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  • Question 1 - Regarding penicillin antibiotics, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding penicillin antibiotics, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Patients with a history of atopy are at higher risk of hypersensitivity reactions.

      Explanation:

      Allergic reactions to penicillins occur in 1 – 10% of exposed individuals; anaphylactic reactions occur in fewer than 0.05% of treated patients. Patients with a history of atopic allergy are at higher risk of anaphylactic reactions to penicillins. Patients with a history of anaphylaxis, urticaria, or rash immediately after penicillin use should not receive a penicillin or other beta-lactam antibiotics; about 0.5 – 6.5 % of penicillin-sensitive patients will also be allergic to the cephalosporins.

      Patients with a history of a more minor rash (i.e. non-confluent, non-pruritic rash restricted to a small area of the body) or delayed reaction (rash occurring more than 72 hours after penicillin administration), may not be truly allergic and may be considered for penicillin or beta-lactam treatment in severe infection (although possibility of allergy should be borne in mind). Other beta-lactam antibiotics (including cephalosporins) can be used in these patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      18.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - The triage nurse asks if you will prescribe a dose of codeine phosphate...

    Correct

    • The triage nurse asks if you will prescribe a dose of codeine phosphate for a patient who is in a lot of pain. You discover that you are unable to prescribe it due to a contra-indication after evaluating the patient.

      The use of codeine phosphate is contraindicated in which of the following situations?

      Your Answer: Age under 12 years

      Explanation:

      Codeine phosphate is a mild opiate that can be used to treat mild to moderate pain when other pain relievers like paracetamol or ibuprofen have failed. It can also be used to treat diarrhoea and coughs that are dry or painful.

      The use of all opioids is contraindicated for the following reasons:
      Respiratory depression (acute)
      Patients who are comatose
      Head injury (opioid analgesics impair pupillary responses, which are crucial for neurological evaluation)
      Intracranial pressure has risen (opioid analgesics interfere with pupillary responses vital for neurological assessment)
      There’s a chance you’ll get paralytic ileus.

      The use of codeine phosphate is contraindicated in the following situations:
      Because of the significant risk of respiratory side effects in children under the age of 12, it is not recommended for children under the age of 12.

      Patients of any age who have been identified as ultra-rapid codeine metabolizers (CYP2D6 ultra-rapid metabolizers)

      Because codeine can pass through breast milk to the baby and because mothers’ ability to metabolise codeine varies greatly, it is especially dangerous in breastfeeding mothers.

      If other painkillers, such as paracetamol or ibuprofen, fail to relieve acute moderate pain in children over the age of 12, codeine should be used. In children with obstructive sleep apnoea who received codeine after tonsillectomy or adenoidectomy, a significant risk of serious and life-threatening adverse reactions has been identified.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • CNS Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      41.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Bordetella pertussis causes which of the following infectious diseases: ...

    Correct

    • Bordetella pertussis causes which of the following infectious diseases:

      Your Answer: Whooping cough

      Explanation:

      Bordetella pertussis causes whooping cough. Acute bronchiolitis is typically caused by respiratory syncytial virus. Parainfluenza virus is the most common cause of croup. Acute epiglottitis is usually caused by an infection with Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib) bacteria. The common cold may be caused by a number of viruses including rhinovirus and coronavirus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Regarding aciclovir, which of the following statements is INCORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding aciclovir, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer: Aciclovir eradicates herpes simplex virus from the body.

      Explanation:

      Aciclovir is active against herpesviruses but does not eradicate latent virus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      64
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - The cutaneous circulation's principal role is thermoregulation. This process is aided by the...

    Incorrect

    • The cutaneous circulation's principal role is thermoregulation. This process is aided by the existence of arteriovenous anastomoses.

      Which of the following anatomical areas has the greatest number of arteriovenous anastomoses?

      Your Answer: Thoracic wall

      Correct Answer: Pinna of the ear

      Explanation:

      Short vessels called arteriovenous anastomoses (AVAs) link tiny arteries and veins. They have a large lumen diameter. The strong and muscular walls allow AVAs to completely clog the vascular lumen, preventing blood flow from artery to vein (acting like a sphincter). When the AVAs open, they create a low-resistance connection between arteries and veins, allowing blood to flow into the limbs’ superficial venous plexuses. There is no diffusion of solutes or fluid into the interstitium due to their strong muscle walls.

      AVAs are densely innervated by adrenergic fibres from the hypothalamic temperature-regulation centre. High sympathetic output occurs at normal core temperatures, inducing vasoconstriction of the AVAs and blood flow through the capillary networks and deep plexuses. When the temperature rises, sympathetic output decreases, producing AVA vasodilation and blood shunting from the artery to the superficial venous plexus. Heat is lost to the environment as hot blood rushes near to the skin’s surface.
      AVAs are a specialized anatomical adaptation that can only be found in large quantities in the fingers, palms, soles, lips, and pinna of the ear.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Physiology
      • Physiology
      67.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What is the primary route of transmission of Norovirus? ...

    Correct

    • What is the primary route of transmission of Norovirus?

      Your Answer: Oral-faecal route

      Explanation:

      Norovirus is spread primarily by faecal-oral contact, but it can also be spread through contact with an infected person, ingestion of contaminated food or water, or contact with contaminated surfaces or items.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following cervical nerves is likely to be affected if your...

    Correct

    • Which of the following cervical nerves is likely to be affected if your patient is complaining of elbow extension weakness and loss of sensation in her middle finger? She also has pain and tenderness in her cervical region, which is caused by a herniated disc, all after a whiplash-type injury in a car accident.

      Your Answer: C7

      Explanation:

      A C7 spinal nerve controls elbow extension and some finger extension.

      Damage to this nerve can result in a burning pain in the shoulder blade or back of the arms. The ability to extend shoulders, arms, and fingers may also be affected. Dexterity may also be compromised in the hands or fingers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      13.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Regarding folate requirements, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding folate requirements, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Dietary folate is found particularly in leafy green vegetables and liver.

      Explanation:

      Megaloblastic anemia results from inhibition of DNA synthesis during red blood cell production. When DNA synthesis is impaired, the cell cycle cannot progress from the growth stage to the mitosis stage. This leads to continuing cell growth without division, which presents as macrocytosis, with an increase in mean corpuscular volume (MCV). The defect in red cell DNA synthesis is most often due to hypovitaminosis, specifically vitamin B12 deficiency or folate deficiency.
      Folate is an essential vitamin found in most foods, especially liver, green vegetables and yeast. The normal daily diet contains 200 – 250 μg, of which about 50% is absorbed. Daily adult requirements are about 100 μg. Absorption of folate is principally from the duodenum and jejunum. Stores of folate are normally only adequate for 4 months and so features of deficiency may be apparent after this time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      47.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Regarding box and whisker plots, which of the following statements is true? ...

    Correct

    • Regarding box and whisker plots, which of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer: 25% of the values lie below the lower quartile

      Explanation:

      A box and whisker plot is defined as a graphical method of displaying variation in a set of data. In most cases, a histogram analysis provides a sufficient display, but a box and whisker plot can provide additional detail while allowing multiple sets of data to be displayed in the same graph.

      The procedure to develop a box and whisker plot comes from the five statistics below:

      (1) Minimum value: The smallest value in the data set

      (2) Second quartile: The value below which the lower 25% of the data are contained

      (3) Median value: The middle number in a range of numbers

      (4) Third quartile: The value above which the upper 25% of the data are contained

      (5) Maximum value: The largest value in the data set

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      23
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Regarding cardiac excitation-contraction coupling, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding cardiac excitation-contraction coupling, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: In relaxation, most Ca 2+ is actively pumped out of the myocyte.

      Correct Answer: The Treppe effect refers to an increase in contractility secondary to an increase in heart rate.

      Explanation:

      Although Ca2+entry during the action potential (AP) is essential for contraction, it only accounts for about 25% of the rise in intracellular Ca2+. The rest is released from Ca2+stores in the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR). In relaxation, about 80% of Ca2+is rapidly pumped back into the SR (sequestered) by Ca2+ATPase pumps. The Ca2+that entered the cell during the AP is transported out of the cell primarily by the Na+/Ca2+exchanger in the membrane. When more action potentials occur per unit time, more Ca2+enters the cell during the AP plateau, more Ca2+is stored in the SR, more Ca2+is released from the SR and thus more Ca2+is left inside the cell and greater tension is produced during contraction. Increased heart rate increases the force of contraction in a stepwise fashion as intracellular [Ca2+] increases cumulatively over several beats; this is the Treppe effect. Cardiac glycosides such as digoxin have a positive inotropic effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      100
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Regarding atracurium, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding atracurium, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Effects such as flushing, tachycardia and hypotension can occur due to significant histamine release.

      Explanation:

      Cardiovascular effects such as flushing, tachycardia, hypotension and bronchospasm are associated with significant histamine release; histamine release can be minimised by administering slowly or in divided doses over at least 1 minute. Atracurium undergoes non-enzymatic metabolism which is independent of liver and kidney function, thus allowing its use in patients with hepatic or renal impairment. Atracurium has no sedative or analgesic effects. All non-depolarising drugs should be used with care in patients suspected to be suffering with myasthenia gravis or myasthenic syndrome, as patients with these conditions are extremely sensitive to their effects and may require a reduction in dose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia
      • Pharmacology
      30.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 72-year-old man has a past medical history of diverticular disease. He now...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man has a past medical history of diverticular disease. He now presents in the clinic with crampy abdominal pain. The nurse at the triage suggests prescribing hyoscine butyl bromide to help relieve the abdominal pain. However, you do not agree with this medication, as you can see on his chart that the patient has several other comorbidities.

      Out of the following, what is NOT a contraindication to using hyoscine butyl bromide?

      Your Answer: Prostatic hyperplasia

      Explanation:

      Hyoscine butylbromide is an antispasmodic drug that blocks muscarinic receptors and reduces intestinal motility. It is used for gastrointestinal and genitourinary smooth muscle spasms and symptomatic relief of IBS.

      It has the following contraindications:
      1. Closed-angle glaucoma
      2. Gastrointestinal obstruction
      3. Intestinal atony
      4. Paralytic ileus
      5. Toxic megacolon
      6. Severe ulcerative colitis
      7. Significant bladder outflow obstruction
      8. Urinary retention
      9. Myasthenia gravis

      Use cautiously in the following conditions:
      1. Acute myocardial infarction (in adults)
      2. Arrhythmias (may be worsened)
      3. Autonomic neuropathy
      4. Hypertension
      5. Cardiac insufficiency (due to association with tachycardia)
      6. Congestive cardiac failure (maybe worsened)
      7. Cardiac surgery (due to association with tachycardia)
      8. Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease
      9. Ulcerative colitis
      10. Prostatic hyperplasia
      11. Use in children (increased risk of side effects)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      76.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which of the following is a contraindication to using nitrous oxide: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a contraindication to using nitrous oxide:

      Your Answer: Acute porphyrias

      Correct Answer: Raised intracranial pressure

      Explanation:

      Nitrous oxide should not be utilized in patients with an air-containing confined area because it diffuses into these spaces, causing a rise in pressure. This includes circumstances like pneumothorax, intracranial air after a head injury, imprisoned air from a recent undersea dive, a recent intraocular gas injection, or intestinal blockage. Nitrous oxide increases cerebral blood flow and should be avoided in individuals who have or are at risk of having high intracranial pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia
      • Pharmacology
      17.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Angiotensin II is part of the RAAS system. One of its effects is...

    Correct

    • Angiotensin II is part of the RAAS system. One of its effects is the constriction of efferent arterioles. Which of the following best describes the effect of angiotensin II- mediated constriction of efferent arterioles?

      Your Answer: Decreased renal plasma flow, increased filtration fraction, increased GFR

      Explanation:

      The Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System (RAAS) is a hormone system composed of renin, angiotensin, and aldosterone. Those hormones are essential for the regulation of blood pressure and fluid balance.

      Cases of hypotension, sympathetic stimulation, or hyponatremia can activate the Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS). The following process will then increase the blood volume and blood pressure as a response.

      When renin is released it will convert the circulating angiotensinogen to angiotensin I. The ACE or angiotensin-converting enzyme will then catalyst its conversion to angiotensin II, which is a potent vasoconstrictor. Angiotensin II can constrict the vascular smooth muscles and the efferent arteriole of the glomerulus.

      The efferent arteriole is a blood vessel that delivers blood away from the capillaries of the kidney. The angiotensin II-mediated constriction of efferent arterioles increases GFR, reduces renal blood flow and peritubular capillary hydrostatic pressure, and increases peritubular colloid osmotic pressure, as a response to its action of increasing the filtration fraction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal Physiology
      88.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Beta cells of the endocrine pancreas produce which of the following hormones: ...

    Correct

    • Beta cells of the endocrine pancreas produce which of the following hormones:

      Your Answer: Insulin

      Explanation:

      Insulin is produced by beta cells, located centrally within the islets of Langerhans, in the endocrine tissues of the pancreas. Insulin is a polypeptide hormone consisting of two short chains (A and B) linked by disulphide bonds. Proinsulin is synthesised as a single-chain peptide. Within storage granules, a connecting peptide (C peptide) is removed by proteases to yield insulin. Insulin release is stimulated initially during eating by the parasympathetic nervous system and gut hormones such as secretin, but most output is driven by the rise in plasma glucose concentration that occurs after a meal. The effects of insulin are mediated by the receptor tyrosine kinase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the following cell types in the stomach secretes histamine? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following cell types in the stomach secretes histamine?

      Your Answer: Enterochromaffin-like cells

      Explanation:

      The parietal cells operate in close association with another type of cell called enterochromaffin-like cells (ECL cells), the primary function of which is to secrete histamine. The ECL cells lie in the deep recesses of the oxyntic glands and therefore release histamine indirect contact with the parietal cells of the glands.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - How is filtered K+mainly reabsorbed in the thick ascending limb of the loop...

    Correct

    • How is filtered K+mainly reabsorbed in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle:

      Your Answer: Secondary active transport via Na + /K + /2Cl - cotransporter

      Explanation:

      Around 30% of filtered K+is reabsorbed in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle, primarily via the luminal Na+/K+/2Cl-cotransporter, but there is also significant paracellular reabsorption, encouraged by the positive potential in the tubular lumen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      16.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Hepatitis A is transmitted by which of the following routes: ...

    Correct

    • Hepatitis A is transmitted by which of the following routes:

      Your Answer: Faecal-oral route

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis A transmission is by the faecal-oral route; the virus is excreted in bile and shed in the faeces of infected people.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 23-year-old male is referred to your haematology clinic after an acute attack...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old male is referred to your haematology clinic after an acute attack of haemolytic anaemia. He was diagnosed with glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency ten years ago.

      Which ONE of the following options is FALSE with regards to this disorder?

      Your Answer: It is the commonest human enzyme defect

      Correct Answer: Acute haemolysis can be triggered by cephalosporin antibiotics

      Explanation:

      Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency is an X-linked recessive disorder in which there is a deficiency of the enzyme G6PD. This causes instability of red blood cell membranes under oxidative stress leading to haemolysis.

      Triggers include:
      1) Fava beans
      2) Sulphonamides
      3) Primaquine
      4) Anti-TB drugs
      5) Infections

      Most individuals will be asymptomatic until exposed to one of the triggers listed above. It is the commonest human enzyme defect and affects males more than females because of the X-linked inheritance pattern. The use of penicillins and cephalosporins is generally safe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      48.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - One of these statements about cohort studies is true: ...

    Incorrect

    • One of these statements about cohort studies is true:

      Your Answer: They are usually shorter in duration than case-control studies

      Correct Answer: They are longitudinal in nature

      Explanation:

      A cohort study is a longitudinal, observational study. It follows a group of patients (the cohort) forward in time and monitors the effects of the aetiological factor under study upon them.

      Cohort studies are usually of longer duration and are more expensive than case-control studies. They, however, provide more useful and reliable information.

      Cohort studies follow a cohort of patients who don’t have a disease and evaluate the absolute and relative risk of contracting the disease after exposure to the aetiological agent.

      Cross-sectional studies are the best way to determine the prevalence of a disease. while Cohort studies are better at determining the incidence of a disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      28.9
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Approximately how long is the duration of a lidocaine block (when given with...

    Incorrect

    • Approximately how long is the duration of a lidocaine block (when given with adrenaline):

      Your Answer: 30 minutes

      Correct Answer: 90 minutes

      Explanation:

      Lidocaine is a tertiary amine that is primarily used as a local anaesthetic but can also be used intravenously in the treatment of ventricular dysrhythmias.
      Lidocaine works as a local anaesthetic by diffusing in its uncharged base form through neural sheaths and the axonal membrane to the internal surface of the cell membrane sodium channels. Here it alters signal conduction by blocking the fast voltage-gated sodium channels. With sufficient blockage, the membrane of the postsynaptic neuron will not depolarise and will be unable to transmit an action potential, thereby preventing the transmission of pain signals.
      Each 1 ml of plain 1% lidocaine solution contains 10 mg of lidocaine hydrochloride. The maximum safe dose of plain lidocaine is 3 mg/kg. When administered with adrenaline 1:200,000, the maximum safe dose is 7 mg/kg. Because of the risk of vasoconstriction and tissue necrosis, lidocaine should not be used in combination with adrenaline in extremities such as fingers, toes, and the nose.
      The half-life of lidocaine is 1.5-2 hours. Its onset of action is rapid within a few minutes, and it has a duration of action of 30-60 minutes when used alone. Its duration of action is prolonged by co-administration with adrenaline (about 90 minutes).
      Lidocaine tends to cause vasodilatation when used locally. This is believed to be due mainly to the inhibition of action potentials via sodium channel blocking in vasoconstrictor sympathetic nerves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia
      • Pharmacology
      18.6
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Regarding flow through a tube, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding flow through a tube, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Polycythaemia will decrease the rate of blood flow through a vessel.

      Explanation:

      Darcy’s law states that flow through a tube is dependent on the pressure differences across the ends of the tube (P1 – P2) and the resistance to flow provided by the tube (R). Resistance is due to frictional forces and is determined by the length of the tube (L), the radius of the tube (r) and the viscosity of the fluid flowing down that tube (V). The radius of the tube has the largest effect on resistance and therefore flow – this explains why smaller gauge cannulas with larger diameters have a faster rate of flow. Increased viscosity, as seen in polycythemia, will slow the rate of blood flow through a vessel.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular
      • Physiology
      27.7
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - This anatomic part lies at the heart of the tooth. ...

    Correct

    • This anatomic part lies at the heart of the tooth.

      Your Answer: The pulp cavity

      Explanation:

      Within the central portion of the tooth lies the dental pulp. The pulp chamber provides mechanical support and functions as a barrier from external stimuli and the oral microbiome. The dental pulp is a unique tissue that is richly innervated and has an extensive microvascular network. Maintaining its vitality increases both the mechanical resistance of the tooth and the long-term survival. The junctional epithelium forms a band around the tooth at the base of the gingival sulcus, sealing off the periodontal tissues from the oral cavity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - You need to give your patient antibiotics, so you call microbiology for some advice.

    Of...

    Correct

    • You need to give your patient antibiotics, so you call microbiology for some advice.

      Of the following antibacterial drugs, which of them is a protein synthesis inhibitor?

      Your Answer: Erythromycin

      Explanation:

      Bacteriostatic antibiotics include erythromycin and other macrolides. They work by attaching to the bacterial ribosome’s 50S subunit, preventing translocation and, as a result, inhibit protein synthesis. Macrolide antibiotics are actively concentrated inside leukocytes and delivered into the infection site as a result.

      Action Mechanisms- Examples:

      Cell wall production is inhibited
      Vancomycin
      Vancomycin
      Cephalosporins

      The function of the cell membrane is disrupted
      Nystatin
      Polymyxins
      Amphotericin B

      Inhibition of protein synthesis
      Chloramphenicol
      Macrolides
      Aminoglycosides
      Tetracyclines

      Nucleic acid synthesis inhibition
      Quinolones
      Trimethoprim
      Rifampicin
      5-nitroimidazoles
      Sulphonamides
      Anti-metabolic activity
      Isoniazid

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      27.9
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Identify the type of graph described below:

    A graph that consists of a vertical...

    Incorrect

    • Identify the type of graph described below:

      A graph that consists of a vertical bar graph in which values are plotted in decreasing order of relative frequency from left to right. The independent variables on the chart are shown on the horizontal axis and the dependent variables are portrayed as the heights of bars.

      Your Answer: Histogram

      Correct Answer: Pareto diagram

      Explanation:

      A pareto diagram, or pareto chart, consists of a vertical bar graph in which values are plotted in decreasing order of relative frequency from left to right. The independent variables on the chart are shown on the horizontal axis and the dependent variables are portrayed as the heights of bars.

      A point-to-point graph, which shows the cumulative relative frequency, may be superimposed on the bar.

      Because the values of the statistical variables are placed in order of relative frequency, the graph clearly reveals which factors have the greatest impact and where attention is likely to yield the greatest benefit. It is extremely useful for analysing what problems need attention first, because the taller bars on the chart clearly illustrate which variable have the greatest cumulative effect on a given system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      43.6
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - In the treatment of hypertensive episodes in pheochromocytoma, which of the following medication...

    Incorrect

    • In the treatment of hypertensive episodes in pheochromocytoma, which of the following medication types is administered as first-line management:

      Your Answer: Calcium channel blockers

      Correct Answer: Alpha-blockers

      Explanation:

      The first line of management in controlling blood pressure and preventing intraoperative hypertensive crises is to use a combination of alpha and beta-adrenergic inhibition. In phaeochromocytoma, alpha-blockers are used to treat hypertensive episodes in the short term. Tachycardia can be managed by the careful addition of a beta-blocker, preferably a cardioselective beta-blocker, once alpha blockade has been established. Long term management of pheochromocytoma involves surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      27.3
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which of the following statements about neutrophils is TRUE: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements about neutrophils is TRUE:

      Your Answer: Neutrophils are typically the first immune cell to arrive to a site of injury.

      Explanation:

      Neutrophils are the most numerous peripheral blood leukocytes, accounting for 50-70 percent of all circulating white cells. Neutrophils have a compact nucleus with two to five lobes and a pale cytoplasm with an irregular shape containing numerous fine pink-blue or grey-blue granules. The granules are classified as primary, which emerges during the promyelocyte stage, and secondary, which develop at the myelocyte stage and predominate in the mature nucleus.

      The lifespan of neutrophils in the blood is only 6 – 10 hours. In response to tissue damage, cytokines and complement proteins, neutrophils migrate from the bloodstream to the site of insult within minutes, where they destroy pathogens by phagocytosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune Responses
      • Pathology
      21.4
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which patient group are most commonly associated with infection with Klebsiella spp: ...

    Correct

    • Which patient group are most commonly associated with infection with Klebsiella spp:

      Your Answer: Hospitalised patients

      Explanation:

      Klebsiella spp. are facultatively anaerobic Gram-negative rods, found in the normal intestinal and respiratory flora. These organisms are usually opportunistic pathogens that cause nosocomial infections, most commonly pneumonia and UTI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 49-year-old woman with haemoglobin of 6 g/dL following persistent vaginal bleeding receives...

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old woman with haemoglobin of 6 g/dL following persistent vaginal bleeding receives blood transfusion. She developed pain and burning at her cannula site and complains of a feeling of “impending doom”, nausea, and severe back pain shortly after transfusion was started. Her temperature is 38.9ºC.

      What is the most appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer: Stop the transfusion and administer IV fluids

      Explanation:

      Acute haemolytic transfusion reactions present with: Feeling of ‘impending doom’ as the earliest symptom, fever and chills, pain and warmth at transfusion site, nausea and vomiting, back, joint, and chest pain. Transfusion should be stopped immediately and IV fluid (usually normal saline) administered.

      Supportive measures and paracetamol can be given since patient has fever but it is not the immediate first step.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      25.5
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 78-year-old male presents to the Orthopaedic clinic with lower back pain for...

    Correct

    • A 78-year-old male presents to the Orthopaedic clinic with lower back pain for the past month. His past medical history reveals a history of cancer. After examination, you diagnose Metastatic Spinal Cord Compression (MSCC).

      Which one of the following cancers is this patient most likely to have had?

      Your Answer: Prostate cancer

      Explanation:

      Compression of the thecal sac causes metastatic Spinal Cord Compression (MSCC) due to a Metastatic tumour and its components. It can cause symptoms of limb weakness, sensory disturbances and back pain depending on the extent and level of Compression.

      The most common source of a tumour causing MSCC is a prostate carcinoma that metastasized to the spinal cord via the vertebral venous plexus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      21.9
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Infections (3/3) 100%
Pharmacology (6/9) 67%
CNS Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Microbiology (4/4) 100%
Pathogens (4/4) 100%
Cardiovascular Physiology (0/1) 0%
Physiology (5/7) 71%
Anatomy (2/2) 100%
Central Nervous System (1/1) 100%
Haematology (2/3) 67%
Pathology (4/5) 80%
Evidence Based Medicine (1/3) 33%
Cardiovascular (0/2) 0%
Anaesthesia (1/3) 33%
Gastrointestinal Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Renal Physiology (1/1) 100%
Endocrine (1/1) 100%
Gastrointestinal (1/1) 100%
Renal (1/1) 100%
Basic Cellular (1/1) 100%
Head And Neck (1/1) 100%
Immune Responses (1/1) 100%
General Pathology (1/1) 100%
Passmed