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  • Question 1 - Which of these cell types in the stomach releases pepsinogen? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these cell types in the stomach releases pepsinogen?

      Your Answer: Parietal cells

      Correct Answer: Chief cells

      Explanation:

      The gastric chief cells in the stomach wall releases pepsinogen. Pepsinogen is a proenzyme. It mixes with hydrochloric acid in the stomach and is converted to pepsin. Pepsin breaks down proteins into peptides aiding protein digestion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal Physiology
      • Physiology
      28.3
      Seconds

  • Question 2 - Continuous capillaries are typically found where in the body: ...

    Incorrect

    • Continuous capillaries are typically found where in the body:

      Your Answer: Renal glomeruli

      Correct Answer: Blood-brain barrier

      Explanation:

      Continuous capillaries, found in the skin, lungs, muscles and CNS, are the most selective with low permeability, as junctions between the endothelial cells are very tight, restricting the flow of molecules with MW > 10,000.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      16
      Seconds

  • Question 3 - A 20-year-old male patient lives in a travelling community and has never...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old male patient lives in a travelling community and has never received any vaccinations. He presents to you with fever.

      Which of these statements concerning indications and contraindications for vaccination is TRUE?

      Your Answer: The BCG vaccination can be safely administered to patients with HIV

      Correct Answer: Inactivated vaccines are safe in pregnancy

      Explanation:

      All vaccines are contraindicated in individuals with: A confirmed anaphylactic reaction to a previous dose of the vaccine or a vaccine containing the same antigens.
      A confirmed anaphylactic reaction to a component in the vaccine e.g. neomycin

      There is no evidence that vaccinating pregnant women with inactivated vaccine or toxoids harms the woman or foetus.

      The current protocol is that a child with history of egg allergy can be safely vaccinated with Fluenz tetra. However, if they had a previous severe anaphylaxis to egg requiring intensive care, then Flenz tetra is contraindicated.

      BCG, yellow fever or oral typhoid vaccinations are not safe in HIV positive patients.

      The normal times recommended for immunization of full-term babies should also be applied to premature infants and correction for gestational age should not be implemented.

      Concurrent antibiotic therapy is not a contraindication to vaccination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Principles Of Microbiology
      13.5
      Seconds

  • Question 4 - Which of the following conditions manifests hyperkalaemia as one of its symptoms? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions manifests hyperkalaemia as one of its symptoms?

      Your Answer: Type 1 renal tubular acidosis

      Correct Answer: Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

      Explanation:

      Plasma potassium greater than 5.5 mmol/L is hyperkalaemia or elevated plasma potassium level. Among the causes of hyperkalaemia include congenital adrenal hyperplasia.

      Congenital adrenal hyperplasia is a general term referring to autosomal recessive disorders involving a deficiency of an enzyme needed in cortisol and/or aldosterone synthesis. The level of cortisol and/or aldosterone deficiency affects the clinical manifestations of congenital adrenal hyperplasia. When it involves hypoaldosteronism, it can result in hyponatremia and hyperkalaemia. While hypercortisolism can cause hypoglycaemia.

      The other causes of hyperkalaemia may include renal failure, excess potassium supplementation, Addison’s disease (adrenal insufficiency), renal tubular acidosis (type 4), rhabdomyolysis, burns, trauma, Tumour lysis syndrome, acidosis, and medications such as ACE inhibitors, angiotensin receptor blockers, NSAIDs, beta-blockers, digoxin, and suxamethonium.

      Bartter’s syndrome is characterized by hypokalaemic alkalosis with normal to low blood pressure.

      Type 1 and 2 renal tubular acidosis both cause hypokalaemia.

      Gitelman’s syndrome is a defect of the distal convoluted tubule of the kidney. It causes metabolic alkalosis with hypokalaemia and hypomagnesemia.

      And excessive liquorice ingestion causes hypermineralocorticoidism and hypokalaemia as well. Thus, among the choices, only congenital adrenal hyperplasia can cause hyperkalaemia

      .

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal Physiology
      11.7
      Seconds

  • Question 5 - Regarding acute idiopathic thrombocytopaenic purpura (ITP), which of the following statements is CORRECT:...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding acute idiopathic thrombocytopaenic purpura (ITP), which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: It usually precedes a chronic form of the disease.

      Correct Answer: Over 80% of children recover without treatment.

      Explanation:

      Acute ITP is most common in children. In approximately 75% of cases, the episode follows vaccination or infection such as chicken pox or glandular fever. Most cases are caused by non-specific immune complex attachment to platelets. Acute ITP usually has a very sudden onset and the symptoms usually disappear in less than 6 months (often within a few weeks). It is usually a self-limiting condition and over 80% of children recover without treatment; in 5 – 10% of cases a chronic form of the disease develops.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      14.9
      Seconds

  • Question 6 - You suspect an anaphylactic reaction in a patient who is hypotensive, with trouble...

    Incorrect

    • You suspect an anaphylactic reaction in a patient who is hypotensive, with trouble breathing after eating peanuts. Which of the following diagnostic tests will confirm this?

      Your Answer: ANCA autoantibodies

      Correct Answer: Mast cell tryptase

      Explanation:

      The concentration of serum tryptase rises in anaphylaxis and anaphylactoid responses.

      Because tryptase is a significant component of mast cell granules, mast cell degranulation causes elevated tryptase levels in the blood.

      Although tryptase levels are not always high during anaphylaxis, it is considered a particular marker.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      • Respiratory
      20.6
      Seconds

  • Question 7 - The following are all examples of type IV hypersensitivity EXCEPT for: ...

    Incorrect

    • The following are all examples of type IV hypersensitivity EXCEPT for:

      Your Answer: Sarcoidosis

      Correct Answer: Extrinsic allergic alveolitis

      Explanation:

      Examples of type IV reactions includes:
      Contact dermatitis
      Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
      Primary biliary cholangitis
      Tuberculin skin test (Mantoux test)
      Chronic transplant rejection
      Granulomatous inflammation (e.g. sarcoidosis, Crohn’s disease)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune Responses
      • Pathology
      12.9
      Seconds

  • Question 8 - Regarding the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS), which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS), which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Renin is released from extraglomerular mesangial cells.

      Correct Answer: Angiotensin II has a predominant vasoconstrictor effect on the efferent arteriole.

      Explanation:

      Angiotensin II constricts both the afferent and efferent arterioles, but preferentially increases efferent resistance. The net effect of the more prominent increase in efferent tone is that the intraglomerular pressure is stable or increased, thereby tending to maintain or even raise the GFR. Renin is produced by granular cells of the juxtaglomerular apparatus. Renin cleaves plasma angiotensinogen (produced in the liver) into angiotensin I. Angiotensin I is converted by angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) on pulmonary endothelial cells to angiotensin II. Angiotensin II acts to potentiate sympathetic activity (positive feedback).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      9.3
      Seconds

  • Question 9 - A 33-year-old woman demonstrates right-sided superior homonymous quadrantanopia upon visual field testing. A...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old woman demonstrates right-sided superior homonymous quadrantanopia upon visual field testing. A diagnosis of a brain tumour has been established.

      Which of the following anatomical points in the visual pathway has the lesion occurred?

      Your Answer: Optic chiasm

      Correct Answer: Lower optic radiation

      Explanation:

      Homonymous quadrantanopia is not a disease; it is a clinical finding that points towards a lesion of the optic radiations coursing through the temporal lobe.
      Homonymous superior quadrantanopia is caused by damage to the contralateral inferior parts of the posterior visual pathway: the inferior optic radiation (temporal Meyer loop), or the inferior part of the occipital visual cortex below the calcarine fissure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      8.8
      Seconds

  • Question 10 - Where does carbohydrate digestion begin: ...

    Correct

    • Where does carbohydrate digestion begin:

      Your Answer: Mouth

      Explanation:

      Carbohydrate digestion begins in the mouth, by alpha-amylase produced in saliva.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      22.2
      Seconds

  • Question 11 - When inserting a Seldinger chest drain for management of pneumothorax, the 'safe triangle'...

    Incorrect

    • When inserting a Seldinger chest drain for management of pneumothorax, the 'safe triangle' should be identified. Which of the following forms the inferior border of the 'safe triangle'?

      Your Answer: 4 th intercostal space

      Correct Answer: 5 th intercostal space

      Explanation:

      Care and management of the thoracostomy tubes (chest tubes) are subject to the direction and practice pattern of the responsible physician. Therefore, it is difficult to make a “one size fits all” set of instructions about the specific management recommendations for all chest tubes. It is recommended to discuss specific expectations for management with the patient’s attending physician. Facility specific Clinical Practice Guidelines (CPGs) may provide further guidance for one’s practice.

      Placement of the appropriately sized chest tube is performed on the affected side. The typical landmark for placement is the 4th or 5th intercostal space (nipple line for males, inframammary fold for females) at the anterior axillary line. The space above the 5th intercostal space and below the base of the axilla that is bordered posteriorly by the trapezius and anteriorly by the pectoralis muscle has recently been described as the safe triangle. Tubes are positioned anteriorly for pneumothoraces and posteriorly for fluid processes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      17.6
      Seconds

  • Question 12 - A 26-year-old female cuts her hand on a knife while preparing dinner but...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old female cuts her hand on a knife while preparing dinner but the bleeding stops within a few minutes.

      Which one of the following cells will be among the first to be present at the wound site to be involved in haemostasis?

      Your Answer: Platelets

      Explanation:

      Platelets are the first cells to be attracted to the wound site due to the release of the Von Willebrand factor from the damaged endothelium. Platelets, in turn, release cytokines such as platelet-derived growth factor, which will attract other inflammatory cells to the wound site.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      45.9
      Seconds

  • Question 13 - The juxtacapillary receptors, or J receptors, are sensory cells that play an important...

    Correct

    • The juxtacapillary receptors, or J receptors, are sensory cells that play an important role in the control of respiration.
      At which of the following anatomical sites are the J receptors located? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: The alveolar walls

      Explanation:

      Juxtacapillary receptors (J receptors) are sensory cells that are located within the alveolar walls in juxtaposition to the pulmonary capillaries of the lung.
      The J receptors are innervated by the vagus nerve and are activated by physical engorgement of the pulmonary capillaries or increased pulmonary interstitial volume, for example, in the presence of pulmonary oedema, pulmonary embolus, pneumonia and barotraumas. They may also be stimulated by hyperinflation of the lung.
      Stimulation of the J receptors causes a reflex increase in breathing rate and is also thought to be involved in the sensation of dyspnoea. The reflex response that is produced is apnoea, followed by rapid breathing, bradycardia, and hypotension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory Physiology
      85.3
      Seconds

  • Question 14 - Hartmann's solution contains how much sodium: ...

    Correct

    • Hartmann's solution contains how much sodium:

      Your Answer: 131 mmol/L

      Explanation:

      Hartmann’s solution (compound sodium lactate) contains: Na+131 mmol/L, K+5 mmol/L, HCO3-29 mmol/L (as lactate), Cl-111 mmol/L, Ca2+2 mmol/L. It can be used instead of isotonic sodium chloride solution during or after surgery, or in the initial management of the injured or wounded; it may reduce the risk of hyperchloraemic acidosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids And Electrolytes
      • Pharmacology
      11.1
      Seconds

  • Question 15 - A 70-year-old woman presents with exacerbation of her chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD),...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman presents with exacerbation of her chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), increased cough, wheeze and chest tightness. On examination, she is tachypnoeic and oxygen saturation is 86%. You plan to administer supplemental oxygen.

      Which oxygen delivery system is most appropriate to use initially?

      Your Answer: Non-invasive ventilation

      Correct Answer: Venturi mask

      Explanation:

      In life-threatening emergencies, oxygen should be started immediately otherwise, it should be prescribed like any other drug. The prescription should include a target saturation range.

      Until blood gases can be measured, initial oxygen should be administered using a controlled concentration of 24% or 28%.
      The ideal mask is a Venturi mask.

      The other mask are not ideal for initial use

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      • Respiratory Pharmacology
      28.9
      Seconds

  • Question 16 - You've been requested to give a discussion to a group of medical students...

    Incorrect

    • You've been requested to give a discussion to a group of medical students about cardiovascular physiology. One of them inquires about cardiac output and asks if you can explain it.

      Which of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer: An average resting cardiac output in a man is 4 L/min

      Correct Answer: An average resting cardiac output in a woman is 5 L/min

      Explanation:

      The terminology cardiac output refers to the amount of blood pumped by the heart in one minute. Women’s rates are around 5 L/min, whereas men’s rates are somewhat higher, around 5.5 L/min.
      Cardiac output (CO) is calculated by multiplying stroke volume (SV) by heart rate (HR):
      CO = HR x SV

      As a result, both stroke volume and heart rate are exactly proportional to cardiac output. There will be an increase in cardiac output if the stroke volume or heart rate increases, and a reduction in cardiac output if the stroke volume or heart rate lowers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Physiology
      • Physiology
      21.8
      Seconds

  • Question 17 - All of the following are actions of insulin except: ...

    Correct

    • All of the following are actions of insulin except:

      Your Answer: Increased gluconeogenesis

      Explanation:

      Major Actions of Insulin:
      ↑ Glucose uptake into cells
      ↑ Glycogenesis
      ↓ Glycogenolysis
      ↓ Gluconeogenesis
      ↑ Protein synthesis
      ↓ Protein degradation
      ↑ Fat deposition
      ↓ Lipolysis
      ↓ Ketoacid production
      ↑ K+ uptake into cells

      Major Actions of Glucagon:
      ↓ Glycogenesis
      ↑ Glycogenolysis
      ↑ Gluconeogenesis
      ↓ Fatty acid synthesis
      ↑ Lipolysis
      ↑ Ketoacid production

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      5.5
      Seconds

  • Question 18 - A 60-year-old man diagnosed with chronic kidney disease has an elevated creatinine level...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man diagnosed with chronic kidney disease has an elevated creatinine level and a reduced glomerular filtration rate (GFR).

      Which statement concerning glomerular filtration is true?

      Your Answer: The mean GFR value in young male adults is approximately 250ml/min/1.73m 2

      Correct Answer: Creatinine is freely filtered at the glomerulus

      Explanation:

      Glomerular filtration is a passive process. It depends on the net hydrostatic pressure across the glomerular capillaries, the oncotic pressure, and the intrinsic permeability of the glomerulus.

      The mean values for glomerular filtration rate (GFR) in young adults are 130 ml/min/1.73m2 in males and 120 ml/min/1.73m2in females.

      The GFR declines with age after the age of 40 at a rate of approximately 1 ml/min/year.

      The Cockcroft and Gault formula overestimates creatinine in obese patients. This is because their endogenous creatinine production is less than that predicted by overall body weight.

      Creatinine is used in the estimation of GFR because it is naturally produced by muscle breakdown, not toxic, not produced by the kidney, freely filtered at the glomerulus, not reabsorbed from the nephron, and does not alter GFR.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal Physiology
      24.2
      Seconds

  • Question 19 - Which of the following is an example of a vaccine produced by recombinant...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is an example of a vaccine produced by recombinant DNA technology:

      Your Answer: Hepatitis B

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis B vaccines are prepared from the viral surface antigen. The recombinant vaccine is now the most widely used vaccine and induces a sufficient antibody response in 90% of individuals.
      Indications for hepatitis B vaccination include:
      All health care professional’s
      Other professions with occupational risks (foster carers, staff of custodial institutions, morticians etc)
      Babies of mothers with hepatitis B during pregnancy
      Close family contacts of a case or carrier
      IV drug abusers
      Individuals with haemophilia
      Individuals with chronic renal failure
      Sex workers and individuals with frequently changing sexual partners
      The vaccine should be stored between 2 and 8 degrees C as freezing destroys its efficacy. The vaccine is administered intramuscularly, either into the deltoid region (preferred) or anterolateral thigh. The buttock should be avoided as it reduces the efficacy of the vaccine.
      The standard regime is to give 3 doses of the vaccine, the 1stand 2ndone month apart and the 2ndand 3rdsix months apart. Antibody titres should be tested 2 to 4 months after the primary course.
      A peak titre above 100 mIU/ml is regarded as a good response and implies long-term immunity. A peak titre between 10-100 mIU/ml is regarded as a low response and a peak titre of less than 10mIU/ml is regarded as a poor response.
      There is no substantiated association between hepatitis B vaccination and Guillain-Barre syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunoglobulins And Vaccines
      • Pharmacology
      62.9
      Seconds

  • Question 20 - Your consultant requests that you do a lumbar puncture on a patient who...

    Correct

    • Your consultant requests that you do a lumbar puncture on a patient who is suspected of having meningitis. This patient, a 15-year-old female, presented to the emergency department with a fever, headache, and neck stiffness. Where should you aspirate a sample of CSF?

      Your Answer: Subarachnoid space

      Explanation:

      A lumbar puncture, also known as a spinal tap, is a procedure that involves inserting a needle into the lower back’s lumbar region.

      A needle is inserted into the space between the arachnoid mater and the pia mater, also known as the subarachnoid space, to remove a sample of cerebrospinal fluid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      5.2
      Seconds

  • Question 21 - Compression of this nerve can cause weakness in the left leg while walking...

    Correct

    • Compression of this nerve can cause weakness in the left leg while walking and thigh adduction weakness at the hip joint.

      Your Answer: Obturator nerve

      Explanation:

      The obturator nerve is a sensory and motor nerve that emerges from the lumbar plexus and innervates the thigh.

      This nerve supplies motor innervation to the medial compartment of the thigh, making it necessary for thigh adduction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      11.9
      Seconds

  • Question 22 - Due to severe palpitations, a 28-year-old woman is transported to the Emergency Department...

    Incorrect

    • Due to severe palpitations, a 28-year-old woman is transported to the Emergency Department by ambulance. Her heart rate is 180 beats per minute, and the rhythm strip shows supraventricular tachycardia. You intend to give adenosine.

      Which of the following is NOT a contraindication for adenosine use?

      Your Answer: 2 nd -degree heart block

      Correct Answer: History of heart transplant

      Explanation:

      The purine nucleoside adenosine is used to diagnose and treat paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia. Adenosine works by stimulating A1-adenosine receptors and opening potassium channels that are sensitive to acetylcholine. This causes the atrioventricular (AV) node’s cell membrane to become hyperpolarized, slowing conduction by inhibiting calcium channels.

      Patients who have had a heart transplant are extremely sensitive to the effects of adenosine and should start with a lower dose of 3 mg, then 6 mg, and finally 12 mg. Dipyridamole potentiates the effects of adenosine, so it should be used with caution in patients who are taking it.

      The use of adenosine is contraindicated in the following situations:
      Asthma
      COPD (chronic obstructive pulmonary disease)
      Decompensated heart failure 
      Long QT syndrome
      AV block in the second or third degree
      Sinusitis is a condition in which the sinuses become (unless pacemaker fitted)
      Hypotension that is severe

      It has a half-life of less than 10 seconds and acts quickly within that time frame. The actions last between 10 and 20 seconds.
      Because of the short half-life of the drug, any side effects are usually only temporary. These are some of them:
      a feeling of impending doom
      Flushing of the face
      Dyspnoea
      Uncomfortable chest
      Tastes metallic

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      8
      Seconds

  • Question 23 - Which of the following is a contraindication for aspirin? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a contraindication for aspirin?

      Your Answer: Thrombophilia

      Correct Answer: Children under 16 years

      Explanation:

      Aspirin contraindications include: hypersensitivity to NSAIDs; asthma, rhinitis, and nasal polyps; and usage in children or teens.
      There is little evidence of allergic cross-reactivity for salicylates. However, due to similarities in chemical structure and/or pharmacologic activities, the possibility of cross-sensitivity cannot be completely ruled out.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      9.8
      Seconds

  • Question 24 - Which of the following clinical features is NOT typical of a facial nerve...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following clinical features is NOT typical of a facial nerve palsy:

      Your Answer: Hyperacusis

      Correct Answer: Inability to raise the eyelid

      Explanation:

      Facial nerve palsy can result in inability to close the eye due to paralysis of the orbicularis oculi muscle. Elevation of the eyelid in eye opening is a function of the levator palpebrae superioris muscle and the superior tarsal muscle, innervated by the oculomotor nerve and the sympathetic chain respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Cranial Nerve Lesions
      5.6
      Seconds

  • Question 25 - Which of the following features of cell damage tends to be reversible: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following features of cell damage tends to be reversible:

      Your Answer: Nuclear condensation

      Correct Answer: Swelling of endoplasmic reticulum and some mitochondria

      Explanation:

      Features of cell damage that tend to be reversible include: swelling of endoplasmic reticulum and some mitochondrialoss of ribosomescell stress response
      Features of cell damage that tend to be irreversible include: loss of nucleolus, no ribosomes, swelling of all mitochondria, nuclear condensation, membrane blebs and holes, lysosome rupture, fragmentation of all inner membranes, nuclear breakup

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammatory Responses
      • Pathology
      13.6
      Seconds

  • Question 26 - Regarding fibrinolytics, which of the following statements is INCORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding fibrinolytics, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer: Tenecteplase has a longer half-life than alteplase allowing for bolus administration.

      Correct Answer: Fibrinolytic drugs act as thrombolytics by directly degrading the fibrin mesh and so breaking up thrombi.

      Explanation:

      Fibrinolytic drugs act as thrombolytics by activating plasminogen to form plasmin, which degrades fibrin and so breaks up thrombi.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      7.2
      Seconds

  • Question 27 - At rest, the left dome of the diaphragm normally reaches as high as...

    Correct

    • At rest, the left dome of the diaphragm normally reaches as high as which of the following:

      Your Answer: Fifth intercostal space

      Explanation:

      At rest the right dome of the diaphragm lies slightly higher than the left; this is thought to be due to the position of the liver. In normal expiration, the normal upper limits of the superior margins are the fifth rib for the right dome, the fifth intercostal space for the left dome and the xiphoid process for the central tendon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      14.8
      Seconds

  • Question 28 - A patient with profuse watery diarrhoea was found to have C. difficile cytotoxin....

    Incorrect

    • A patient with profuse watery diarrhoea was found to have C. difficile cytotoxin. Which of the following complications is NOT a typical complication of pseudomembranous colitis:

      Your Answer: Colonic perforation

      Correct Answer: Volvulus

      Explanation:

      Dehydration, electrolyte imbalance, acute kidney injury secondary to diarrhoea, toxic megacolon, bowel perforation, and sepsis secondary to intestinal infection are all possible complications of pseudomembranous colitis.

      When the intestine twists around itself and the mesentery that supports it, an obstruction is created. This condition is known as a volvulus. Volvulus is caused by malrotation and other anatomical factors, as well as postoperative abdominal adhesions, and not by Clostridium difficile infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      20.5
      Seconds

  • Question 29 - A blood transfusion is given to a 52-year-old woman. She develops chills and...

    Incorrect

    • A blood transfusion is given to a 52-year-old woman. She develops chills and rigours shortly after the transfusion begins.

      The following are her observations: Temperature 40°C, HR 116 bpm, BP 80/48, SaO 2 97 percent on air.

      Which of the following treatments is the most appropriate?

      Your Answer: Stop the transfusion and administer corticosteroids

      Correct Answer: Stop the transfusion and administer antibiotics

      Explanation:

      Bacterial infections are common in the following situations:

      Platelet transfusions are associated with a higher risk of bacterial infection (as platelets are stored at room temperature)
      Immersion in a water bath thawed previously frozen components.
      Components of red blood cells that have been stored for several weeks
      Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria have both been linked to transfusion-transmitted bacterial infection, but Gram-negative bacteria are linked to a higher rate of morbidity and mortality.
      Yersinia enterocolitica is the most common bacterial organism linked to transfusion-transmitted bacterial infection. This organism can multiply at low temperatures while also utilising iron as a nutrient. As a result, it’s well-suited to proliferating in blood banks.

      The following are some of the most common clinical signs and symptoms of a bacterial infection transmitted through a blood transfusion. These symptoms usually appear shortly after the transfusion begins:
      Fever is very high.
      Rigours and chills
      Vomiting and nausea
      Tachycardia
      Hypotension
      Collapse of the circulatory system

      If a bacterial infection from a transfusion is suspected, the transfusion should be stopped right away. Blood cultures and a Gram stain should be requested, as well as broad-spectrum antibiotics. In addition, the blood pack should be returned to the blood bank for an urgent culture and Gram-stain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      17.7
      Seconds

  • Question 30 - You intend to suture a hand wound with plain 1 percent lidocaine.

    In 1...

    Correct

    • You intend to suture a hand wound with plain 1 percent lidocaine.

      In 1 mL of plain 1 percent lidocaine solution, how much lidocaine hydrochloride is there?

      Your Answer: 10 mg lidocaine hydrochloride

      Explanation:

      10 mg of lidocaine hydrochloride is contained in each 1 mL of plain 1 percent lidocaine solution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia
      • Pharmacology
      13.8
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastrointestinal Physiology (0/1) 0%
Physiology (3/9) 33%
Cardiovascular (0/2) 0%
Microbiology (0/2) 0%
Principles Of Microbiology (0/1) 0%
Renal Physiology (0/2) 0%
Haematology (0/2) 0%
Pathology (1/5) 20%
Pharmacology (3/8) 38%
Respiratory (0/1) 0%
Immune Responses (0/1) 0%
Renal (0/1) 0%
Anatomy (3/6) 50%
Central Nervous System (0/2) 0%
Gastrointestinal (1/1) 100%
Thorax (1/2) 50%
General Pathology (1/1) 100%
Respiratory Physiology (1/1) 100%
Fluids And Electrolytes (1/1) 100%
Respiratory Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular Physiology (0/1) 0%
Endocrine (1/1) 100%
Immunoglobulins And Vaccines (1/1) 100%
Head And Neck (1/1) 100%
Lower Limb (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Cranial Nerve Lesions (0/1) 0%
Inflammatory Responses (0/1) 0%
Pathogens (0/1) 0%
Anaesthesia (1/1) 100%
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