-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
Comparing pressure-volume curves in patients during an asthma attack with that of healthy subjects.
The increased resistive work of breathing in the patients with asthma is best indicated by?Your Answer: Longer expiratory time
Correct Answer: Larger hysteresis loop
Explanation:A major source of caloric expenditure and oxygen consumption in the body is work of breathing (WOB) and 70% of this is to overcome elastic forces. The remaining 30% is for flow-resistive work
In a normal patient breathing normally, the total area of hysteresis pressure volume curve represents the flow-resistive WOB.
The area of the expiratory resistive work increases during an asthma attack making the compliance curve larger in area. The larger the area the greater the work required to breathe.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
The Fick principle can be used to determine the blood flow to any organ of the body.
At rest, which one of these organs has the highest blood flow (ml/min/100g)?Your Answer: Brain
Correct Answer: Thyroid gland
Explanation:After the carotid body, the thyroid gland is the second most richly vascular organ in the body.
The global blood flow to the thyroid gland can be measured using:
1. Colour ultrasound sonography
2. Quantitative perfusion maps using MRI of the thyroid gland using an arterial spin labelling (ASL) method.This table shows the blood flow to various organs of the body at rest:
Organ Blood Flow(ml/minute/100g)
Hepatoportal 58
Kidney 420
Brain 54
Skin 13
Skeletal muscle 2.7
Heart 87
Carotid body 2000
Thyroid gland 560 -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statement is true regarding hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction (HPV)?
Your Answer: Increases ventilation/perfusion mismatch
Correct Answer: 20 parts per million (ppm) of nitric oxide will reduce hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction
Explanation:Hypoxic Pulmonary vasoconstriction (HPV) reflects the constriction of small pulmonary arteries in response to hypoxic alveoli (.i.e.; PO2 below 80-100mmHg or 11-13kPa).
These blood vessels become independent of the nerve stimulus, when blood with a high PO2 flows through the lung which contains a low alveolar PO2.
Thus a low PO2 within the alveoli has been shown to impact on hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction (HPV) more than a low PO2 within the blood.
HPV results in the blood flow being directed away from poorly ventilated areas of the lung and helps to reduce the ventilation/perfusion mismatch (not increase).
In animals, volatile anaesthetic agents can diminish HPV, while in adults, the evidence proves less persuading, in spite of the fact that it certainly doesn’t strengthen the effects.
HPV response will be suppressed by 20 parts per million (ppm) of nitric oxide.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
Which statement best describes the bispectral index (BIS)?
Your Answer: It decreases during normal sleep
Explanation:The bispectral index (BIS) is one of several systems used in anaesthesiology as of 2003 to measure the effects of specific anaesthetic drugs on the brain and to track changes in the patient’s level of sedation or hypnosis. It is a complex mathematical algorithm that allows a computer inside an anaesthesia monitor to analyse data from a patient’s electroencephalogram (EEG) during surgery. It is a dimensionless number (0-100) that is a summative measurement of time domain, frequency domain and high order spectral parameters derived from electroencephalogram (EEG) signals.
Sleep and anaesthesia have similar behavioural characteristics but are physiologically different but BIS monitors can be used to measure sleep depth. With increasing sleep depth during slow-wave sleep, BIS levels decrease. This correlates with changes in regional cerebral blood flow when measured using positron emission tomography (PET).
BIS shows a dose-response relationship with the intravenous and volatile anaesthetic agents. Opioids produce a clinical change in the depth of sedation or analgesia but fail to produce significant changes in the BIS. Ketamine increases CMRO2 and EEG activity.
BIS is unable to predict movement in response to a surgical stimulus. Some of these are spinal reflexes and not perceived by the cerebral cortex.
BIS is used during cardiopulmonary bypass to measure depth of anaesthesia and an index of cerebral perfusion. However, it cannot predict subtle or significant cerebral damage.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statement is true or false regarding to the respiratory tract?
Your Answer: The trachea starts at the lower end of the thyroid cartilage at the level of the sixth cervical vertebra
Correct Answer: The sympathetic innervation of the bronchi is derived from T2 - T4
Explanation:The diaphragm has three opening through which different structures pass from the thoracic cavity to the abdominal cavity:
Inferior vena cava passes at the level of T8.
Oesophagus, oesophageal vessels and vagi at T10.
Aorta, thoracic duct and azygous vein through T12.
Sympathetic trunk and pulmonary branches of vagus nerve form a posterior pulmonary plexus at the root of the lung. Fibres continue posteriorly from superficial cardiac plexus to form Anterior pulmonary plexus. It contains vagi nerves and superficial cardiac plexus. These fibres then follow the blood vessel and bronchi into the lungs.
The lower border of the pleura is at the level of:
8th rib in the midclavicular line
10th rib in the lower level of midaxillary line
T12 at its termination.
Both lungs have oblique fissure while right lung has transverse fissure too.
The trachea expands from the lower edge of the cricoid cartilage (at the level of the 6th cervical vertebra) to the carina.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
In the erect position, the partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli (PAO2) is higher in the apical lung units than in the basal lung units.
What is the most significant reason for this?Your Answer: The basal lung units are better perfused than apical units
Correct Answer: The V/Q ratio of apical units is greater than that of basal units
Explanation:In any alveolar unit, the V/Q ratio affects alveolar oxygen (PAO2) and carbon dioxide tension (PACO2).
The partial pressure of alveolar carbon dioxide (PACO2) is plotted against the partial pressure of alveolar oxygen in a Ventilation-Perfusion (V/Q) ratio graph (PAO2). Given a set of model assumptions, the curve represents all of the possible values for PACO2 and PAO2 that an individual alveolus could have.
In the case of an infinity V/Q ratio (ventilation but no perfusion or dead space), the PACO2 of the alveolus will equal zero, while the PAO2 will approach that of external air (150mmmHg). At the apex of the lung, the V/Q ratio is 3.3, compared to 0.67 at the base.
PACO2 and PAO2 approach the partial pressures for these gases in the venous blood when the V/Q ratio is zero (no ventilation but perfusion). At the base of the lung, the V/Q ratio is 0.67, whereas at the apex, it is 3.3.
PAO2 at the apex is typically 132mmHg, and PACO2 is typically 28mmHg.
The average PAO2 at the base is 89 mmHg, while the average PACO2 is 42 mmHg.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 8
Correct
-
All of the following statements about cerebrospinal fluid are incorrect except:
Your Answer: Has a glucose concentration 2/3 that of the plasma glucose
Explanation:The pH of CSF is 7.31 which is lower than plasma.
Compared to plasma, it has a lower concentration of potassium, calcium, and protein and a higher concentration of sodium, chloride, bicarbonate and magnesium.
CSF usually has no cells present but if white cells are present, there should be no more than 4/ml.
The pressure of CSF should be less than 20 cm of water.
The concentration of glucose is approximately two-thirds of that of plasma, and it has a concentration of approximately 3.3-4 mmol/L.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
Which of the following would most likely explain a failed post-operative analgesia via local anaesthesia of a neck abscess?
Your Answer: Inadequate dose of local anaesthetic
Correct Answer: pKA
Explanation:For the local anaesthetic base to be stable in solution, it is formulated as a hydrochloride salt. As such, the molecules exist in a quaternary, water-soluble state at the time of injection. However, this form will not penetrate the neuron. The time for onset of local anaesthesia is therefore predicated on the proportion of molecules that convert to the tertiary, lipid-soluble structure when exposed to physiologic pH (7.4).
The ionization constant (pKa) for the anaesthetic predicts the proportion of molecules that exists in each of these states. By definition, the pKa of a molecule represents the pH at which 50% of the molecules exist in the lipid-soluble tertiary form and 50% in the quaternary, water-soluble form. The pKa of all local anaesthetics is >7.4 (physiologic pH), and therefore a greater proportion the molecules exists in the quaternary, water-soluble form when injected into tissue having normal pH of 7.4.
Furthermore, the acidic environment associated with inflamed tissues favours the quaternary, water-soluble configuration even further. Presumably, this accounts for difficulty when attempting to anesthetize inflamed or infected tissues; fewer molecules exist as tertiary lipid-soluble forms that can penetrate nerves.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 10
Correct
-
The SI unit of energy is the joule. Energy can be kinetic, potential, electrical or chemical energy.
Which of these correlates with the most energy?Your Answer: Energy released when 1 kg fat is metabolised to CO2 and water (the energy content of fat is 37 kJ/g)
Explanation:The derived unit of energy, work or amount of heat is joule (J). It is defined as the amount of energy expended if a force of one newton (N) is applied through a distance of one metre (N·m)
J = 1 kg·m/s2·m = 1 kg·m2/s2 or 1 kg·m2·s-2
Kinetic energy (KE) = ½ MV2
An object with a mass of 1500 kg moving at 30 m/s correlates to 675 kJ:
KE = ½ (1500) × (30)2 = 750 × 900 = 675 kJ
Total energy released when 1 kg fat is metabolised to CO2 and water is 37 MJ. 1 g fat produces 37 kJ/g, therefore 1 kg fat produces 37,000 × 1000 = 37 MJ.
Raising the temperature of 1 kg water from 0°C to 100°C correlates to 420 kJ. The amount of energy needed to change the temperature of 1 kg of the substance by 1°C is the specific heat capacity. We have 1 kg water therefore:
4,200 J × 100 = 420,000 J = 420 kJ
In order to calculate the energy involved in raising a 100 kg mass to a height of 1 km against gravity, we need to calculate the potential energy (PE) of the mass:
PE = mass × height attained × acceleration due to gravity
PE = 100 kg × 1000 m × 10 m/s2 = 1 MJThe heat generated when a direct current of 10 amps flows through a heating element for 10 seconds when the potential difference across the element is 1000 volts can be calculated by applying Joule’s law of heating:
Work done (WD) = V (potential difference) × I (current) × t (time)
WD = 10 × 10 × 1000 = 100 kJ -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
Regarding anti diuretic hormone (ADH), one of the following statements is correct:
Your Answer: Increases the reabsorption of water in the proximal tubule
Correct Answer: Increases the total amount of electrolyte free water in the body
Explanation:The major action of ADH is to increase reabsorption of osmotically unencumbered water from the glomerular filtrate and decreases the volume of urine passed. The osmolarity of urine is increased to a maximum of four times that of plasma (approx. 1200 mOsm/kg) by Increasing water reabsorption.
Chronic water loading, Lithium, potassium deficiency, cortisol and calcium excess, all blunt the action of ADH. This leads to nephrogenic diabetes insipidus.
ADH’s primary site of action is the distal tubule and collecting duct.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
Which statement is true when describing carbonic anhydrase?
Your Answer: Has 4 isoenzymes
Correct Answer: Isoenzyme IV is found in the brush border of the proximal convoluted tubule
Explanation:Carbonic anhydrase is an enzyme which contains zinc and can be found in:
1. Erythrocytes
2. Pulmonary endothelium
3. The intestine
4. Pancreas
5. Cardiac muscle and skeletal muscle.To date, there have been seven isoenzymes identified. Of note, isoenzyme IV is found in the brush border of the proximal convoluted tubule and isoenzyme II is found within the luminal cells.
Acetazolamides a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor and is used as prophylaxis against mountain sickness and in glaucoma management.
Spironolactone is a potassium diuretic and is an aldosterone antagonist.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
A 72-year old farmer is hospitalized with acute respiratory failure and autonomic dysfunction. Suspected organophosphate poisoning.
Which one is the best mechanism for acute toxicity caused by organophosphates?Your Answer: Inhibition of acetyl choline release
Correct Answer: Inhibition of acetylcholinesterase
Explanation:The toxicity of organophosphorus (OP) nerve agents is manifested through irreversible inhibition of acetylcholinesterase (AChE) at the cholinergic synapses, which stops nerve signal transmission, resulting in a cholinergic crisis and eventually death of the poisoned person. Oxime compounds used in nerve agent antidote regimen reactivate nerve agent-inhibited AChE and halt the development of this cholinergic crisis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 14
Correct
-
The following is true about the extracellular fluid (ECF) in a normal adult woman weighing 60 kg.
Your Answer: Has a total volume of about 12 litres
Explanation:Total body water (TBW) is about 50% to 70% in adults depending on how much fat is present. ECF is relatively contracted in an obese person.
The simple rule is 60-40-20. (60% of weight = total body water, 40% of body weight is ICF and 20% is ECF)
For this woman, the total body water is 36 litres (0.6 × 60). ECF is 12 litres (1/3 of TBW) and 24 litres (2/3 of TBW) is intracellular fluid .
Sodium concentration is approximately 135-145 mmol/L in the ECF.
The ECF is made up of both intravascular and extravascular fluid and plasma proteins is found in both.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
Anaesthetic awareness is most probable in general anaesthesia for which surgical operation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Emergency surgery for major trauma
Explanation:Awareness during general anaesthesia is a frightening experience, which may result in serious emotional injury and post-traumatic stress disorder.
The incidence of awareness during general anaesthesia with current anaesthetic agents and techniques has been reported as 0.2-0.4% in nonobstetric and noncardiac surgery, as 0.4% during caesarean section, and as 1.5% in cardiac surgery.
The incidence during major trauma surgery is higher. Incidence of recall has been reported to be as high as 11-43% in major trauma cases.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
One litre of water at 0°C and a pressure of 1 bar is in a water-bath. A 1 kW element is used in heating it.
Given that the specific heat capacity of water is 4181 J/(kg°C) or J/(kg K), how long will it take to raise the temperature of the water by 10°C?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 42 seconds
Explanation: -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
Following a near drowning accident, a 5-year-old child is admitted to the emergency department and advanced paediatric life support is started.
What is the child's approximate weight, according to the preferred formulae of the Resuscitation Council (UK), the European Resuscitation Council, and the Royal College of Anaesthetists?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 20-25kg
Explanation:For estimating a child’s weight, the Resuscitation Council (UK) and European Resuscitation Council teach the following formula:
Weight = (age + 4) × 2
The weight of the child will be around 20 kg.
This formula is used in the Primary FRCA exam by the Royal College of Anaesthetists.
In ‘developed’ countries, the traditional ‘APLS formula’ for estimating weight in children based on age (wt in kg = [age+4] x 2) is acknowledged as underestimating weight by 33.4 percent on average, with the degree of underestimation increasing with increasing age.
However, more recently, the APLS formula ‘Weight=3(age)+7’ has been found to provide a mean underestimate of only 6.9%. This formula is applicable to children aged 1 to 13 years.
The estimated weight based on age using this formula is 25 kg.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
Cells use adenosine-5-triphosphate (ATP) as a coenzyme and is a source of energy.
Glucose metabolism produces the most ATP from which of the following biochemical processes?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Electron transport phosphorylation in the mitochondria
Explanation:Glycolysis occurs in the cytoplasm of the cell. It converts 1 glucose molecule (6-carbon) to pyruvate (two 3-carbon molecules) and produces 4 ATP molecules and 2NADH but uses 2 ATP in the process with an overall net energy production of 2 ATP.
Pyruvate is then oxidised to acetyl coenzyme A (generating 2 NADH per pyruvate molecule). This takes place in the mitochondria and then enters the Krebs cycle (citric acid cycle). It produces 2 ATP, 8 NADH and 2 FADH2 per glucose molecule.
Electron transport phosphorylation takes place in the mitochondria. The aim of this process is to break down NADH and FADH2 and also to pump H+ into the outer compartment of the mitochondria. It produces 32 ATP with an overall net production of 36ATP.
In anaerobic respiration which occurs in the cytoplasm, pyruvate is reduced to NAD producing 2 ATP.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
Left ventricular afterload is mostly calculated from systemic vascular resistance.
Which one of the following factors has most impact on systemic vascular resistance?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Small arterioles
Explanation:Systemic vascular resistance (SVR), also known as total peripheral resistance (TPR), is the amount of force exerted on circulating blood by the vasculature of the body. Three factors determine the force: the length of the blood vessels in the body, the diameter of the vessels, and the viscosity of the blood within them. The most important factor that determines the systemic vascular resistance (SVR) is the tone of the small arterioles.
These are otherwise known as resistance arterioles. Their diameter ranges between 100 and 450 µm. Smaller resistance vessels, less than 100 µm in diameter (pre-capillary arterioles), play a less significant role in determining SVR. They are subject to autoregulation.
Any change in the viscosity of blood and therefore flow (such as due to a change in haematocrit) might also have a small effect on the measured vascular resistance.
Changes of blood temperature can also affect blood rheology and therefore flow through resistance vessels.
Systemic vascular resistance (SVR) is measured in dynes·s·cm-5
It can be calculated from the following equation:
SVR = (mean arterial pressure − mean right atrial pressure) × 80 cardiac output
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
Intracellular effectors are activated by receptors on the cell surface. These receptors receive signals that are relayed by second messenger systems.
In the human body, which second messenger is most abundant?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Calcium ions
Explanation:Second messengers relay signals to target molecules in the cytoplasm or nucleus when an agonist interacts with a receptor on the cell surface. They also amplify the strength of the signal. The most ubiquitous and abundant second messenger is calcium and it regulates multiple cellular functions in the body.
These include:
Muscle contraction (skeletal, smooth and cardiac)
Exocytosis (neurotransmitter release at synapses and insulin secretion)
Apoptosis
Cell adhesion to the extracellular matrix
Lymphocyte activation
Biochemical changes mediated by protein kinase C.cAMP is either inhibited or stimulated by G proteins.
The receptors in the body that stimulate G proteins and increase cAMP include:
Beta (?1, ?2, and ?3)
Dopamine (D1 and D5)
Histamine (H2)
Glucagon
Vasopressin (V2).The second messenger for the action of nitric oxide (NO) and atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) is cGMP.
The second messengers for angiotensin and thyroid stimulating hormone are inositol triphosphate (IP3) and diacylglycerol (DAG).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
Which plasma protein will bind the thyroid hormone triiodothyronine (T3) more readily?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thyroxine binding globulin
Explanation:Secreted T4 and T3 circulate in the bloodstream almost entirely bound to proteins. Normally only about 0.03% of total plasma T4 and 0.3% of total plasma T3 exist in the free state. Free T3 is biologically active and mediates the effects of thyroid hormone on peripheral tissues in addition to exerting negative feedback on the pituitary and hypothalamus. The major binding protein is thyroxine-binding globulin (TBG), which is synthesized in the liver and binds one molecule of T4 or T3. About 70% of circulating T4 and T3 is bound to TBGl 10% to 15% is bound to another specific thyroid-binding protein called transthyretin (TTR). Albumin binds 15% to 20%, and 3% to lipoproteins. Ordinarily only alterations in TBG concentration significantly affect total plasma T4 and T3 levels.
Two important biological functions have been ascribed to TBG. First, it maintains a large circulating reservoir of T4 that buffers any acute changes in thyroid gland function. Second, binding of plasma T4 and T3 to proteins prevents loss of these relatively small hormone molecules in urine and thereby helps conserve iodide. TTR transports T4 in CSF and provides thyroid hormones to the CNS.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
A patient on admission is given an infusion of 1000 mL of 10% glucose and 500 mL of 20% lipid over a 24 hour period.
Which of these best approximates to the energy input over this time period?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1300 kcal
Explanation:1% solution contains 1 g of substance per 100 mL.
A solution of 10% glucose is 10 g/100mL. Therefore 1000 mL of this glucose solution will contain 100 g.
1 g of glucose yields about 4 kcal of energy. One litre of 10% glucose will therefore release approximately 4x100g = 400 kcal of energy.
A solution of 20% fat is 20 g/100mL. Therefore 1000 mL of this fat solution will have 200 g and 500 mL will contain 100 g.
1 g of fat yields approximately 9 kcal. 500 mL of 20% fat therefore has the potential to yield 900 kcal of energy.
The total energy input over this 24 hour period is approximately 400kcal + 900kcal = 1300 kcal.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
A 25-year old man needs an emergency appendicectomy and has gone to the operating room. During general anaesthesia, ventilation is achieved using a circle system with a fresh gas flow (FGF) of 1L/min, with and air/oxygen and sevoflurane combination. The capnograph trace is normal.
Changes to the end tidal and baseline CO2 measurements at 10 and 20 mins respectively are seen on the capnograph below:
10 minutes 20 minutes
End-tidal CO2 4.9 kPa 8.4 kPa
Baseline end-tidal CO2 0.2 kPa 2.4 kPa
The other vitals were as follows:
Pulse 100-105 beats per minute
Systolic blood pressure 120-133 mmHg
O2 saturation 99%.
The next most important immediate step is which of the following?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increase the FGF
Explanation:This scenario describes rebreathing management.
Changes is exhaustion of the soda lime and a progressive rise in circuit deadspace is the most likely explanation for the capnograph.
It is important that the soda lime canister is inspected for a change in colour of the granules. Initially fresh gas flow should be increased and then if necessary, replace the soda lime granules. Other strategies include changing to another circuit or bypassing the soda lime canister after the fresh gas flow is increased.
Any other causes of increased equipment deadspace should be excluded.
Intraoperative hypercarbia can be caused by:
1. Hypoventilation – Breathing spontaneously; drugs which include anaesthetic agents, opioids, residual neuromuscular blockade, pre-existing respiratory or neuromuscular disease and cerebrovascular accident.
2. Controlled ventilation- circuit leaks, disconnection, miscalculation of patient’s minute volume.
3. Rebreathing – Soda lime exhaustion with circle, inadequate fresh gas flow into Mapleson circuits, increased breathing system deadspace.
4. Endogenous source – Tourniquet release, hypermetabolic states (MH or thyroid storm) and release of vascular clamps.
5. Exogenous source – Absorption of CO2 absorption from the pneumoperitoneum. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
A common renal adverse effect of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs is?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Haemodynamic renal insufficiency
Explanation:Prostaglandins do not play a major role in regulating RBF in healthy resting individuals. However, during pathophysiological conditions such as haemorrhage and reduced extracellular fluid volume (ECVF), prostaglandins (PGI2, PGE1, and PGE2) are produced locally within the kidneys and serve to increase RBF without changing GFR. Prostaglandins increase RBF by dampening the vasoconstrictor effects of both sympathetic activation and angiotensin II. These effects are important because they prevent severe and potentially harmful vasoconstriction and renal ischemia. Synthesis of prostaglandins is stimulated by ECVF depletion and stress (e.g. surgery, anaesthesia), angiotensin II, and sympathetic nerves.
Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), such as ibuprofen and naproxen, potently inhibit prostaglandin synthesis. Thus administration of these drugs during renal ischemia and hemorrhagic shock is contraindicated because, by blocking the production of prostaglandins, they decrease RBF and increase renal ischemia. Prostaglandins also play an increasingly important role in maintaining RBF and GFR as individuals age. Accordingly, NSAIDs can significantly reduce RBF and GFR in the elderly.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
The statement that best describes lactic acidosis is:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It can be precipitated by intravenous fructose
Explanation:An elevated arterial blood lactate level and an increase anion gap ([Na + K] – [Cl + HCO3]) of >20mmol gives rise to lactic acidosis. It can also be a result of overproduction and/or reduced metabolism of lactic acid.
The liver and kidney are the main sites of lactate metabolism, not skeletal muscle.
The two types of lactic acidosis that are known are:
Type A – due to tissue hypoxia, inadequate tissue perfusion and anaerobic glycolysis. These may be seen in cardiac arrest, shock, hypoxaemia and anaemia. The management of type A lactic acidosis involves reversing the underlying cause of the tissue hypoxia.
Type B – occurs in the absence of tissue hypoxia. Some of the causes of this include hepatic failure, renal failure, diabetes mellitus, pancreatitis and infection. Some drugs can also cause this lie aspirin, ethanol, methanol, biguanides and intravenous fructose.
The mainstay of treatment involves:
1. Optimising tissue oxygen delivery
2. Correcting the cause
3. Intravenous sodium bicarbonateIn resistant cases, peritoneal dialysis can be performed.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
In a normal healthy adult breathing 100 percent oxygen, which of the following is the most likely cause of an alveolar-arterial (A-a) oxygen difference of 30 kPa?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atelectasis
Explanation:The ‘ideal’ alveolar PO2 minus arterial PO2 is the alveolar-arterial (A-a) oxygen difference.
The ‘ideal’ alveolar PO2 is derived from the alveolar air equation and is the PO2 that the lung would have if there was no ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) inequality and it was exchanging gas at the same respiratory exchange ratio as real lung.
The amount of oxygen in the blood is measured directly in the arteries.
The A-a oxygen difference (or gradient) is a useful measure of shunt and V/Q mismatch, and it is less than 2 kPa in normal adults breathing air (15 mmHg). Because the shunt component is not corrected, the A-a difference increases when breathing 100 percent oxygen, and it can be up to 15 kPa (115 mmHg).
An abnormally low or abnormally high V/Q ratio within the lung can cause an increased A-a difference, though the former is more common. Atelectasis, which results in a low V/Q ratio, is the most likely cause of an A-a difference in a healthy adult breathing 100 percent oxygen.
Hypoventilation may cause an increase in alveolar (and thus arterial) CO2, lowering alveolar PO2 according to the alveolar air equation.
The alveolar PO2 is also reduced at high altitude.
Healthy people are unlikely to have a right-to-left shunt or an oxygen transport diffusion defect.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
A 25-year old lady is in the operating room and has had general anaesthesia for a knee arthroscopy.
Induction was done with fentanyl 1mcg/kg and propofol 2mg/kg. A supra-glottic airway was inserted and using and air oxygen mixture with 2.5% sevoflurane, her anaesthesia was maintained. The patient is allowed to spontaneously breathe using a Bain circuit, and the fresh gas flow is 9L/min. Over the next 30 minutes, the end-tidal Co2 rises from 4.5kPa to 8.4kPa, and the baseline reading on the capnograph is 0kPa.
The most appropriate initial action is which of the following?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypoventilation
Explanation:The commonest and most likely cause of a gradual rise in end-tidal CO2 (EtCO2) occurring during anaesthesia in a spontaneously breathing patient is hypoventilation. This occurs from the respiratory depressant effects of the opioid and sevoflurane.
Malignant hyperthermia should be sought if the EtCO2 shows further progressive rise.
Causes of rebreathing and a rise in the baseline of the capnograph can be caused by exhausted soda lime and inadequate fresh gas flow into the Bain circuit.
A sudden rise in EtCO2 can be caused deflation of the tourniquet.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
A mercury barometer can be used to determine absolute pressure. A mercury manometer can be used to check blood pressure. The SI units of length(mm) are used to measure pressure.
Why is pressure expressed in millimetres of mercury (mmHg)?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pressure is directly proportional to length of the mercury column and is variable
Explanation:A mercury barometer can be used to determine absolute pressure. A glass tube with one closed end serves as the barometer. The open end is inserted into a mercury-filled open vessel. The mercury in the container is pushed into the tube by atmospheric pressure exerted on its surface. Absolute pressure is the distance between the tube’s meniscus and the mercury surface.
Pressure is defined as force in newtons per unit area (F) (A).
Mass of mercury = area (A) × density (ρ) × length (L)
Pressure = ((A × ρ × L) × 9.8 m/s2)/A
Pressure = ρ × L x 9.8
Pressure is proportional to LThe numerator and denominator of the above equation, area (A), cancel out. The constants are density and the gravitational acceleration value.
The length is proportional to the applied pressure.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
A global cerebral blood flow (CBF) of 35 ml/100 g/min (Normal CBF = 54 ml/100 g/min) can lead to which of the following?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Poor prognostic EEG
Explanation:CBF is defined as the blood volume that flows per unit mass per unit time in brain tissue and is typically expressed in units of ml blood/100 g tissue/minute. The normal average CBF in adults human is about 50 ml/100 g/min, with lower values in the white matter (,20 ml/100 g/min) and greater values in the gray matter (,80 ml/100 g/min).
Low CBF levels between 30-40 ml/100 g/min may begin to show poor prognostic EEG. EEG findings consistently associated with a poor outcome are isoelectric EEG, low voltage EEG, and burst suppression (specifically burst suppression with identical bursts), as well as the absence of EEG reactivity.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
The single most important prerequisite for accuracy in measuring basal metabolic rate (BMR) using indirect calorimetry is performing the test:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: In a neutral thermal environment
Explanation:The basal metabolic rate (BMR) is the amount of energy required to maintain basic bodily functions in the resting state. The unit is Watt (Joule/second) or calories per unit time.
Indirect calorimetry measures O2 consumption and CO2 production where gases are collected in a canopy which is the gold standard, Douglas bag, face-mask dilution technique or interfaced with a ventilator.
The BMR can be calculated using the Weir formula:
Metabolic rate (kcal per day) = 1.44 (3.94 VO2 + 1.11 VCO2)
The BMR should be measured while lying down and at rest with the following conditions met:
It should follow a 12 -hour fast
No stimulants ingested within a 12-hour period
It should be done in a neutral thermal environment (between 20°C-25°C) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)