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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 70-year old male has diverticular disease and is undergoing a sigmoid colectomy. His risk of developing a post operative would infection can be minimized by which of the following interventions?
Your Answer: None of the above
Correct Answer: Administration of single dose of broad spectrum antibiotics prior to the procedure
Explanation:Staphylococcus aureus infection is the most likely cause.
Surgical site infections (SSI) occur when there is a breach in tissue surfaces and allow normal commensals and other pathogens to initiate infection. They are a major cause of morbidity and mortality.
SSI comprise up to 20% of healthcare associated infections and approximately 5% of patients undergoing surgery will develop an SSI as a result.
The organisms are usually derived from the patient’s own body.Measures that may increase the risk of SSI include:
-Shaving the wound using a single use electrical razor with a disposable head
-Using a non iodine impregnated surgical drape if one is needed
-Tissue hypoxia
-Delayed prophylactic antibiotics administration in tourniquet surgery, patients with a prosthesis or valve, in clean-contaminated surgery of in contaminated surgery.Measures that may decrease the risk of SSI include:
1. Intraoperatively
– Prepare the skin with alcoholic chlorhexidine (Lowest incidence of SSI)
-Cover surgical site with dressingIn contrast to previous individual RCT’s, a recent meta analysis has confirmed that administration of supplementary oxygen does not reduce the risk of wound infection and wound edge protectors do not appear to confer benefit.
2. Post operatively
Tissue viability advice for management of surgical wounds healing by secondary intentionUse of diathermy for skin incisions
In the NICE guidelines the use of diathermy for skin incisions is not advocated. Several randomised controlled trials have been undertaken and demonstrated no increase in risk of SSI when diathermy is used. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 2
Correct
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A current flows through a simple electric circuit.
Which of the following electrical component configurations has the greatest potential difference?Your Answer: Two 5 ohm resistors in series with a passing current of 10 ampere
Explanation: -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 3
Correct
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A 42 year old lady has acute onset of painless weakness on her left side of the face with a drooping mouth and difficulty speaking. With no significant past medical history and after relevant investigations, you rule out stroke as a possible cause. The lady is suspected to have suffered Bell's palsy, an idiopathic paralysis of the facial nerve.
What symptoms are you most likely to find on examination in a patient with Bell's palsy?Your Answer: Taste impairment of the anterior tongue
Explanation:Bell’s palsy is facial muscle weakness or paralysis that arises from idiopathic damage to the facial nerve. It can occur at any age but is commonly associated with some conditions:
1. pregnancy
2. diabetes
3. upper respiratory ailment
4. GBS
5. ToxinsThe common symptoms of Bell’s palsy are:
1. Abnormal corneal reflex as the facial nerve controls the motor aspect of the corneal reflex.
2. The loss of control of facial muscles and eyelids leads to decreased tear production.
3. mild weakness to total paralysis on one side of the face, occurring within hours to days.
4. Bell’s palsy is a lower motor neuron lesion that usually spares the forehead while the upper motor near lesions, like stroke, involves the entire face.
5. The anterior two-thirds of the tongue is supplied by the chorda tympani branch of the facial nerve, thus resulting in loss of taste.
6. Ptosis can be a feature of Bell’s palsy but Bell’s palsy would typically show unilateral symptoms rather than bilateral. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 4
Correct
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Which one of the following statement is true regarding United Kingdom gas cylinders?
Your Answer: Tensile tests are performed on sections of one cylinder in every hundred
Explanation:Medical gas cylinders are made up of molybdenum steel but not cast iron. They are checked and assessed at a regular interval.
At least one cylinder in each hundred are tested for tensile, pressure, smash, twist and straightening.
Nitrous Oxide cylinders contain a mixture of liquid and vapour at a pressure of approx. 4500 kPa or 45 Bar. Carbon dioxide cylinder contain gas at the pressure of 5000kPa.
The filling ratio is the ratio of mass of liquified gas in the cylinder to the mass of water required to fill the cylinder at the temperature of 15ºC. In the united kingdom, filling ratio of liquid nitrous oxide is 0.75. The cylinders are usually attached to the anaesthetic machine. As nitrous oxide is an N-methyl-d-aspartate receptor antagonist that may reduce the incidence of chronic post-surgical pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A previously fit 26-year-old is undergoing surgery to repair an inguinal hernia. He is breathing on his own, and a supraglottic airway is being maintained via a circle system with air/oxygen and sevoflurane.
With a fresh gas flow of 14 L/min, the end-tidal CO2 reading is 8.1 kPa. CO2 pressure is 1.9 kPa. The percentages of oxygen inhaled and exhaled are 38 and 33 percent, respectively.
What do you think is the most likely source for these readings?Your Answer: Leak in the expiratory limb
Correct Answer: Incompetent expiratory valve
Explanation:The patient is rebreathing carbon dioxide that has been exhaled.
Exhaustion of the soda lime and failure of the expiratory valve are the two most likely causes. A leak in the inspiratory limb is a less likely cause. Increased inhaled and exhaled carbon dioxide levels may appear with a normal-looking capnogram if the expiratory valve is ineffective.
The patient will exhale into both the inspiratory and expiratory limbs if the inspiratory valve is inoperable. A slanted downstroke inspiratory phase (as the patient inhales carbon dioxide-containing gas from the inspiratory limb) and increased end-tidal carbon dioxide can be seen on the capnogram.
Even if the soda lime were exhausted, a high fresh gas flow would be enough to prevent rebreathing. The difference in oxygen concentrations in inspired and expired breaths would be less pronounced.
Hypercapnia is caused by respiratory obstruction and malignant hyperthermia, but not by rebreathing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 6
Correct
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Comparing pressure-volume curves in patients during an asthma attack with that of healthy subjects.
The increased resistive work of breathing in the patients with asthma is best indicated by?Your Answer: Larger hysteresis loop
Explanation:A major source of caloric expenditure and oxygen consumption in the body is work of breathing (WOB) and 70% of this is to overcome elastic forces. The remaining 30% is for flow-resistive work
In a normal patient breathing normally, the total area of hysteresis pressure volume curve represents the flow-resistive WOB.
The area of the expiratory resistive work increases during an asthma attack making the compliance curve larger in area. The larger the area the greater the work required to breathe.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 7
Correct
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Regarding the basal metabolic rate (BMR), one of the following is correct.
Your Answer: Is the single largest component of energy expenditure
Explanation:BMR is lower in females than males.
It decreases with increasing age.
There is an increase in BMR with increased muscle (i.e. lean tissue)
BMR is increased in stress and illness. There is also an catabolic state in these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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You've been summoned to help resuscitate a 6-year-old child who has suffered a cardiac arrest. The ECG monitor shows electrical activity that isn't pulsed.
Which of the following statements is the most appropriate during resuscitation?Your Answer: The size of defibrillator pad should be 4.5 cm
Correct Answer: The dose of intravenous adrenaline is 180 mcg
Explanation:To begin, one must determine the child’s approximate weight. There are a variety of formulas to choose from. It is acceptable to use the advanced paediatric life support formula:
(Age + 4) 2 = Weight
A 5-year-old child will weigh around 18 kilogrammes.
10 mcg/kg (0.1 ml/kg of 1 in 10 000 adrenaline) = 180 mcg is the appropriate dose of intravenous or intraosseous adrenaline.
The correct energy level to deliver is 4 J/kg, which equals 72 joules.
The pad size that is appropriate for this patient is 8-12 cm. For an infant, a 4.5 cm pad is appropriate.
To allow adequate separation in infants and small children, the pads should be placed anteriorly and posteriorly on the chest.
When using a bag and mask to ventilate, take two breaths for every 15 chest compressions. If chest compressions are being applied intubated and without interruption, a ventilation rate of 10-20 breaths per minute should be given.
Chest compressions should be done at a rate of 100-120 per minute, the same as an adult.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A young male is undergoing inguinal hernia repair. During the procedure, the surgeons approach the inguinal canal and expose the superficial inguinal ring.
Which structure forms the lateral edge of the superficial inguinal ring?Your Answer: Inferior epigastric artery
Correct Answer: External oblique aponeurosis
Explanation:The superficial inguinal ring is an opening in the aponeurosis of the external oblique muscle, just above and lateral to the pubic crest.
The superficial ring resembles a triangle more than a ring with the base lying on the pubic crest and its apex pointing towards the anterior superior iliac spine. The sides of the triangle are crura of the opening in the external oblique aponeurosis. The lateral crura of the triangle is attached to the pubic tubercle. The medial crura of the triangle is attached to the pubic crest.
The external oblique aponeurosis forms the anterior wall of the inguinal canal and also the lateral edge of the superficial inguinal ring. The rectus abdominis lies posteromedially, and the transversalis posterior to this.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 10
Correct
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A 60-year old male has anaemia and is being investigated. The most common combination of globin chains in a normal adult is:
Your Answer: α2β2
Explanation:There are 4 different types of globin chains which surround 4 heme molecules in haemoglobin (Hb) – α (alpha), β (beta), γ (gamma), and δ (delta)
α chains are essential.
δ2β2 and β2γ2 are not found in a healthy adult.
97% of the Hb in a healthy adult is made of α2β2 (2 α chains and 2 β chains).
α2δ2 accounts for around 1.5-3% of the adult Hb.
α2γ2 accounts for less than 1%.With respect to oxygen transport in cells, almost all oxygen is transported within erythrocytes. There is limited solubility and only 1% is carried as solution. Thus, the amount of oxygen transported depends upon haemoglobin concentration and its degree of saturation.
Haemoglobin is a globular protein composed of 4 subunits. Haem is made up of a protoporphyrin ring surrounding an iron atom in its ferrous state. The iron can form two additional bonds – one is with oxygen and the other with a polypeptide chain. There are two alpha and two beta subunits to this polypeptide chain in an adult and together these form globin. Globin cannot bind oxygen but can bind to CO2 and hydrogen ions. The beta chains are able to bind to 2,3 diphosphoglycerate. The oxygenation of haemoglobin is a reversible reaction. The molecular shape of haemoglobin is such that binding of one oxygen molecule facilitates the binding of subsequent molecules.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 74-year-old man presents to a hospital for manipulation of Colles fracture. The patient is 50 kg and the anaesthetic plan is to perform an intravenous regional (Bier's) block.
Which of the following is the appropriate dose of local anaesthetic for the procedure?Your Answer: 0.5% levobupivacaine (20 ml)
Correct Answer: 0.5% prilocaine (40 ml)
Explanation:Prilocaine is the drug of choice for intravenous regional anaesthesia. 0.5% prilocaine (40 ml) is indicated for this condition.
Lidocaine is another alternative for this condition but volume and dose are likely to be inadequate for the procedure. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 12
Correct
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After establishing a cardiopulmonary bypass, the right atrium is opened to repair the tricuspid valve.
Out of the following, which is NOT a part of the right atrium?Your Answer: Trabeculae carnae
Explanation:The right atrium receives blood supply from the SVC, IVC, and coronary sinus. It forms the right border of the heart.
The interior of the right atrium has 5 distinct features:
1. Sinus venarum – smooth, thin-walled posterior part of the right atrium where the SVC, IVC, and coronary sinus open
2. Musculi pectinati – an anterior rough, wall of pectinate muscles
3. Tricuspid valve orifice – the opening through which the right atrium empties blood into the right ventricle
4. Crista terminalis – separates the rough (musculi pectinati) from the smooth (sinus venarum) internally
5. Fossa ovalis – a thumbprint size depression in the interatrial septum which is a remnant of the oval foramen and its valve in the foetusThe trabeculae carneae are irregular muscular elevations that form the interior of the right ventricle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old female, presents to the emergency department via ambulance. The paramedics have noted the patient's symptoms as unilateral left-sided weakness of the upper and lower limbs, homonymous hemianopia and dysphasia.
She has previous personal and family history of deep vein thromboses.
The report of her CT scan suggests a stroke involving the middle cerebral artery.
Post recovery, she undergoes further diagnostic investigations to determine the cause of a stroke at her young age. She is eventually diagnosed with a hypercoagulable state disease called Factor V Leiden thrombophilia.
An emboli in the middle cerebral artery results in dysfunction of which areas of the brain?Your Answer: Parietal and occipital lobes
Correct Answer: Frontal, temporal and parietal lobes
Explanation:The middle cerebral artery is a part of the circle of Willis system of anastomosis within the brain, and the most often affected by brain pathology.
The primary function of the middle cerebral artery is providing oxygenated blood to related regions of the brain. It achieves this by giving off different branches to supply different brain regions, namely:
The cortical branches: which supplies the primary motor and somatosensory cortical areas of some parts of the face, trunk and upper limbs.
The small central branches: which supply the basal ganglia and internal capsule via the lenticulostriate vessels.
The superior division: which supplies the lateral inferior frontal lobe, including the Broca area which is responsible for production of speech, language comprehension, and writing.
The inferior division: which supplies the superior temporal gyrus, including Wernicke’s area which controls speech comprehension and language development.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 14
Incorrect
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The following are results of some pulmonary function tests:
Measurement - Predicted result - Test result
Forced vital capacity (FVC) (btps) - 3.21 - 1.94
Forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) (btps) - 2.77 - 1.82
FEV1/FVC ratio % (btps) - 81.9 - 93.5
Peak expiratory flow (PEF) (L/second) - 6.55 - 3.62
Maximum voluntary ventilation (MVV) (L/minute) - 103 - 87.1
Which statement applies to the results?Your Answer: The carbon monoxide transfer factor (TLCO) is likely to be high
Correct Answer: The patient has a moderate restrictive pulmonary defect
Explanation:Severity of a reduction in restrictive defect (%FVC) or obstructive defect (%FEV1/FVC) predicted are classified as follows:
Mild 70-80%
Moderate 60-69%
Moderately severe 50-59%
Severe 35-49%
Very severe <35% This patient has a %FVC predicted of 60.4% and this corresponds to a moderate restrictive deficit. %FEV1/FVC ratio is 93.5%. FEV1/FVC ratio 80% < predicted and VC < 80% = mixed picture. FEV1/FVC ratio 80% < predicted and VC > 80% = obstructive picture.FEV1/FVC ratio 80% > predicted and VC > 80% = normal picture.
FEV1/FVC ratio 80% > predicted and VC < 80% predicted= restrictive picture. The integrity of the alveolar-capillary barrier is measured by carbon monoxide transfer factor (TLCO) and carbon monoxide transfer coefficient (KCO). These values are seen to be reduced in emphysema, interstitial lung diseases and in pulmonary vascular pathology. However, the KCO (as % predicted) is high in extrapulmonary restriction (pleural, chest wall and respiratory neuromuscular disease), and in loss of lung units provided the structure of the lung remaining is normal. The KCO distinguishes extrapulmonary (high KCO) causes of ‘restriction’ from intrapulmonary causes (low KCO).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Question 16
Correct
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An 80-year old female was taken to the emergency room for chest pain. She has a medical history of coronary artery disease and previous episodes of atrial fibrillation. She was immediately attached to the cardiac monitor, which showed tachycardia at 148 beats per minute. The 12-lead ECG revealed atrial fibrillation.
Digoxin was given as an anti-arrhythmic at 500 micrograms, which is higher than the maintenance dose routinely given. Why is this so?Your Answer: It has a high volume of distribution
Explanation:When the loading dose of Digoxin is given, the primary thing to consider is the volume of distribution. The volume of distribution is the proportionality factor that relates the total amount of drug in the body to the concentration. LD is computed as:
LD = Volume of distribution X (desired plasma concentration/bioavailability)
Digoxin is an anti-arrhythmic drug with a large volume of distribution and high bioavailability, and only a small percentage of Digoxin is bound to plasma proteins (,20%).
In the case, since the arrhythmia is not life-threatening, there is no need for the medication to work rapidly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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In the erect position, the partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli (PAO2) is higher in the apical lung units than in the basal lung units.
What is the most significant reason for this?Your Answer: The apical units are better ventilated
Correct Answer: The V/Q ratio of apical units is greater than that of basal units
Explanation:In any alveolar unit, the V/Q ratio affects alveolar oxygen (PAO2) and carbon dioxide tension (PACO2).
The partial pressure of alveolar carbon dioxide (PACO2) is plotted against the partial pressure of alveolar oxygen in a Ventilation-Perfusion (V/Q) ratio graph (PAO2). Given a set of model assumptions, the curve represents all of the possible values for PACO2 and PAO2 that an individual alveolus could have.
In the case of an infinity V/Q ratio (ventilation but no perfusion or dead space), the PACO2 of the alveolus will equal zero, while the PAO2 will approach that of external air (150mmmHg). At the apex of the lung, the V/Q ratio is 3.3, compared to 0.67 at the base.
PACO2 and PAO2 approach the partial pressures for these gases in the venous blood when the V/Q ratio is zero (no ventilation but perfusion). At the base of the lung, the V/Q ratio is 0.67, whereas at the apex, it is 3.3.
PAO2 at the apex is typically 132mmHg, and PACO2 is typically 28mmHg.
The average PAO2 at the base is 89 mmHg, while the average PACO2 is 42 mmHg.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Prophylactic antibiotics are required for which of the following procedures?
Your Answer: Intravascular catheter insertion (tunnelled)
Correct Answer: Appendicectomy
Explanation:Correctly used, antibiotic prophylaxis can reduce
the total use of antibiotics.
There is strong scientific support that antibiotic
prophylaxis reduces the development of infection after:- Operations and endoscopic procedures in the large intestine,
the rectum, and the stomach (including appendectomies and
penetrating abdominal trauma), and after percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) - Cardiovascular surgery, and insertion of pacemakers
- Breast cancer surgery
- Hysterectomy
- Reduction of simple fractures and prosthetic limb surgery
- Complicated surgery for cancer in the ear, nose, and throat
regions - Transrectal biopsy and resection of the prostate (febrile urinary
tract infection and blood poisoning).
In most cases the scientific evidence is inadequate to determine
which type of antibiotic is most effective for antibiotic prophylaxis. - Operations and endoscopic procedures in the large intestine,
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 76-year-old man, presents to his general practitioner with a lump in his left groin. Upon examination, his doctor is able to diagnose a direct inguinal hernia. There are many structures present in the inguinal canal.
Where is the ilioinguinal nerve located in relation to the spermatic cord?Your Answer: Lateral to the spermatic cord
Correct Answer: Anterior to the spermatic cord
Explanation:The answer is anterior to the spermatic cord.
The inguinal canal in men contains the ilioinguinal nerve, the genitofemoral nerve and the spermatic cord.
The ilioinguinal nerve arises of the L1 nerve root with the Iliohypogastric nerve, before entering the inguinal canal from the side, through the muscles of the abdomen, travelling superficial to the spermatic cord.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 63-year old male who has heart failure has peripheral oedema and goes to the GP's office. The GP notes that he is fluid-overloaded. This causes his atrial myocytes to release atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP). ANP's main action is by which of these mechanisms?
Your Answer: Promote sodium reabsorption
Correct Answer: Antagonist of angiotensin II
Explanation:Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) is secreted mainly from myocytes of right atrium and ventricle in response to increased blood volume.
It is secreted by both the right and left atria (right >> left).It is a 28 amino acid peptide hormone, which acts via cGMP
degraded by endopeptidases.It serves to promote the excretion of sodium, lowers blood pressure, and antagonise the actions of angiotensin II and aldosterone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements below would best describe the receptor response to an opioid mu receptor agonist such as fentanyl?
Your Answer: Maximal response occurs when only when all receptor sites are occupied
Correct Answer: Intrinsic activity determines maximal response
Explanation:Agonists activate the receptor as a direct result of binding to it with a characteristic affinity. Moreover, intrinsic activity of an agonist to its receptor determines the ability to create a maximal response.
Responses to low doses of a drug usually increase in direct proportion to dose. As doses increase, however, the response increment diminishes; finally, doses may be reached at which no further increase in response can be achieved. The relationship formed between the dose and response when plotted graphically is hyperbolic. This also shows that even at low receptor occupancy, a maximal response may be produced.
Antagonists bind to receptors in the same affinity as agonists, but they have no intrinsic efficacy. They do not activate generation of signal. Instead, they interfere with the ability of the agonist to activate the receptor.
Partial agonists are similar to full agonists in that they have similar affinity to the target receptor, but they produce a lower response than full agonists.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 22
Correct
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Which of the following drugs can have significant clinical effects on neonates when used in appropriate doses for a caesarean section?
Your Answer: Alfentanil
Explanation:Opioid should be avoided in the caesarean section as it crosses the placental membrane and causes respiratory depression.
Even though inhalational and intravenous anaesthetic agents readily cross the placenta, they do not have significant effects on APGAR score when used in clinical doses.
Vecuronium and suxamethonium are highly polar molecules and thus do not cross the placenta in significant amounts.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman presents for transsphenoidal surgery following a diagnosis of pituitary macroadenoma.
Which of the following is the most common visual field defect caused by such lesions?Your Answer: Homonymous hemianopia
Correct Answer: Bitemporal hemianopia
Explanation:Pituitary tumours that compress the optic chiasma primarily affect the neurones that decussate at this location. Bitemporal hemianopia is caused by neurones that emerge from the nasal half of the retina and transmit the temporal half of the visual field.
The axons of ganglion cells in the retina form the optic nerve.
It exits the orbit through the optic foramen and projects to the thalamic lateral geniculate body. The optic chiasma forms above the sella turcica as the nasal fibres decussate along the way. The optic radiation travels from the lateral geniculate body to the occipital cortex.
Lesions at various points along this pathway cause the following visual field defects:
Scotoma implies partial retinal or optic nerve damage.
Monocular vision loss occurs when the optic nerve is completely damaged.
Pathology at the optic chiasma causes bitemporal hemianopia.
Cortical blindness with occipital cortex pathology and homonymous hemianopia with lesions compromising the optic radiation. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is correct regarding opioid receptors?
Your Answer: They contain between 3500 and 4000 amino acids
Correct Answer: Binding with an opioid agonist increases potassium conductance
Explanation:Opioid receptors are a large family of seven transmembrane domain receptors. They are of four types:
1) Delta opioid receptor
2) Mu opioid receptor
3) Kappa opioid receptor
4) Orphan receptor-like 1
They contain about 372-400 amino acids and thus their molecular weight is different.
Opioid receptor activation reduces the intracellular cAMP formation and opens K+ channels (mainly through µ and δ receptors) or suppresses voltage-gated N-type Ca2+ channels (mainly κ receptor). These actions result in neuronal hyperpolarization and reduced availability of intracellular Ca2+ which results in decreased neurotransmitter release by cerebral, spinal, and myenteric neurons (e.g. glutamate from primary nociceptive afferents).
However, other mechanisms and second messengers may also be involved, particularly in the long-term
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Which is the most appropriate statement describing the function of flowmeters?
Your Answer: Constant pressure, constant orifice - water depression flowmeter
Correct Answer: Constant pressure, variable orifice - Heidbrink flowmeters
Explanation:There are different models of flowmeters determined by the applied pressure and its orifice. For instance, the watersight flowmeter functions through applying variable pressure, and it has a variable orifice. In contrast, the bubble flowmeter is operated using a constant pressure and orifice. Flowmeters such as rotameters, Heidbrink and Peak have a constant pressure but variable orifice. On the other hand, flowmeters including a simple pressure gauge, water depression, and pneumotachograph have a constant orifice but variable pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Which measure of central tendency is most useful for a continuous, non-skewed data?
Your Answer: Variance
Correct Answer: Mean
Explanation:Mean, also known as the average, is the most common measure of central tendency. It is the sum of all observed values divided by the number of observation. It is not useful for skewed data, which has an abnormal distribution. It is useful, instead, for numerical data that have symmetric distribution. It reflects the contributions of each data in the group, and are sensitive to outliers.
The median is the value that falls in the middle position when the observations are ranked in order from the smallest to the largest. If the number of observations is odd, the median is the middle number. If it is even, the median is the average of the two middle numbers. Unlike the mean, the median is useful on skewed data, and can be used for ordinal or numerical data if skewed.
The mode is the value that occurs with the greatest frequency in a set of observations, and is utilized for bimodal distribution.
The variance and the standard deviation are not measures of central tendency, but of dispersion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Regarding the classification of breathing systems, which of the following is true?
Your Answer: The Jackson Rees modification is a Mapleson D with an open ended bag
Correct Answer: The Conway classification describes a functional classification based on whether a CO2 absorber is required
Explanation:Breathing system is an assembly of components which connects patient’s airway to anaesthesia machine through which controlled composition of gas mixture is dispensed. It delivers gas to the patient, removes expired gas and controls the temperature and humidity of the inspired mixture. It allows spontaneous, controlled, or assisted respiration. It may also provide ports for gas sampling, airway pressure, flow and volume monitoring.
Breathing systems have been classified by Conway and Mapleson.
Conway suggested a functional classification:
– Circuits requiring a CO2 absorber
– Circuits not requiring a CO2 absorberWilliam Mapleson designated varying arrangements of breathing system components (masks, breathing tubes, fresh gas flow inlets, adjustable pressure-limiting valves, and reservoir bags) as Mapleson A-E circuits.
Mapleson A: Arranged as FGF inlet, reservoir bag, APL valve, mask.
In this circuit, because the reservoir bag is between the FGF inlet valve and the APL valve, expired gas from the patient may re-enter the system and fill the reservoir bag during controlled ventilation. This is the most efficient system for spontaneous breathing as the FGF must only be equal to a patient’s minute ventilation to prevent rebreathing.Mapleson B: Arranged as reservoir bag, FGF inlet, APL valve, mask.
In this circuit, the FGF inlet is closer to the APL valve, which helps prevent the rebreathing concern in the Mapleson A circuit as above during controlled ventilation.Mapleson C: Arranged as reservoir bag, FGF inlet, APL valve, mask.
In this circuit, the arrangement is the same as the Mapleson B circuit. However, this circuit is shorter as it does not contain elongated corrugated tubing. This circuit also has the FGF inlet close to the APL valve to aid in preventing rebreathing.Mapleson D: Arranged as reservoir bag, APL valve, FGF inlet, and mask.
In this circuit, the arrangement interchanges the FGF inlet and APL valve of the Mapleson A circuit. This system prevents rebreathing by directing FGF towards the APL valve rather than towards the patient during exhalation.Mapleson E: Arranged as corrugated tubing, FGF inlet, and mask.
In this circuit, there is no reservoir bag and no APL valve. Given the inability to alter the pressure of the circuit, this is ideal for spontaneously ventilating neonates or paediatric patients where low-pressure ventilation is desired. The system prevents rebreathing, similar to the Mapleson D circuit.Jackson Rees later modified the Mapleson E by adding an open ended bag, which has since become known as the Mapleson F.
Mapleson F: Arranged as APL valve directly connected to reservoir bag, corrugated tubing, FGF inlet, and mask.
The system prevents rebreathing similarly to Mapleson D by directing FGF towards the APL valve. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 28
Incorrect
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During a stabbing incident, a 30-year-old injured his inferior vena cava. What number of functional valves can be usually found in this vessel?
Your Answer: 4
Correct Answer: 0
Explanation:The inferior vena cava is formed by the union of the right and left common iliac veins. The inferior vena cava has no functional valves like the one-way valves commonly found in many veins. The forward flow to the heart is driven by the differential pressure created by normal respiration.
The absence of functional valves has an important clinical role when cannulating during cardiopulmonary bypass.
There is a valve that is non-functioning called the eustachian valve that lies at the junction of the IVC and the right atrium. This valve has a role to help direct the flow of oxygen-rich blood through the right atrium to the left atrium via the foramen ovale during fetal life. It has no specific function in adult life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man is having his central venous pressure (CVP) measured. A long venous line was inserted via the femoral vein into the right atrium for this purpose. The catheter is advanced through the IVC.
Which level of the vertebra is the site where this vessel enters the thorax?Your Answer: L2
Correct Answer: T8
Explanation:The diaphragm divides the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity. Structures penetrate the diaphragm at different vertebral levels through openings in the diaphragm to communicate between the two cavities. The diaphragm has openings at three vertebral levels:
T8: vena cava, terminal branches of the right phrenic nerve
T10: oesophagus, vagal trunks, left anterior phrenic vessels, oesophageal branches of the left gastric vessels
T12: descending aorta, thoracic duct, azygous and hemi-azygous vein -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 30
Incorrect
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An 81-year old man was admitted to the Pulmonology Ward due to chronic obstructive airway disease (COPD) exacerbation. Upon physical examination, he was hypertensive at 140/90 mmHg, tachycardic at 114 beats per minute, and tachypnoeic at 33 breaths per minute.
Arterial blood gas analysis was obtained and showed the following results:
pH: 7.25 (Reference range: 7.35-7.45)
PaO2: 73 mmHg (9.7 kPa) (Reference range: 11.3-12.6 kPa)
PaCO2: 56 mmHg (7.5 kPa) (Reference range: 4.7-6.0 kPa)
SaO2: 90%
Standard bicarbonate: 29 mmol/L (Reference range: 20-28)
BE: +4 mmol/L (± 2)
Which of the following options has the most significant impact on his respiratory rate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: CSF pH
Explanation:The arterial blood gas analysis indicates presence of acute respiratory acidosis.
Central chemoreceptors are located in the ventral medulla and respond directly to presence of hydrogen ions in the CSF. When stimulated, it causes an increase in respiratory rate.
It is believed that hydrogen ions may be the only important direct stimulus for these neurons, however, CO2 is believed to stimulate these neurons secondarily by changing the hydrogen ion concentration.
Changes in O2 concentration have virtually no direct effect on the respiratory centre itself to alter respiratory drive. Although, O2 changes do have an indirect effect by acting through the peripheral chemoreceptors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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