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Question 1
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is true regarding oxygen?
Your Answer: Percentage in the air is reduced at high altitude
Correct Answer: Forms molecules containing either two or three atoms
Explanation:Oxygen is formed by a molecule of oxygen and two molecules of hydrogen with a molecular formula of H2O
The critical temperature is defined as a temperature above which the substance cannot be liquefied, no matter how much pressure is applied.
Water has a critical temperature of -118.6oC. So, it cannot be liquified at room temperature.Medical oxygen cylinder is stored in a cylinder with a white shoulder and black body. Meanwhile, medial air is stored in cylinders with a white and black shoulder and a French grey body.
The partial pressure of air at a high altitude is less but the relative concentration remains constant.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Physics
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Question 2
Correct
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Regarding basal metabolic rate (BMR), which of the following is the most efficient regulator of BMR?
Your Answer: Hypothalamus
Explanation:The hypothalamus is primarily responsible for the regulation of the basal metabolic rate. It releases thyrotropin releasing hormones (TRH) in response to low levels of triiodothyronine (T3) and thyroxine (T4). The TRH acts on the pituitary gland to release thyroid stimulating hormone, which will stimulate the thyroid gland to synthesize more T3 and T4.
Basal metabolic rate refers to the energy expended by an individual in a resting, post-absorptive state. It represents the energy required to carry out normal body functions, such as respiration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A randomized controlled trail has been conducted to compare two drugs used for the early management of acute severe asthma in the emergency department. After being allocated to the randomized groups, many patients have been excluded due to deleterious effect to the drugs.
How the data would be analysed?Your Answer: Recruit more patients
Correct Answer: Include the patients who drop out in the final data set
Explanation:Randomized controlled trails will be analysed by the intention-to-treat (ITT) approach. It provides unbiased comparisons among the treatment groups. ITT analyses are done to avoid the effects of dropout, which may break the random assignment to the treatment groups in a study.
ITT analysis is a comparison of the treatment groups that includes all patients as originally allocated after randomization.
In order to include such participants in an analysis, outcome data could be imputed which involves making assumptions about the outcomes in the lost participants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 4
Correct
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Concerning calcium metabolism and its control, which of these is correct?
Your Answer: Cholecalciferol is 25-hydroxylated in the liver
Explanation:When there is a fall in ionised plasma calcium levels, the chief cells of the parathyroid glands are stimulated to secrete parathyroid hormone (PTH).
50% of extracellular calcium occurs as non-ionised, protein- (albumin-)bound calcium.
The degree of ionisation increases with low ph and decreases with high pH.
There is increased renal calcium excretion with secretion of calcitonin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is true regarding Entonox?
Your Answer: Should be stored upright
Correct Answer: Exists only in gaseous form in a cylinder (under normal working conditions)
Explanation:Entonox is a gas that consists of 50% oxygen and 50% Nitrous oxide. Nitrous oxide is sometimes used for anaesthetics but in this combination, it works as a short-acting painkiller.
Under normal working conditions, it exists only in gaseous form in a cylinder. The gauge pressure of a full Entonox cylinder is 137 bar.
Entonox cylinders should be stored horizontally at a temperature above 0 C. At temperatures below this the nitrous oxide component may separate.
Pseudocritical temperature and pseudocritical pressure can be defined as the molal average critical temperature and pressure of mixture components. In other words, the pseudo-critical temperature is the temperature at which the two gases separate. The pseudo-critical temperature of Entonox is approximately -5.50 C
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 6
Correct
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Which of the following vertebral levels is the site where the oesophagus passes through the diaphragm to enter the abdominal cavity?
Your Answer: T10
Explanation:The diaphragm divides the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity. Structures penetrate the diaphragm at different vertebral levels through openings in the diaphragm to communicate between the two cavities. The diaphragm has openings at three vertebral levels:
T8: vena cava, terminal branches of the right phrenic nerve
T10: oesophagus, vagal trunks, left anterior phrenic vessels, oesophageal branches of the left gastric vessels
T12: descending aorta, thoracic duct, azygous and hemi-azygous vein -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 7
Incorrect
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According to the statements given which one is most correct concerning the spinal cord?
Your Answer: There are two anterior spinal arteries (one on each side of the spinal cord)
Correct Answer: There are 31 pairs of spinal roots
Explanation:The cylindrical structure(spine), starts from the foramen magnum in medulla oblongata at the skull’s base. Its length varies in gender with men having 45cm and women having up to 43 cm. The spine contains 31 pairs of spinal nerves, named according to the spinal region:
– 8 cervical nerve pairs ( C1-C8)
– 12 thoracic nerve pairs ( T1-T12)
– 5 lumbar nerve pairs (L1-L5)
– 5 sacral nerves (S1-S5) and
– 1 coccygeal nerve pair.
These spinal nerves are classified as the peripheral nervous system though they branch from the spinal cord and central nervous system. They interact directly with the spinal cord to modulate the motor and sensory information from the peripheral’s region. As the nerves emerges form the spinal cords they are known as rootlets. They join to form nerve roots, and depending on their position, we have anterior nerve roots and posterior.The spinal cord is supplied by two posterior and one anterior spinal arteries which anastomoses caudally, at the conus medullaris.
The anterior spinal artery supplies the anterior two-thirds of the spinal cord and medulla. Disruption of the anterior spinal artery supply is characterised by ischaemia or infarction of motor tracts (corticospinal) and loss of pain and temperature sensation below the level of the lesion.
The posterior spinal arteries supply the posterior columns (posterior third of the spinal cord). Infarction of the posterior columns results in the loss of proprioceptive, vibration and two-point discrimination.
The spinal cord normally ends at the level of L1 or L2 in an adult and L3 in a newborn.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 8
Correct
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A new volatile anaesthetic agent has been approved for use in clinical testing.
It's a non-irritating, sweet-smelling substance. It has a molecular weight of 170, a 0.6 blood:gas partition coefficient, and a 180 oil:gas partition coefficient. An oxidative pathway converts 2% of the substance to trifluoroacetic acid.
Which of the following statements best describes this agent's pharmacological profile?Your Answer: It has a lower molecular weight than isoflurane
Explanation:Because enflurane is much less soluble in blood and has a blood: gas partition coefficient of 1.8, both wash-in and wash-out should be faster.
Sevoflurane’s sweet-smelling, non-irritant nature, combined with a low blood: gas partition coefficient, would result in similar offset and onset characteristics.
Isoflurane and enflurane have a molecular weight of 184.
The oil: gas partition coefficient on a volatile agent is a measure of lipid solubility, potency, and thus MAC. Halothane has an oil: gas partition coefficient of 220 and a MAC of 0.74. One would expect the MAC to be higher with an oil gas partition coefficient of 180 (less lipid soluble).
The conversion of halothane (20%) to trifluoroacetic acid via oxidative metabolism has been linked to the development of hepatitis.
P450 2E1 converts sevoflurane to hexafluoroisopropanol, which results in the release of inorganic fluoride ions. It’s the only fluorinated volatile anaesthetic that doesn’t break down into trifluoracetic acid.
Desflurane is likely to cause airway irritation, which can lead to coughing, apnoea, and laryngospasm, despite its low blood:gas partition coefficient (0.42).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 9
Correct
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What is the number of valves between the superior vena cava and the right atrium?
Your Answer: None
Explanation:The inflow of blood from the superior vena cava is directed towards the right atrioventricular orifice. It returns deoxygenated blood from all structures superior to the diaphragm, except the lungs and heart.
There are no valves in the superior vena cava which is why it is relatively easy to insert a CVP line from the internal jugular vein into the right atrium. The brachiocephalic vein is similar as it also has no valves.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 10
Correct
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A 35-year old male is found to be bradycardic in the emergency room. His cardiac muscle will most likely stay in a prolonged phase 4 state of the cardiac action potential. During phase 4 of the cardiac action potential, which of these occurs?
Your Answer: Na+/K+ ATPase acts
Explanation:Cardiac conduction
Phase 0 – Rapid depolarization. Opening of fast sodium channels with large influx of sodium
Phase 1 – Rapid partial depolarization. Opening of potassium channels and efflux of potassium ions. Sodium channels close and influx of sodium ions stop
Phase 2 – Plateau phase with large influx of calcium ions. Offsets action of potassium channels. The absolute refractory period
Phase 3 – Repolarization due to potassium efflux after calcium channels close. Relative refractory period
Phase 4 – Repolarization continues as sodium/potassium pump restores the ionic gradient by pumping out 3 sodium ions in exchange for 2 potassium ions coming into the cell. Relative refractory period
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 11
Correct
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The coronary sinus is a collection of veins joined together to form a large vessel that collects blood from the myocardium. Which structure forms the largest tributary of the coronary sinus?
Your Answer: Great cardiac vein
Explanation:The coronary sinus is large venous structure located on the posterior aspect of the left atrium, coursing within the left atrioventricular groove. The function of the coronary sinus is to drain the venous blood from the majority of the heart. It opens into the right atrium between the opening of inferior vena cava, the fossa ovalis and the right atrioventricular orifice. The coronary sinus is often guarded by a thin, semicircular endocardial fold, also known as the thebesian valve.
Tributaries include: Great cardiac vein, middle cardiac vein, small cardiac vein, posterior vein of left ventricle, oblique vein of left atrium. The great cardiac vein is the largest tributary of the coronary sinus. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 12
Incorrect
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The following statements are about burns patients. Which one is true?
Your Answer: Nursing the patient in a cool environment reduces the hypercatabolic state
Correct Answer: High protein diets may improve survival
Explanation:Patients who have sustained thermal injuries are at high risk of becoming hypercatabolic with larger cardiac outputs and oxygen consumptions.
The hypermetabolic states increase with an increase in the burn severity and surface area of the skin affected. A patient with thermal injuries affecting 60% of the total surface area of the body will have twice the normal metabolic rate.
The optimal temperature for nursing patients with burn injuries is 30°C to conserve the energy usage. The areas affected by the burn injuries should be covered to reduce loss of fluid via evaporation. Resetting hypothalamic thermoregulation will cause a 1-2°C increase in core temperature.
Burn injuries will have an immediate effect on the intestine, destroying the barrier function and allowing for the movement of bacteria and endotoxins within hours.
Enteral nutrition allows for the delivery of nutrients directly to the stomach or intestine. It has correlation with a dampened hypermetabolic response to a thermal and injury, especially when initiated early as it helps to protect the integrity of the mucosal lining and prevents the movement of bacteria into circulation.
Diet changes have been linked to reduced mortality due to burn injuries. Diets high in protein especially (calorie: nitrogen ratio of 100: 1), have the highest correlation with improved survival rates.
Parenteral feeds may be required alongside enteral nutrition, even with the increased risks of infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 13
Correct
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A patient with a known history of asymptomatic ventriculoseptal defect (VSD) is to undergo an orthopaedic surgery under general anaesthesia. The rest of the patient's medical history, such as allergies and previous operations, are unremarkable.
What is the best antibiotic prophylaxis prior to surgery?Your Answer: No antibiotic prophylaxis required as the defect is repaired and no evidence of benefit from routine prophylaxis
Explanation:According to the 2015 National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) Guidelines, antibiotic prophylaxis against infective endocarditis (IE) is not recommended routinely for people with any cardiac defect (corrected or uncorrected) due to lack of sufficient evidence regarding its benefits. Instead, antibiotic prophylaxis is recommended for those who are at risk of developing IE, such as those with acquired valvular heart disease with stenosis or regurgitation; hypertrophic cardiomyopathy; valve replacement; and previous IE.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man presents worried about his risk of motor neurone disease. No symptoms have developed, but his father suffered from motor neurone disease. Recently, his cousin has also been diagnosed with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis. He searched the internet for screening tests for motor neurone disease and found a blood test called ‘neuron’, and requests to have it done. You search this blood test and find a prospective study going on evaluating the potential benefits of this blood test. On average, this test diagnosed patients with the disease 8 months earlier than the patients who are diagnosed on the basis of their clinical symptoms. The patients diagnosed using this neuron test also survived, on average, 48 months from the diagnosis, whereas the patients diagnosed clinically survived an average of 39 months from the diagnosis. Considering the clear benefits, you decide to have it done on the patient.
Which of the following options best relate to the above scenario?Your Answer: Procedure bias
Correct Answer: Lead-time bias
Explanation:Hypochondriasis is an illness anxiety disorder, and describes excessively worriedness about the presence of a disease. While the woman is concerned about her possibility of developing motor neurone disease, she understands that no symptoms have yet appeared. Hypochondriasis involves patients who refuse to accept that they don’t have the disease, even if the results come back negative.
Late Look Bias occurs when the data is gathered or analysed at an inappropriate time e.g. when many of the subjects suffering from a fatal disease have died. This type of biasness might occur in some retrospective studies of motor neurone disease, but is not applicable to this prospective study.
In procedure bias, the researcher decides assignment of a treatment versus control and assigns particular patients to one group or the other non-randomly. This is unlikely to have occurred in this case, although it is not mentioned specifically. Of all the options, lead time-bias is a better answer.
The Hawthorne Effect refers to groups modifying their behaviour simply because they are aware of being observed. Any differences in the behaviour have not been mentioned in the question, and it is highly unlikely that a change in patient’s behaviour would have affected their length of survival in this case.
The correct option is lead-time bias. Even if the new blood test diagnoses the disease earlier, it doesn’t affect the outcome, as the survival time was still on average 43 months from the onset of symptoms in both groups. With the help of blood test, the disease was only detected 8 months earlier.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 15
Correct
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A 45-year old gentleman is in the operating room to have a knee arthroscopy under general anaesthesia.
Induction is done using fentanyl 1mcg/kg and propofol 2mg/kg. A supraglottic airway is inserted and the mixture used to maintain anaesthesia is and air oxygen mixture and 2.5% sevoflurane. Using a Bain circuit, the patient breathes spontaneously and the fresh gas flow is 9L/min. Over the next 30 minutes, the end-tidal CO2 increase from 4.5kPa to 8.4kPa, and the baseline reading on the capnograph is 0kPa.
The most appropriate action that should follow is:Your Answer: Observe the patient for further change
Explanation:Such a high rise of end-tidal CO2 (EtCO2) in a patient who is spontaneously breathing is often encountered.
Close observation should occur for further rises in EtCO2 and other signs of malignant hyperthermia. If this were to rise even more, it might be wise to ensure that ventilatory support is available.
A lot would depend on whether surgery was almost completed. At this stage of anaesthesia, it would be inappropriate to administer opioid antagonists or respiratory stimulants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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In order to determine if there is any correlation among systolic blood pressure and the age of a person.
Which among the provided options is false regarding the calculation of correlation coefficient, r ?Your Answer: If r = 0 then there is no correlation between systolic blood pressure and age
Correct Answer: May be used to predict systolic blood pressure for a given age
Explanation:Correlation doesn’t justify causality. Correlation coefficient gives us an idea whether or not the two parameters provide have any relation of some sort or not i.e. does change in one prompt any change in other? It has nothing to do with predictions. For that purpose linear regression is used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 17
Incorrect
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In the fetal circulation, the cerebral and coronary circulations are preferentially supplied by oxygen-rich blood over other organs. This is possible because of which phenomenon?
Your Answer: The ductus venosus allows 60% of well oxygenated blood from the placenta to bypass the liver into the inferior vena cava
Correct Answer: Well oxygenated blood from the inferior vena cava is preferentially streamed across the patent foramen ovale
Explanation:During fetal development, blood oxygenated by the placenta flows to the foetus through the umbilical vein, bypasses the fetal liver through the ductus venosus, and returns to the fetal heart through the inferior vena cava.
Blood returning from the inferior vena cava then enters the right atrium and is preferentially shunted to the left atrium through the patent foramen ovale. Blood in the left atrium is then pumped from the left ventricle to the aorta. The oxygenated blood ejected through the ascending aorta is preferentially directed to the fetal coronary and cerebral circulations.
Deoxygenated blood returns from the superior vena cava to the right atrium and ventricle to be pumped into the pulmonary artery. Fetal pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR), however, is higher than fetal systemic vascular resistance (SVR); this forces deoxygenated blood to mostly bypass the fetal lungs. This poorly oxygenated blood enters the aorta through the patent ductus arteriosus and mixes with the well-oxygenated blood in the descending aorta. The mixed blood in the descending aorta then returns to the placenta for oxygenation through the two umbilical arteries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A paediatric patient was referred to the surgery department after an initial assessment of acute gastroenteritis was proven otherwise to be a case acute appendicitis. History revealed multiple episodes of non-bloody emesis. In the paediatric ward, the patient had already undergone fluid resuscitation and replacement, and electrolytes were already corrected. Other pertinent laboratory studies were the following:
Serum Na: 138 mmol/l
Blood glucose: 6.4 mmol/l
If the patient weighed 25 kg, which intravenous fluid maintenance regimen would be best for the child?
Your Answer: 65 ml/hr 0.18% NaCl with 4% glucose
Correct Answer: 65 ml/hr Hartmann's solution with 0% glucose
Explanation:Maintenance therapy aims to replace water and electrolytes lost under ordinary conditions. In the perioperative period, maintenance fluid administration may not sufficiently account for the increased fluid requirements caused by third-space losses into the interstitium and gut. Specific recommendations vary with the patient, the procedure, and the type and amount of fluid administered during the operation. The fluid for maintenance therapy replaces deficits arising primarily from insensible losses and urinary or gastrointestinal (GI) losses.
The maintenance fluid volume can be computed using the Holliday-Segar method.
Body weight Fluid volume
first 10 kg 4 ml/kg/hr
next 10-20 kg 2 ml/kg/hr
>20 kg 1 ml/kg/hrIn the past few years, there has been growing recognition of the increased risk of hyponatremia in hospitalized children in intensive care and postoperative settings who receive hypotonic maintenance fluids. Several studies, including a randomized controlled trial and a Cochrane analysis, found that the use of isotonic fluids is associated with fewer electrolyte derangements and concluded that isotonic maintenance fluids are preferable to hypotonic solutions in hospitalized children.
A European consensus statement suggests that an intraoperative fluid should have an osmolarity close to the physiologic range in children in order to avoid hyponatremia, an addition of 1-2.5% in order to avoid hypoglycaemia, lipolysis or hyperglycaemia and should also include metabolic anions as bicarbonate precursors to prevent hyperchloremic acidosis.
A rate of 40 ml/hr is suboptimal.
If 0.9% NaCl with 0% glucose is given at a rate of 65 ml/hr, despite of the correct infusion rate, large volumes can lead to hyperchloremic acidosis.
If 0.18% NaCl with 4% glucose is given at a rate of 65 ml/hr, infusion of this fluid regimen can lead to hyponatremia because of its hypotonicity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old lady comes in for a right-sided elective bunionectomy with a realignment osteotomy under local anaesthetic on her first (large) toe.
For the operation, which of the following nerve blocks will be most effective?Your Answer: Saphenous, superficial peroneal and deep peroneal nerves
Correct Answer: Superficial peroneal, deep peroneal and posterior tibial nerves
Explanation:An ankle block is commonly used for anaesthesia and postoperative analgesia when operating on bunions. It results in the selective block of the superficial peroneal, deep peroneal, and posterior tibial nerves.
The deep peroneal nerve supplies sensory input to the web space between the first and second toes (L4-5).
The L2-S1 nerve, often known as the superficial peroneal nerve, is a mixed motor and sensory neuron. It gives sensory supply to the anterolateral region of the leg, the anterior aspect of the 1st, 2nd, 3rd, and 4th toes, and innervates the peroneus longus and brevis muscles (with the exception of the web space between 1st and 2nd toes).
The sensory area of the saphenous nerve (L3-4) in the foot stretches from the proximal portion of the midfoot on the medial side to the proximal part of the midfoot on the lateral side.
The lateral side of the little (fifth) toe is innervated by the sural nerve’s sensory supply (S1-2). The heel, medial (medial plantar nerve), and lateral (lateral plantar nerve) soles of the foot are all served by the posterior tibial nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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The Fick principle can be used to determine the blood flow to any organ of the body.
At rest, which one of these organs has the highest blood flow (ml/min/100g)?Your Answer: Brain
Correct Answer: Thyroid gland
Explanation:After the carotid body, the thyroid gland is the second most richly vascular organ in the body.
The global blood flow to the thyroid gland can be measured using:
1. Colour ultrasound sonography
2. Quantitative perfusion maps using MRI of the thyroid gland using an arterial spin labelling (ASL) method.This table shows the blood flow to various organs of the body at rest:
Organ Blood Flow(ml/minute/100g)
Hepatoportal 58
Kidney 420
Brain 54
Skin 13
Skeletal muscle 2.7
Heart 87
Carotid body 2000
Thyroid gland 560 -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man has been diagnosed with transitional cell carcinoma involving the ureter. He is due to undergo a left nephroureterectomy.
Which structure has no relation to the left ureter's anatomy?Your Answer: Peritoneum
Correct Answer: Round ligament of the uterus
Explanation:The ureter starts from the hilum of the kidney and has different relations with structures along its journey to the bladder.
It runs anterior to the psoas major muscle.
The testicular vessels (males) or the ovarian vessels (females) cross in front of the ureter.
The ureter passes in front of the common iliac artery where it bifurcates into the internal and external iliac arteries.
The ureter passes medial to the branches of the internal iliac vessel downwards and forwards to towards the bladder.
In males, the ductus deferens crosses the pelvic ureter medially.
In females. the ureter passes through the base of the broad ligament
In females, the pelvic part initially has the same relations as in males but, anterior to the internal iliac artery, it is immediately behind the ovary, forming the posterior boundary of the ovarian fossa. It is in extraperitoneal connective tissue in the inferomedial part of the broad ligament of the uterus. In the broad ligament, the uterine artery is anterosuperior to the ureter for approximately 2.5 cm and then crosses to its medial side to ascend alongside the uterus. The ureter turns forwards slightly above the lateral vaginal fornix and is, generally, 2 cm lateral to the supravaginal part of the uterine cervix in this location. It then inclines medially to reach the bladder. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 22
Incorrect
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In a study lasting over a period of two years, in which the mean age of 800 patients was 82 years, the efficacy of hip protectors in reducing femoral neck fractures was discussed.
Both experimental and control group had 400 members. Instances of fractures reported over the two year time duration were 10 for the control group (that were prescribed hip protector) and 20 for the control group.
What is the value of Absolute Risk Reduction?Your Answer: 0.5
Correct Answer: 0.025
Explanation:ARR= (Risk factor associated with the new drug group) — (Risk factor associated with the currently available drug)
So,
ARR= (10/400)-(20/400)
ARR= 0.025-0.05
ARR= 0.025 (Numerical Value)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 23
Correct
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Which of the following best explains the statement Epinephrine is formulated as 1 in 1000 solution
Your Answer: 1000 mg per 1000 ml solution
Explanation:The statement Epinephrine is formulated as 1 in 1000 solution means 1 gm epinephrine is present in 1000 ml of solution.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Which nerve is responsible for the direct innervation of the sinoatrial node?
Your Answer: Left vagus nerve
Correct Answer: None of the above
Explanation:The sinoatrial node receives innervation from multiple nerves arising from the complex cardiac plexus.
The cardiac plexus sends tiny branches into cardiac vessels, alongside the right and left coronary arteries.
The vagal efferent fibres originate from the vagal and accessory nerves in the brainstem, and then travel to the cardiac plexus within the heart. The resulting vagal discharge controls heart rate.
No singular nerve directly innervates the sinoatrial node.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 25
Incorrect
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The following statements are about capnography. Which of them is true?
Your Answer: Can rule out endobronchial intubation
Correct Answer: Collision broadening is due to presence of other polyatomic molecules
Explanation:Capnography is the non-invasive measurement and pictorial display of inhaled and exhaled carbon dioxide (CO2) partial pressure.
It is depicted graphically as the concentration of CO2 over time.
It is used in disease diagnosis, determining disease severity, assessing response to treatment and is the best method to for indicating when an endotracheal tube is placed in the trachea after intubation.
The wavelength of IR light usually absorbed by nitrous oxide is between 4.4-4.6?m (very close to that of CO2). Its absorption of wavelengths at 3.9 ?m is much weaker. It causes a measurable deficit of 0.1% for every 10% of nitrous oxide. The maximal wavelength of infrared (IR) light absorbed by carbon monoxide is 4.7 ?m. The volatile agents have strong absorption bands at 3.3 ?m and throughout the ranges 8-12 ?m.
IR light is not absorbed by oxygen (O2), but O2 and CO2 molecules are constantly colliding which interrupts the absorption of IR light by CO2. This increases the band of absorption, that is the Collison or pressure broadening). An oxygen percentage of 95 will result in a 0.5 percentage fall in CO2 measure.
IR light is also absorbed by water vapour which will result in an overlap of the absorption band, collision broadening and a dilution of partial pressure. This is why water trap and water permeable tubing is recommended for use as it reduces measurement inaccuracies.
The use of multi-gas analysers of modern gases also help reduce the effects of collision broadening.
Beer’s law is also applied in this system as an increase in the concentrations of CO2 causes a decrease in the amount of IR able to pass through the gas. This IR light is what generated the signal that is analysed for display.
The capnograph can indicate oesophageal intubation, but cannot determine if it is endotracheal or endobronchial. For this, auscultation is used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 26
Correct
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Concerning drug dose and response, one of the following statements is correct?
Your Answer: Intrinsic activity determines maximal response
Explanation:Dose response curves are plotted as % response to drug against Logarithm of drug concentration. The graph is usually sigmoid shaped.
Any drug that has high affinity and high intrinsic activity is likely an agonist. A drug with high affinity but no intrinsic activity will act as an antagonist. Displacement of an agonist also depends on the relative concentrations of the two drugs at the receptor sites.
Maximal response may be achieved by activation of a small proportion of receptor sites.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 27
Correct
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Anaesthetic gas concentrations can be measured using a refractometer. The main principal which allows it to be used for this purpose is which of the following?
Your Answer: Refraction
Explanation:Refractometers measure the degree to which the light changes direction, called the angle of refraction. A refractometer takes the refraction angles and correlates them to refractive index (nD) values that have been established. Using these values, you can determine the concentrations of solutions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Physics
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Which of the following is true about the bispectral index (BIS)?
Your Answer: Is reduced by intraoperative opioids
Correct Answer: Sevoflurane lowers BIS more than ketamine
Explanation:The bispectral index (BIS) monitors works to determine the level of consciousness of a patient by processing electroencephalographic (EEG) signals to obtain a value between 0 and 100, where 0 reflects no brain activity, and 100 reflects a patient is completely awake.
The general meaning of BIS values are:
>95: Patient is in an awake state.
65-85: Patient is in a sedated state.
40-65: Patient is in a state that is optimal for general surgery.
<40: Patient is in a deep hypnotic state It is important in measuring the depths of anaesthesia to prevent haemodynamic changes or patient awareness during surgery. The nature of anaesthetic agent used is a determinant factor in resultant BIS values. Intravenous agents, such as propofol, thiopental and midazolam, result in a deeper hypnotic state, whilst inhalation agents have a lesser hypnotic effect at the same BIS values. Certain agents result in inaccurate BIS values such as ketamine and nitrous oxide (NO). These two agents appear to increase the BIS value, whilst putting the patient in a deeper hypnotic state, and should therefore not be used with BIS monitoring. Hypothermia also affects the BIS value as it causes a 1.12 per °C decrease in body temperature. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 29
Correct
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Which one of the following statement is true regarding United Kingdom gas cylinders?
Your Answer: Tensile tests are performed on sections of one cylinder in every hundred
Explanation:Medical gas cylinders are made up of molybdenum steel but not cast iron. They are checked and assessed at a regular interval.
At least one cylinder in each hundred are tested for tensile, pressure, smash, twist and straightening.
Nitrous Oxide cylinders contain a mixture of liquid and vapour at a pressure of approx. 4500 kPa or 45 Bar. Carbon dioxide cylinder contain gas at the pressure of 5000kPa.
The filling ratio is the ratio of mass of liquified gas in the cylinder to the mass of water required to fill the cylinder at the temperature of 15ºC. In the united kingdom, filling ratio of liquid nitrous oxide is 0.75. The cylinders are usually attached to the anaesthetic machine. As nitrous oxide is an N-methyl-d-aspartate receptor antagonist that may reduce the incidence of chronic post-surgical pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 30
Correct
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Which one of the following causes vasoconstriction?
Your Answer: Angiotensin II
Explanation:Prostacyclin is a strong vasodilator. It is administered as an intravenous infusion for critical ischemia. Commercially, it is available as sodium epoprodtenol.
Atrial Natriuretic peptide (ANP) hormone secreted from the atria, kidney, and neural tissues. It primarily acts on renal vessel to maintain normal blood pressure and reduce plasma volume by: increasing the renal excretion of salt and water, glomerular filtration rate, vasodilation, and by increasing the vascular permeability. It also inhibits the release of renin and aldosterone.
Indoramin is an alpha-adrenoceptor blocking agent. which act selectively on post-synaptic-alpha adrenoreceptor, leading to decease in peripheral resistance.
Angiotensin II is a vasoconstrictor, causing high sodium retention. It also increases the secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and aldosterone level.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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