperplasia is the most frequent and usually the earliest expression of MEN-1, with a typical age of onset at 20-25 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 9
Correct
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A 44-year-old female is admitted to the emergency with dyspnoea, syncope, fever and arthropathy. She was recently diagnosed with pulmonary emboli. Cardiovascular examination reveals an early diastolic sound with a mid diastolic rumble. The JVP is found to be elevated and there are prominent a waves. Which of the following would be the most likely cause of her symptoms?
Your Answer: Atrial myxoma
Explanation:Cardiac myxomas are the most common type of primary tumour of the heart. They are usually benign and arise from primary connective tissue. Most cardiac myxomas arise sporadically; however, 10% are hereditary (following an autosomal dominant pattern). Even though they may develop in any chamber of the heart, most (+-75 %) cardiac myxomas arise in the left atrium, usually from the interatrial septum, while the rest occur in the right atrium (ventricular myxomas are rare). Clinical features are primarily caused by obstruction of the blood flow through the heart and include dyspnoea on exertion, palpitations, syncope, weight loss, or even sudden death. Rarely, life-threatening conditions (e.g., stroke) may result from an embolization from the myxoma. Typical examination findings include abnormal heart sounds, such as a rumbling diastolic murmur over the apex or a characteristic tumour plop.
The diagnosis is not easily established clinically because of the nonspecific nature of symptoms. Echocardiography is the diagnostic procedure of choice. Surgical resection of the tumour is the curative treatment of choice. The prognosis is usually favourable, but tumours can recur after inadequate resection. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 10
Correct
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A 3 month old infant born to HIV positive mother presented with jaundice, epileptic seizures and microcephaly. The most likely cause will be?
Your Answer: Cytomegalovirus
Explanation:Congenital cytomegalovirus infection causes; jaundice, hepatosplenomegaly, petechia, microcephaly, hearing loss and seizures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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