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  • Question 1 - You're currently treating an infection in a patient and trying to figure out...

    Incorrect

    • You're currently treating an infection in a patient and trying to figure out which antibiotic would be best.

      Which of the following antimicrobial drugs inhibits the formation of cell walls?

      Your Answer: Gentamicin

      Correct Answer: Cefuroxime

      Explanation:

      Cefuroxime and other cephalosporin antibiotics are bactericidal ß-lactam antibiotics. They work similarly to penicillins in that they prevent cross-linking between the linear peptidoglycan polymer chains that make up the bacterial cell wall. As a result, they prevent the formation of cell walls.
      The following is a summary of the various mechanisms of action of various types of antimicrobial agents:

      1) Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
      Penicillins
      Cephalosporins
      Vancomycin

      2) Disruption of cell membrane function
      Polymyxins
      Nystatin
      Amphotericin B

      3) Inhibition of protein synthesis
      Macrolides
      Aminoglycosides
      Tetracyclines
      Chloramphenicol

      4) Inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis
      Quinolones
      Trimethoprim
      5-nitroimidazoles
      Rifampicin

      5) Anti-metabolic activity
      Sulphonamides
      Isoniazid

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      22.1
      Seconds

  • Question 2 - A patient with a high potassium level is at risk of going into...

    Correct

    • A patient with a high potassium level is at risk of going into cardiac arrest. What changes in the ECG may indicate the incident of cardiac arrest in this patient?

      Your Answer: Peaked T waves and broad QRS complex

      Explanation:

      Severe hyperkalaemia can result in a heart attack or a life-threatening arrhythmia.

      T waves become narrow-based, pointed, and tall if hyperkalaemia is not treated.

      The QRS complex widens and eventually merges with the T wave, resulting in a classic sine-wave electrocardiogram. Ventricular fibrillation and asystole are likely to follow.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      22.6
      Seconds

  • Question 3 - At which opioid receptors do opioid analgesics act primarily? ...

    Incorrect

    • At which opioid receptors do opioid analgesics act primarily?

      Your Answer: Delta

      Correct Answer: Mu

      Explanation:

      Opioid receptors are widely distributed throughout the central nervous system. Opioid analgesics mimic endogenous opioid peptides by causing prolonged activation of these receptors, mainly the mu(μ)-receptors which are the most highly concentrated in brain areas involved in nociception.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      7.4
      Seconds

  • Question 4 - A 4-year-old child has been convulsing for 20 minutes. She has received two...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old child has been convulsing for 20 minutes. She has received two doses of lorazepam. She takes phenytoin for maintenance therapy, and you draw up a phenobarbitone infusion.
      What dose of phenobarbitone is advised in the treatment of the convulsing child that reaches that stage of the APLS algorithm? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 20 mg/kg over 30-60 minutes

      Explanation:

      If a convulsing child reaches step 3 of the APLS algorithm, then a phenytoin infusion should be set up at 20 mg/kg over 20 minutes. If they are already taken phenytoin as maintenance therapy, then a phenobarbitone infusion should be set up at 20 mg/kg over 30-60 minutes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • CNS Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 5 - Regarding iron deficiency anaemia, which of the following statements is INCORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding iron deficiency anaemia, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dietary insufficiency is the most common cause of iron deficiency anaemia in adult men in the UK.

      Explanation:

      Blood loss from the gastrointestinal (GI) tract is the most common cause of iron deficiency anaemia in adult men and postmenopausal women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 6 - Which of the following cervical nerves is likely to be affected if your...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following cervical nerves is likely to be affected if your patient is complaining of elbow extension weakness and loss of sensation in her middle finger? She also has pain and tenderness in her cervical region, which is caused by a herniated disc, all after a whiplash-type injury in a car accident.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: C7

      Explanation:

      A C7 spinal nerve controls elbow extension and some finger extension.

      Damage to this nerve can result in a burning pain in the shoulder blade or back of the arms. The ability to extend shoulders, arms, and fingers may also be affected. Dexterity may also be compromised in the hands or fingers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 7 - A 26-year-old female cuts her hand on a knife while preparing dinner but...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old female cuts her hand on a knife while preparing dinner but the bleeding stops within a few minutes.

      Which one of the following cells will be among the first to be present at the wound site to be involved in haemostasis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Platelets

      Explanation:

      Platelets are the first cells to be attracted to the wound site due to the release of the Von Willebrand factor from the damaged endothelium. Platelets, in turn, release cytokines such as platelet-derived growth factor, which will attract other inflammatory cells to the wound site.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 8 - A medical student is reviewing the chart of a patient who has recently...

    Incorrect

    • A medical student is reviewing the chart of a patient who has recently been diagnosed with leukaemia. The chief resident asks him to identify ONE feature that will most support acute leukaemia diagnosis in contrast to chronic leukaemia.

      Which one of the following options will he pick?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The patient is a child

      Explanation:

      Acute lymphocytic leukaemia (ALL) is more common in children than chronic leukaemias, which generally occur in adults. Bone marrow failure occurs early on in the course of the disease in acute leukaemias, and there is the massive proliferation of undifferentiated cells with functioning cells being crowded out. Hepatosplenomegaly occurs in both acute and chronic forms of leukaemia and is not a differentiating feature.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 9 - Which of the following is an adverse effect of carbamazepine: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is an adverse effect of carbamazepine:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aplastic anaemia

      Explanation:

      Common adverse effects include nausea and vomiting, sedation, dizziness, headache, blurred vision and ataxia. These adverse effects are dose related and are most common at the start of treatment.
      Other adverse effects include:
      Allergic skin reactions (and rarely, more serious dermatological conditions)
      Hyponatraemia (avoid concomitant use with diuretics)
      Leucopenia, thrombocytopenia and other blood disorders including aplastic anaemia
      Hepatic impairment

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 10 - A 66-year-old female who is a known case of atrial fibrillation comes to...

    Incorrect

    • A 66-year-old female who is a known case of atrial fibrillation comes to the Emergency Department with the complaint of fever and vomiting for the past two days. When her medical chart is reviewed, you see that she takes Warfarin for her arrhythmia.

      Which ONE of the following medications cannot be prescribed to this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ibuprofen

      Explanation:

      Like other non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, Ibuprofen cannot be given with Warfarin as it would increase the bleeding risk of this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 11 - A 78-year-old man complains of lumps in his neck. Several large, non-tender cervical...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man complains of lumps in his neck. Several large, non-tender cervical lymph nodes are discovered during your examination.

      You arrange for some blood tests, and the results reveal that he has lymphocytosis with a count of 16 x 10 9 /l.

      In this case, what is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia

      Explanation:

      The most common type of adult leukaemia is chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL). It develops as a result of relatively mature lymphocytes clonally proliferating. The B-cell lineage accounts for approximately 95% of cases. CLL is primarily a disease of adult men, with men over the age of 50 accounting for more than 75% of CLL patients.

      It is the most indolent form of chronic leukaemia, and it is frequently discovered by chance when blood counts are taken for other reasons, such as ‘well man’ screening tests. The patient may develop lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly, anaemia, and infections as the disease progresses.

      The following are examples of CLL laboratory findings:
      Clonal B cell lymphocytosis (diagnosed at greater than 5 x 109/l, but can reach 300 x 109/l)
      In advanced disease, normocytic, normochromic anaemia is present.

      Patients with autoimmune-related haemolytic anaemias have a positive direct antiglobulin test (DAT).

      Although bone marrow aspiration is not always required, it can aid in the diagnosis of CLL. If there has been rapid lymph node enlargement, a lymph node biopsy is required to rule out Richter’s syndrome. This is the transition from low-grade lymphoma to high-grade lymphoma, which is characterised by fever, weight loss, and pain.

      Although there is no cure for CLL, it can be managed with chemotherapy regimens that help patients live longer. Early treatment has no benefit, and the standard treatment for early disease is to watch and wait, with examinations and blood counts every 3 to 12 months. Chemotherapy is usually reserved for patients who have a disease that is active and causing symptoms.

      The following is the overall prognosis for CLL:
      1/3 will not require treatment and will live a long time.
      1/3 will go through an indolent phase before the disease progresses.
      1/3 of patients will have an aggressive disease that requires immediate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 12 - Which of the following is a contraindication for aspirin? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a contraindication for aspirin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Children under 16 years

      Explanation:

      Aspirin contraindications include: hypersensitivity to NSAIDs; asthma, rhinitis, and nasal polyps; and usage in children or teens.
      There is little evidence of allergic cross-reactivity for salicylates. However, due to similarities in chemical structure and/or pharmacologic activities, the possibility of cross-sensitivity cannot be completely ruled out.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 13 - A 5-year-old girl presents in a paediatric clinic with symptoms of viral gastroenteritis....

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl presents in a paediatric clinic with symptoms of viral gastroenteritis. You encourage the mother to treat the child at home with oral rehydration therapy (ORT), e.g. dioralyte.

      Out of the following, which statement is FALSE regarding the use of ORT in the management of gastroenteritis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: ORT is sugar-free

      Explanation:

      One of the major complications of gastroenteritis is dehydration. Choosing the correct fluid replacement therapy is essential according to a patient’s hydration status.

      Oral rehydration therapy (ORT) refers to the restitution of water and electrolyte deficits in dehydrated patients using an oral rehydration salt (ORS) solution. It is a fluid replacement strategy that is less invasive than other strategies for fluid replacement and has successfully lowered the mortality rate of diarrhoea in developing countries.

      Some characteristics of Oral rehydration solutions are:
      – slightly hypo-osmolar (about 250 mmol/litre) to prevent the possible induction of osmotic diarrhoea.
      – contain glucose (e.g. 90 mmol/L in dioralyte). The addition of glucose improves sodium and water absorption in the bowel and prevents hypoglycaemia.
      – also contains essential mineral salts

      Current NICE guidance recommends that 50 ml/kg is given over 4 hours to treat mild dehydration.
      Once rehydrated, a child should continue with their usual daily fluid intake plus 200 ml ORT after each loose stool. In an infant, give ORT at 1-1.5 x the normal feed volume and in an adult, give 200-400 ml after each loose stool.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 14 - A patient presents with increased breathlessness and worsening of his chronic cough and....

    Incorrect

    • A patient presents with increased breathlessness and worsening of his chronic cough and. He has a chronic lung disorder and is on long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT). Which of these is an indication for LTOT?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A non-smoker with COPD and a PaO2 of 7.5 kPa when stable with secondary polycythaemia

      Explanation:

      Long-term administration of oxygen, usually at least 15 hours daily, improves survival in COPD patients who have severe hypoxaemia.

      Long-term oxygen therapy should be considered in:

      A non-smoker with COPD and a PaO2<7.3 kPa when stable

      A non-smoker with COPD and PaO27.3–8 kPa when stable and with secondary polycythaemia, peripheral oedema, or evidence of pulmonary hypertension

      Severe chronic asthma with PaO2<7.3 kPa or persistent disabling breathlessness

      A patient with Interstitial lung disease with PaO2<8 kPa and in patients with PaO2>8 kPa with disabling dyspnoea

      A patient with cystic fibrosis when PaO2<7.3 kPa or if PaO27.3–8 kPa in the presence of secondary polycythaemia, nocturnal hypoxaemia, pulmonary hypertension, or peripheral oedema

      Pulmonary hypertension, without parenchymal lung involvement when PaO2<8 kPa

      Neuromuscular or skeletal disorders, after specialist assessment

      Obstructive sleep apnoea despite continuous positive airways pressure therapy, after specialist assessment

      Pulmonary malignancy or other terminal disease with disabling dyspnoea

      Heart failure with daytime PaO2<7.3 kPa when breathing air or with nocturnal hypoxaemia

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      • Respiratory Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 15 - A patient suffers a stab wound to the neck. The entry point of...

    Incorrect

    • A patient suffers a stab wound to the neck. The entry point of the blade is situated within the anterior triangle of the neck.
      Which of the following muscles is most likely to be involved? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sternohyoid

      Explanation:

      The anterior triangle is the triangular area of the neck found anteriorly to the sternocleidomastoid muscle. It is formed by the anterior border of sternocleidomastoid laterally, the median line of the neck medially and by the inferior border of the mandible superiorly. The apex of the anterior triangle extends towards the manubrium sterni. The anterior triangle contains:
      Muscles: thyrohyoid, sternothyroid, sternohyoid muscles
      Organs: thyroid gland, parathyroid glands, larynx, trachea, esophagus, submandibular gland, caudal part of the parotid gland
      Arteries: superior and inferior thyroid, common carotid, external carotid, internal carotid artery (and sinus), facial, submental, lingual arteries
      Veins: anterior jugular veins, internal jugular, common facial, lingual, superior thyroid, middle thyroid veins, facial vein, submental vein, lingual veins
      Nerves: vagus nerve (CN X), hypoglossal nerve (CN XII), part of sympathetic trunk, mylohyoid nerve

      The posterior triangle is a triangular area found posteriorly to the sternocleidomastoid muscle. It has three borders; anterior, posterior and inferior borders. The anterior border is the posterior margin of the sternocleidomastoid muscle. The posterior border is the anterior margin of the trapezius muscle, while the inferior border is the middle one-third of the clavicle. The investing layer of deep cervical fascia and integument forms the roof of the space, while the floor is covered with the prevertebral fascia along with levator scapulae, splenius capitis and the scalene muscles. The inferior belly of omohyoid subdivides the posterior triangle into a small supraclavicular, and a large occipital, triangle.
      Contents:
      Vessels: the third part of the subclavian artery, suprascapular and transverse cervical branches of the thyrocervical trunk, external jugular vein, lymph nodes
      Nerves: accessory nerve (CN XI), the trunks of the brachial plexus, fibers of the cervical plexus

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 16 - EMLA cream is a topical local anaesthetic containing which of the following: ...

    Incorrect

    • EMLA cream is a topical local anaesthetic containing which of the following:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 50/50 mixture 2.5% lidocaine and 2.5% prilocaine

      Explanation:

      EMLA cream, an effective topical local anaesthetic, is a 50/50 mixture of 2.5% prilocaine and 2.5% lidocaine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 17 - During bedside rounds, an 82-year old female in the Medicine Ward complains of...

    Incorrect

    • During bedside rounds, an 82-year old female in the Medicine Ward complains of pain and tingling of all fingers of the right hand. The attending physician is considering carpal tunnel syndrome.

      Which of the following is expected to undergo atrophy in carpal tunnel syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The thenar eminence

      Explanation:

      Carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) is an entrapment neuropathy caused by compression of the median nerve as it travels through the wrist’s carpal tunnel. It is the most common nerve entrapment neuropathy, accounting for 90% of all neuropathies. Early symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome include pain, numbness, and paraesthesia’s. These symptoms typically present, with some variability, in the thumb, index finger, middle finger, and the radial half (thumb side) of the ring finger. Pain also can radiate up the affected arm. With further progression, hand weakness, decreased fine motor coordination, clumsiness, and thenar atrophy can occur.

      The muscles innervated by the median nerve can be remembered using the mnemonic ‘LOAF’:
      L– lateral two lumbricals
      O– Opponens pollicis
      A– Abductor pollicis
      F– Flexor pollicis brevis

      In the early presentation of the disease, symptoms most often present at night when lying down and are relieved during the day. With further progression of the disease, symptoms will also be present during the day, especially with certain repetitive activities, such as when drawing, typing, or playing video games. In more advanced disease, symptoms can be constant.

      Typical occupations of patients with carpal tunnel syndrome include those who use computers for extended periods of time, those who use equipment that has vibration such as construction workers, and any other occupation requiring frequent, repetitive movement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 18 - A 60-year-old male presents to the genitourinary clinic with dysuria and urinary frequency...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old male presents to the genitourinary clinic with dysuria and urinary frequency complaints. He has a past medical history of benign prostate enlargement, for which he has been taking tamsulosin. There is blood, protein, leucocytes, and nitrites on a urine dipstick. Fresh blood tests were sent, and his estimated GFR is calculated to be >60 ml/minute. A urinary tract infection (UTI) diagnosis is made, and he is prescribed antibiotics. Out of the following, which antibiotic is most appropriate to be prescribed to this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      URINARY TRACT INFECTIONS IN ADULT MEN
      Symptomatic urinary tract infections are much less common in men than in women, and all UTIs
      in men are considered complicated UTIs. Men with UTIs should be evaluated for predisposing or
      causative factors.

      Uncomplicated cystitis

      • Fosfomycin, oral, 3 g as a single dose.

      If fosfomycin is unavailable:

      • Nitrofurantoin, oral, 100 mg 6 hourly for 5 days.

      Do not use nitrofurantoin or fosfomycin if there is any suspicion of early pyelonephritis as they do
      not achieve adequate renal tissue levels.
      If there are any factors precluding the use of the above agents, then a beta-lactam should be used.
      Options include:
      Cefixime 200 mg PO 12 hourly for 7 days
      OR
      Cefpodoxime 100 mg PO 12 hourly for 7 days

      Complicated cystitis
      Adults

      • Ciprofloxacin 500 mg PO 12 hourly
        OR
      • Levofloxacin 750 mg PO once daily

      Empiric antibiotic therapy should be changed based upon the bacteria isolated and its
      antimicrobial susceptibility.
      Treat for a total of 7–14 days

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 19 - A 42-year-old man presented to the emergency room after an incident of slipping...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man presented to the emergency room after an incident of slipping and falling onto his back and left hip. Upon physical examination, it was noted that he has pain on hip adduction, but normal hip flexion.

      Which of the following muscles was most likely injured in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pectineus

      Explanation:

      The hip adductors are a group of five muscles located in the medial compartment of the thigh. These muscles are the adductor longus, adductor brevis, adductor magnus, gracilis, and pectineus.

      The hip flexors consist of 5 key muscles that contribute to hip flexion: iliacus, psoas, pectineus, rectus femoris, and sartorius.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 20 - Since the fluid that enters the loop of Henle is isotonic, what is...

    Incorrect

    • Since the fluid that enters the loop of Henle is isotonic, what is its estimated osmolality?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 300 mOsm

      Explanation:

      The loop of Henle connects the proximal tubule to the distal convoluted tubule and lies parallel to the collecting ducts. It is consists of three major segments, the thin descending limb, the thin ascending limb, and the thick ascending limb.

      The segments are differentiated based on structure, anatomic location, and function. The main action of the loop of Henle is to recover water and sodium chloride from urine. The liquid entering the loop of Henle is a solution of salt, urea, and other substances traversed along by the proximal convoluted tubule, from which most of the dissolved components are needed by the body, particularly glucose, amino acids, and sodium bicarbonate that have been reabsorbed into the blood.

      This fluid is isotonic. Isotonic fluids generally have an osmolality ranging from 270 to 310 mOsm/L. With the fluid that enters the loop of Henle, it is estimated to be 300 mOsm/L. However, after passing the loop, fluid entering the distal tubule is hypotonic to plasma since it has been diluted during its passage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 21 - Which of the following ions normally has the highest concentration in intracellular fluid: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following ions normally has the highest concentration in intracellular fluid:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: K +

      Explanation:

      Potassium (K+) is the principal intracellular ion; approximately 4 mmol/L is extracellular (3%) and 140 mmol/L intracellular (97%).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular
      • Physiology
      0
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  • Question 22 - All of the following statements are considered true regarding L'Abbe plots, except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statements are considered true regarding L'Abbe plots, except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Treatment group results are plotted on the horizontal axis

      Explanation:

      A L’Abbé plot is a scatter plot with the risk in the control group on the x-axis and the risk in the experimental group on the y-axis. It can be used to evaluate heterogeneity in meta-analysis. Furthermore, this plot can aid to choose a summary measure (odds ratio, risk ratio, risk difference) that will result in more consistent results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 23 - Arterial baroreceptors are located primarily in which of the following: ...

    Incorrect

    • Arterial baroreceptors are located primarily in which of the following:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carotid sinus and aortic arch

      Explanation:

      Arterial baroreceptors are located in the carotid sinus and aortic arch, and detect the mean arterial pressure (MAP). A decrease in MAP (such as in postural hypotension, or haemorrhage) reduces arterial stretch and decreases baroreceptor activity, resulting in decreased firing in afferent nerves travelling via the glossopharyngeal nerve (carotid sinus) and vagus nerve (aortic arch) to the medulla where the activity of the autonomic nervous system is coordinated. Sympathetic nerve activity consequently increases, causing an increase in heart rate and cardiac contractility, peripheral vasoconstriction with an increase in TPR, and venoconstriction with an increase in CVP and thus an increase in cardiac output and blood pressure. Parasympathetic activity (vagal tone) decreases, contributing to the rise in heart rate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 24 - Regarding ciprofloxacin, which of the following statements is INCORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding ciprofloxacin, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin decreases plasma concentrations of theophylline.

      Explanation:

      Ciprofloxacin increases plasma concentrations of theophylline. There is an increased risk of convulsions when quinolones are given with NSAIDs or theophylline. There is an increased risk of tendon damage when quinolones are given with corticosteroids. Quinolones are known to increase the QT-interval and should not be taken with concomitantly with other drugs that are known to cause QT-interval prolongation. There is an increased risk of myopathy when erythromycin or clarithromycin are taken with simvastatin or atorvastatin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 25 - Nitrous oxide is associated with which of the following adverse effects: ...

    Incorrect

    • Nitrous oxide is associated with which of the following adverse effects:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Megaloblastic anaemia

      Explanation:

      Exposure to nitrous oxide for prolonged periods, either by continuous or by intermittent administration, may result in megaloblastic anaemia as a result of interference with the action of vitamin B12; neurological toxic effects can occur without preceding overt haematological changes. Depression of white cell formation may also occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 26 - Which of the following features of cell damage tends to be reversible: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following features of cell damage tends to be reversible:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Swelling of endoplasmic reticulum and some mitochondria

      Explanation:

      Features of cell damage that tend to be reversible include: swelling of endoplasmic reticulum and some mitochondrialoss of ribosomescell stress response
      Features of cell damage that tend to be irreversible include: loss of nucleolus, no ribosomes, swelling of all mitochondria, nuclear condensation, membrane blebs and holes, lysosome rupture, fragmentation of all inner membranes, nuclear breakup

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammatory Responses
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 27 - You review a 46-year-old woman who has recently been prescribed antibiotics for a...

    Incorrect

    • You review a 46-year-old woman who has recently been prescribed antibiotics for a urinary tract infection. She suffers from COPD and is currently prescribed salbutamol and Seretide inhalers, and Phyllocontin continus. Since starting the antibiotics, she has been experiencing nausea, vomiting and abdominal pain.
      Which of the following antibiotics is she MOST LIKELY to have been prescribed for her UTI? Select ONE answer only .

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Phyllocontin continus contains aminophylline (a mixture of theophylline and ethylenediamine), a bronchodilator used in the management of COPD and asthma.
      This patient is exhibiting symptoms of theophylline toxicity, which may have been triggered by the prescription of the antibiotic. Quinolone antibiotics, such as ciprofloxacin and levofloxacin, and macrolide antibiotics, such as erythromycin, increase the plasma concentration of theophyllines and can lead to toxicity.
      The drugs that commonly affect the half-life and the plasma concentration of theophylline are summarised in the table below:
      Drugs increasing plasma concentration of theophylline
      Drugs decreasing plasma concentration of theophylline
      Calcium channel blockers, e.g. Verapamil
      Cimetidine
      Fluconazole
      Macrolides, e.g. erythromycin
      Quinolones, e.g. ciprofloxacin
      Methotrexate
      Barbiturates
      Carbamazepine
      Phenobarbitol
      Phenytoin (and fosphenytoin)
      Rifampicin
      St. John’s wort

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      • Respiratory Pharmacology
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      Seconds

  • Question 28 - Superficial fibular nerve palsy results in which of the following clinical features: ...

    Incorrect

    • Superficial fibular nerve palsy results in which of the following clinical features:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Loss of eversion of the foot

      Explanation:

      Damage to the superficial fibular nerve results in loss of eversion of the foot and loss of sensation over the lower anterolateral leg and the dorsum of the foot.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      0
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  • Question 29 - Which of the following is the most likely causative organism of acute epiglottitis...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the most likely causative organism of acute epiglottitis in a 6 year old?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae

      Explanation:

      Since the introduction of the HIB vaccine, most cases of acute epiglottitis are now caused by Streptococcus spp. The condition is now rare in children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 30 - What is the average healing time for a femoral shaft fracture under normal...

    Incorrect

    • What is the average healing time for a femoral shaft fracture under normal circumstances? Choose ONE answer.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 12 weeks

      Explanation:

      The process of fracture healing occurs naturally after traumatic bone disruption and begins with haemorrhage, then progresses through Inflammatory, reparative, and remodelling stages

      Average healing times of common fractures are:
      Femoral shaft: 12 weeks
      Tibia: 10 weeks
      Phalanges: 3 weeks
      Metacarpals: 4-6 weeks
      Distal radius: 4-6 weeks
      Humerus: 6-8 weeks

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Infections (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology (0/2) 0%
Physiology (1/1) 100%
Renal (1/1) 100%
Central Nervous System (0/1) 0%
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