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Question 1
Correct
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A 25-year old male with palpitations and dizziness presents to the emergency room. In the triage process, cardiac monitoring shows supraventricular tachycardia with a heart rate of 200 beats per minute. This high heart rate arises as a result of different specialised cells and nerve fibres in the heart which are responsible for conducting that action potential which is generated in the event of systole.
The fastest conduction velocity is carried out by which of the following?Your Answer: Purkinje fibres
Explanation:The correct answer is the Purkinje fibres, which conducts at a velocity of about 4m/sec.
The electrical conduction system of the heart starts with the SA node which generates spontaneous action potentials.
This is conducted across both atria by cell to cell conduction, and occurs at around 1 m/s. The only pathway for the action potential to enter the ventricles is through the AV node in a normal heart.
At this site, conduction is very slow at 0.05ms, which allows for the atria to completely contract and fill the ventricles with blood before the ventricles depolarise and contract.The action potentials are conducted through the Bundle of His from the AV node which then splits into the left and right bundle branches. This conduction is very fast, (,2m/s), and brings the action potential to the Purkinje fibres.
Purkinje fibres are specialised conducting cells which allow for a faster conduction speed of the action potential (,2-4m/s). This allows for a strong synchronized contraction from the ventricle and thus efficient generation of pressure in systole.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 2
Correct
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It is safe to perform a central neuraxial block without an increased risk of developing a vertebral canal haematoma in?
Your Answer: A patient on clopidogrel 7 days after last dose
Explanation:The incidence of vertebral canal haematoma following neuraxial blockade was reported (third National Audit Project (NAP3)) as 0.85 per 100 000 (95% CI 0-1.8 per 100 000). The incidence following neuraxial blockade in coagulopathic patients is likely to be higher hence coagulopathy remains a relative contraindication for conducting a spinal or epidural. When indicate, risk and benefits are weighed, and it is only performed by experienced personnel in this case.
Acceptable time to perform a block after the last dose of rivaroxaban in a patient with a creatinine clearance of greater than 30mL/minute is 18 hours.
Acceptable time to perform a block after the last dose of subcutaneous LMWH as prophylaxis is 12 hours.
Acceptable time to perform a block after the last dose of subcutaneous UFH as prophylaxis is 4 hours.
Acceptable time to perform a block after the last dose of thrombolytic therapy (streptokinase or alteplase) is 10 days.
Clopidogrel should be stopped 7 days prior to surgery, particularly if a central neuraxial procedure is considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Which of the given statements is true about standard error of the mean?
Your Answer: Is a measure of correlation between two variables
Correct Answer: Gets smaller as the sample size increases
Explanation:The standard error of the mean (SEM) is a measure of the spread expected for the mean of the observations – i.e. how ‘accurate’ the calculated sample mean is from the true population mean. The relationship between the standard error of the mean and the standard deviation is such that, for a given sample size, the standard error of the mean equals the standard deviation divided by the square root of the sample size.
SEM = SD / square root (n)
where SD = standard deviation and n = sample size
Therefore, the SEM gets smaller as the sample size (n) increases.
If we want to depict how widely scattered some measurements are, we use the standard deviation. For indicating the uncertainty around the estimate of the mean, we use the standard error of the mean. The standard error is most useful as a means of calculating a confidence interval. For a large sample, a 95% confidence interval is obtained as the values 1.96×SE either side of the mean.
A 95% confidence interval:
lower limit = mean – (1.96 * SEM)
upper limit = mean + (1.96 * SEM)
Results such as mean value are often presented along with a confidence interval. For example, in a study the mean height in a sample taken from a population is 183cm. You know that the standard error (SE) (the standard deviation of the mean) is 2cm. This gives a 95% confidence interval of 179-187cm (+/- 2 SE).
Hence, it would be wrong to say that confidence levels do not apply to standard error of the mean.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 4
Correct
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Which of the following drug can be the first-line drug for both broad and narrow complex tachyarrhythmia?
Your Answer: Amiodarone
Explanation:Amiodarone is the longest-acting anti-arrhythmic drug. It possesses the action of all classes of antiarrhythmic drugs (Sodium channel blockade, Beta blockade, Potassium channel blockade, and Calcium channel blockade). Due to this property, it has the widest anti-arrhythmic spectrum and thus can be used in both broad and narrow complex tachyarrhythmia.
Adenosine is shortest acting anti-arrhythmic drug.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 5
Correct
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The required sample size in a trial of a new therapeutic agent varies with?
Your Answer: Level of statistical significance required
Explanation:The level of statistical significance required influences the sample size used. This is because sample size is used in the calculation of SD/SE.
Sample size does not affect
The level of acceptance
The alternative hypothesis with a general level set at p<0.05
The test to be used.Experience of the investigator and the type of patient recruited should have no bearing on the required sample size.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 6
Correct
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Metabolization of many drugs used in anaesthesia involves the cytochrome P450 (CYP) isoenzymes.
The CYP enzyme most likely to be subject to genetic variability and thus cause adverse drug reactions is which of these?Your Answer: CYP2D6
Explanation:Approximately 25% of phase-1 drug reactions is made responsible by CYP2D6.
As much as a 1,000-fold difference in the ability to metabolise drugs by CYP2D6 can happen between phenotypes, and this may result in adverse drug reactions (ADRs).
The metabolism of antiemetics, beta-blockers, codeine, tramadol, oxycodone, hydrocodone, tamoxifen, antidepressants, neuroleptics, and antiarrhythmics is also as a result of CYP2D6.
Patients who take drugs that are metabolised by CYP2D6 but have poor CYP2D6 metabolism are more likely to have ADRs. People with ultra-rapid CYP2D6 metabolism may have a decreased drug effect due to low plasma concentrations of these drugs.
All the other CYP enzymes are subject to genetic polymorphism. Variants are less likely to lead to adverse drug reactions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 7
Correct
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A new study is being carried out on the measurement of a new cardiovascular disease biomarker, and its applications in preoperative screening. The data for this study is expected to be normally distributed.
Which of the following statements is true about normal distributions?Your Answer: The mean, median and mode are the same value
Explanation:The correct answer is the mean, median and mode of normally distributed data are the same value. This is as a result of the bell shaped curve which is equal on both sides.
The bell-shape indicates that values around the mean are more frequent in occurrence than the values farther away.
In a normal distribution:
1) +/- one standard deviation of the mean accounts for 68% of the data.
2) +/- two standard deviations of the mean accounts for 95% of the data.
3) +/- three standard deviations of the mean accounts for 99.7% of the data. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 8
Correct
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Which of these statements is true about spirometry?
Your Answer: A capacity is the sum of two or more volumes
Explanation:Functional residual capacity (FRC) is 1.7 to 3.5L/kg
A capacity is the sum of two or more volumes. The total lung capacity (TLC) is total sum of the volume of gas present in all lung compartments upon maximum inspiration. It is represented mathematically as:
Total lung capacity (TLC) = Vital capacity (VC) + Residual volume (RV)
The residual volume (RV) is the volume of gas still present within the lung post maximum exhalation. It cannot be measured by spirometry, but can be using a body plethysmograph and also with the helium dilution technique.
Closing capacity (CC) is the volume of gas within the lungs at which small airways close upon expiration. It increases with age and is especially important when it surpasses the FRC as it causes changes in ventilation/perfusion mismatch and hypoxia.
In the supine position, a patient with a normal body mass index and no history of lung pathology, the CC equals the FRC at approximately 44, and at approximately 66 at standing position. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 9
Correct
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Regarding the plateau phase of the cardiac potential, which electrolyte is the main determinant?
Your Answer: Ca2+
Explanation:The cardiac action potential has several phases which have different mechanisms of action as seen below:
Phase 0: Rapid depolarisation – caused by a rapid sodium influx.
These channels automatically deactivate after a few msPhase 1: caused by early repolarisation and an efflux of potassium.
Phase 2: Plateau – caused by a slow influx of calcium.
Phase 3 – Final repolarisation – caused by an efflux of potassium.
Phase 4 – Restoration of ionic concentrations – The resting potential is restored by Na+/K+ATPase.
There is slow entry of Na+into the cell which decreases the potential difference until the threshold potential is reached. This then triggers a new action potentialOf note, cardiac muscle remains contracted 10-15 times longer than skeletal muscle.
Different sites have different conduction velocities:
1. Atrial conduction – Spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibres at 1 m/sec2. AV node conduction – 0.05 m/sec
3. Ventricular conduction – Purkinje fibres are of large diameter and achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec, the fastest conduction in the heart. This allows a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman takes part in a study looking into the effects of different dietary substrates on metabolism. She receives a 24-hour ethyl alcohol infusion.
A constant volume, closed system respirometer is used to measure CO2 production and consumption. The production of carbon dioxide is found to be 200 mL/minute.
Which of the following values most closely resembles her anticipated O2 consumption at the conclusion of the trial?Your Answer: 100 mL/minute
Correct Answer: 300 mL/minute
Explanation:The respiratory quotient (RQ) is the ratio of CO2 produced by the body to O2 consumed in a given amount of time.
CO2 produced / O2 consumed = RQ
CO2 is produced at a rate of 200 mL per minute, while O2 is consumed at a rate of 250 mL per minute. An RQ of around 0.8 is typical for a mixed diet.
The RQ will change depending on the energy substrates consumed in the diet. Granulated sugar is a refined carbohydrate that contains 99.999 percent carbohydrate and no lipids, proteins, minerals, or vitamins.
Glucose and other hexose sugars (glucose and other hexose sugars):
RQ=1Fats:
RQ = 0.7Proteins:
Approximately 0.9 RQEthyl alcohol is a type of alcohol.
200/300 = 0.67 RQ
For complete oxidation, lipids and alcohol require more oxygen than carbohydrates.
When carbohydrate is converted to fat, the RQ can rise above 1.0. Fat deposition and weight gain are likely to occur in these circumstances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 11
Correct
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The following statement is true with regards to the Nernst equation:
Your Answer: It is used to calculate the potential difference across a membrane when the individual ions are in equilibrium
Explanation:The Nernst equation is used to calculate the membrane potential at which the ions are in equilibrium across the cell membrane.
The normal resting membrane potential is -70 mV (not + 70 mV).
The equation is:
E = RT/FZ ln {[X]o
/[X]i}Where:
E is the equilibrium potential
R is the universal gas constant
T is the absolute temperature
F is the Faraday constant
Z is the valency of the ion
[X]o is the extracellular concentration of ion X
[X]i is the intracellular concentration of ion X. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old male presented to an outpatient clinic with a complaint of a lump in his groin. Physical examination reveals the lumps increase in size while coughing and reduces in size after lying down flat. Based on his age and examination, a diagnosis of direct inguinal hernia was made.
Which structures does the bowel pass through in order to be classed as direct inguinal hernia?Your Answer: Deep inguinal ring
Correct Answer: Hesselbach's triangle
Explanation:A hernia is a protrusion of the abdominal viscera through a defect in the abdominal wall. Inguinal hernias are of two types; Indirect inguinal hernia and Direct inguinal hernia.
– Indirect inguinal hernia is common at young age commonly due to a patent processes vaginalis and bowel passes through the deep inguinal ring lateral to the inferior epigastric artery.
– Direct hernia forms as a result of the weakening of the posterior wall of the inguinal canal more specifically within a region called ‘Hasselbach triangle. It is defined medially by the rectus abdominis muscle, laterally by the epigastric vessels, and inferiorly by the inguinal ligament.Direct and indirect hernias can be differentiated based on their relation to the inferior epigastric artery. Direct inguinal hernia lies medial to it while indirect inguinal hernia lies lateral to the inferior epigastric artery.
The femoral ring is the site of the femoral hernia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 13
Incorrect
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All of the following statements are false regarding tetracyclines except:
Your Answer: Bind to the 50S subunit
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Tetracyclines inhibit protein synthesis through reversible binding to bacterial 30s ribosomal subunits (not 50s) which prevent binding of new incoming amino acids (aminoacyl-tRNA) and thus interfere with peptide growth.
They penetrate macrophages and are thus a drug of choice for treating infections due to intracellular organisms.
Tetracycline does not inhibit transpeptidation. Meanwhile, it is chloramphenicol which is responsible for inhibiting transpeptidation.
Tetracycline can get deposited in growing bone and teeth due to its calcium-binding effect and thus causes dental discoloration and dental hypoplasia. Due to this reason, they should be avoided in pregnant or lactating mothers.
Simultaneous administration of aluminium hydroxide can impede the absorption of tetracyclines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Which of the following descriptions best describes enflurane and isoflurane?
Your Answer: Are a pair of drugs containing a carbon-carbon double bond (i.e. C=C) that have trans and cis isomers
Correct Answer: Have the same molecular formula but different structural formulae
Explanation:Structural isomers have a similar molecular formula, but they have a different structural formula as their atoms are arranged in a different manner. Such small changes lead to the differential pharmacological activity. Enflurane and isoflurane are two prime examples of structural isomers.
Stereoisomers are those substances that have a similar molecular and structural formula, but the arrangement spatially of atoms are different and have optical activity.
Enantiomers are a pair of stereoisomers, which are non-superimposable mirror images of each other. They also have chiral centres of molecular symmetry. Ketamine is considered as an example of racemic mixture (contain 50% R and 50% S enantiomers)
Geometric isomers contain a carbon-carbon double bond (i.e. C=C) or a rigid carbon-carbon single bond in a heterocyclic ring. Cis-atracurium is one example.
Dynamic isomers or Tautomers are a pait of unstable structural isomers, which are present in equilibrium. One isomer can easily change after the change in pH. Midazolam and thiopentone are their examples.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 15
Correct
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When the volume of gas is measured, its value should be supported by a suitable abbreviation. From the following options, what does the STPD stand for?
Your Answer: Standard Temperature and Pressure, Dry
Explanation:Gas is composed of large numbers of molecules moving in random directions, separated by distances. They undergo perfectly elastic collisions with each other and the walls of a container and transfer kinetic energy in form of heat. These assumptions bring the characteristics of gases within the range and reasonable approximation to a real gas, particularly how any change in temperature and pressure affect the behaviour of gas. According to different theories and laws proposed, mathematical equations are derived to calculate the volume of gas, also different abbreviations are being used according to given conditions. The abbreviations used are ATP, BTPS, and STPD.
ATP stands for ambient temperature and barometric pressure, it is used to describe the conditions under which volume of gas is measured.
BTPS stands for body temperature and pressure saturated with water vapor. These are conditions under which volume of gas exist and all results of lung volume determination should be quoted at BTPS.
STPD stands for standard temperature and pressure, dry (0C and 760 mm Hg). These are the conditions that are used to describe quantities of individual gases exchanged in the lungs. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 16
Correct
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All the following statements are false regarding carbamazepine except
Your Answer: Has neurotoxic side effects
Explanation:Phenytoin, Carbamazepine, and Valproate act by inhibiting the sodium channels when these are open. These drugs also prolong the inactivated stage of these channels (Sodium channels are refractory to stimulation till these reach the closed/ resting phase from inactivated phase)
Carbamazepine is the drug of choice for partial seizures and trigeminal neuralgia
It can have neurotoxic side effects. Major neurotoxic effects include dizziness, headache, ataxia, vertigo, and diplopia
After single oral doses of carbamazepine, the absorption is fairly complete and the elimination half-life is about 35 hours (range 18 to 65 hours). During multiple dosing, the half-life is decreased to 10-20 hours, probably due to autoinduction of the oxidative metabolism of the drug.
It is metabolized in liver into active metabolite, carbamazepine-10,11-epoxide.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 17
Correct
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Regarding anti diuretic hormone (ADH), one of the following statements is correct:
Your Answer: Increases the total amount of electrolyte free water in the body
Explanation:The major action of ADH is to increase reabsorption of osmotically unencumbered water from the glomerular filtrate and decreases the volume of urine passed. The osmolarity of urine is increased to a maximum of four times that of plasma (approx. 1200 mOsm/kg) by Increasing water reabsorption.
Chronic water loading, Lithium, potassium deficiency, cortisol and calcium excess, all blunt the action of ADH. This leads to nephrogenic diabetes insipidus.
ADH’s primary site of action is the distal tubule and collecting duct.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 18
Correct
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A 42-year-old man presented with a bitemporal hemianopia with enlarged hands and feet. On examination, he was found to be hypertensive.
Which of the following correctly explains the cause of his visual field defect?Your Answer: Pituitary macroadenoma secreting growth hormone (GH)
Explanation:Pituitary macroadenoma is a benign tumour with growth larger than 10mm (those under 10mm are called microadenoma)
Compression of optic chiasm by pituitary adenoma is responsible for causing visual field defects like bitemporal hemianopia, optic neuropathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 19
Correct
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A patient in the post-anaesthesia care unit was put on ephedrine for episodes of hypotension. Initial bolus doses were effective and the patient became normotensive, until, a few hours later, there was a noticeable drop in the blood pressure despite administration of another dose of ephedrine.
Which of the following best explains the situation above?Your Answer: Tachyphylaxis
Explanation:When responsiveness diminishes rapidly after administration of a drug, the response is said to be subject to tachyphylaxis. This may be due to frequent or continuous exposure to agonists, which often results in short-term diminution of the receptor response.
Many mechanisms may be responsible, such as blocking access of G protein to activated receptor, or receptor molecules internalized by endocytosis to prevent exposure to extracellular molecules.
Tolerance occurs when larger doses are required to produce the same effect. This may be due to changes in receptor number or function due to exposure to the drug.
Desensitization refers to the common situation where the biological response to a drug diminishes when it is given continuously or repeatedly. It is a chronic loss of response, occurring over a longer period than tachyphylaxis. It may be possible to restore the response by increasing the dose (or concentration) of the drug but, in some cases, the tissues may become completely refractory to its effect.
Drug dependence is defined as a psychic and physical state of the person characterized by behavioural and other responses resulting in compulsions to take a drug, on a continuous or periodic basis in order to experience its psychic effect and at times to avoid the discomfort of its absence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 20
Correct
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The pharmacologically inactive precursor of barbiturates is Barbituric acid. Because the molecule is heterocyclic, small structural changes can alter its pharmacological activity (structure function relationship).
Which of the following modifications to the molecule has the greatest impact on the effectiveness of the barbiturate derivative?Your Answer: Sulphur at C2
Explanation:Barbituric acid is the barbiturates’ pharmacologically inactive precursor. A pyrimidine heterocyclic nucleus is formed by the condensation of urea and malonic acid. Its pharmacological activity can be influenced by minor structural changes (structure function relationship).
The duration of action and potency as a sedative are influenced by the length of the side chains at C5. Barbiturates with three carbon atoms in their chain last longer than those with two. Anticonvulsant properties are enhanced by branched chains.
The addition of a methyl group at N1 causes a faster onset/offset of action, but it also causes excitatory phenomena (twitching/lower convulsive threshold).
The addition of oxygen and sulphur to C2 increases the molecule’s lipid solubility and thus its potency. Thiopentone (thiobarbiturate) has sulphur groups at C2, making it 20-200 times more lipid soluble than oxybarbiturates.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 21
Correct
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A 50-year old man for septoplasty has a BMI of 32kg/m2 and neck circumference of 44 cm. He is troubled by intermittent nasal obstruction which causes his partner sleeps in a separate bedroom because of snoring. He currently on ramipril for hypertension.
Which of the following best approximates to his STOP-BANG score from the information above?Your Answer: 5
Explanation:The STOP-BANG questionnaire is used to screen patients for obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA).
The scoring system assigns one point for each feature.
S: Snoring (louder than talking or loud enough to be heard through closed doors)
T: Feeling tired, fatigued, or sleepy during daytime
O: Observed apnoeas during sleep
P: Hypertension
B: BMI more than 35 kg/m2
A: Age 50-years of age or greater
N: Neck circumference (male 17 inches / 43cm or greater and female 16 inches / 41 or greater)
G: Gender: MaleOur patient has a score of 5 ( O, P, A, N, G)
The score helps clinicians stratify patients for unrecognized OSA and target appropriate clinical management. It can also help triage patients for further investigation. A STOP-BANG score of 5-8 will identify patients with high probability of moderate to severe OSA in the surgical population.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is true regarding dopamine?
Your Answer: Decreases gastric transit time
Correct Answer: It can increase or decrease cAMP levels
Explanation:Dopamine (DA) is a dopaminergic (D1 and D2) as well as adrenergic ? and?1 (but not ?2 ) agonist.
The D1 receptors in renal and mesenteric blood vessels are the most sensitive: i.v. infusion of a low dose of DA dilates these vessels (by raising intracellular cAMP). This increases g.f.r. In addition, DA exerts a natriuretic effect by D1 receptors on proximal tubular cells.
Moderately high doses produce a positive inotropic (direct?1 and D1 action + that due to NA release), but the little chronotropic effect on the heart.
Vasoconstriction (?1 action) occurs only when large doses are infused.
At doses normally employed, it raises cardiac output and systolic BP with little effect on diastolic BP. It has practically no effect on nonvascular ? and ? receptors; does not penetrate the blood-brain barrier—no CNS effects.
Dopamine is used in patients with cardiogenic or septic shock and severe CHF wherein it increases BP and urine outflow.
It is administered by i.v. infusion (0.2–1 mg/min) which is regulated by monitoring BP and rate of urine formation
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 23
Correct
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Which of the following statements about closing capacity is true?
Your Answer: It is less than the functional residual capacity in a 30-year-old
Explanation:Closing capacity refers to volume of gas within the lungs at which the conducting small airways begin to close, that is, the point during expiration when small airways close.
It is calculated mathematically as:
Closing capacity = Closing volume (CV) + Residual volume (RV)
Functional residual capacity (FRC) is the volume of gas still present within the lungs post expiration.
Closing capacity is lower than the functional residual capacity in younger adults, but begins to rise to eventually equal, and then exceed it with increasing age (at about middle age), increasing intrabdominal pressure, decreasing blood flow in the pulmonary system and parenchymal disease within the pulmonary system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements most accurately describes a drug's efficacy or intrinsic activity?
Your Answer: Is a measure of the amount of drug required to produce a given effect
Correct Answer: Describes the ability of a drug to produce a therapeutic effect
Explanation:An agonist is a molecule with intrinsic efficacy and affinity for a receptor. The ability of a drug-receptor interaction to produce a maximal response is referred to as intrinsic efficacy or activity. Efficacy also refers to a drug’s ability to have a therapeutic or beneficial effect. Although the potencies of morphine and fentanyl differ, they both have the same intrinsic efficacy.
The amount of drug required to produce a given effect is referred to as potency. If drug X is effective in a dose of 100 mcg, its potency is greater than if drug Y is effective in a dose of 10 mg.
The therapeutic index, also known as the margin of safety, is a ratio of the lethal or serious side effect dose of a drug divided by the therapeutic dose of the same drug.
The term bioavailability refers to the ability of a substance to be absorbed. The area under a curve (AUC) of a graphic plot of plasma concentration and time is used to calculate oral bioavailability. It’s used to figure out how much of a drug to take and when to take it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 25
Correct
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The right coronary artery supplies blood to all the following, except which?
Your Answer: The circumflex artery
Explanation:The right coronary artery supplies the right ventricle, the right atrium, the sinoatrial (SA) node and the atrioventricular (AV) node.
The circumflex artery originates from the left coronary artery and is supplied by it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Of the following, which of these oxygen carrying molecules causes the greatest shift of the oxygen-dissociation curve to the left?
Your Answer: Haemoglobin (HbF)
Correct Answer: Myoglobin (Mb)
Explanation:Myoglobin is a haemoglobin-like, iron-containing pigment that is found in muscle fibres. It has a high affinity for oxygen and it consists of a single alpha polypeptide chain. It binds only one oxygen molecule, unlike haemoglobin, which binds 4 oxygen molecules.
The myoglobin ODC is a rectangular hyperbola. There is a very low P50 0.37 kPa (2.75 mmHg). This means that it needs a lower P50 to facilitate oxygen offloading from haemoglobin. It is low enough to be able to offload oxygen onto myoglobin where it is stored. Myoglobin releases its oxygen at the very low PO2 values found inside the mitochondria.
P50 is defined as the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen: It is the PO2 at which the haemoglobin becomes 50% saturated with oxygen. Normally, the P50 of adult haemoglobin is 3.47 kPa(26 mmHg).
Foetal haemoglobin has 2 ? and 2 ?chains. The ODC is left shifted – this means that P50 lies between 2.34-2.67 kPa [18-20 mmHg]) compared with the adult curve and it has a higher affinity for oxygen. Foetal haemoglobin has no ? chains so this means that there is less binding of 2.3 diphosphoglycerate (2,3 DPG).
Carbon monoxide binds to haemoglobin with an affinity more than 200-fold higher than that of oxygen. This therefore decreases the amount of haemoglobin that is available for oxygen transport. Carbon monoxide binding also increases the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen, which shifts the oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve to the left and thus impedes oxygen unloading in the tissues.
In sickle cell disease, (HbSS) has a P50 of 4.53 kPa(34 mmHg).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 27
Correct
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Heights of 100 individuals(adults) who were administered steroids at any stage during childhood was studied. The mean height was found to be 169cm with the data having a standard deviation of 16cm. What will be the standard error associated with the mean?
Your Answer: 1.6
Explanation:Standard error can be calculated by the following formula:
Standard Error= (Standard Deviation)/√(Sample Size)
= (16) / √(100)
= 16 / 10
= 1.6 -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 28
Correct
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Patient’s having disease (Test Positive: 60, Test Negative:40)
Patient’s not having the disease (Test Positive:20, Test Negative: 80)
This is a result of a new tumour marker blood test, that was performed on 200 women for breast cancer screening. The director of the screening programme ask you to evaluate the observations and inform them the specificity of this new test.
Which one of the following figure you will relay to the programme director?Your Answer: 80%
Explanation:The positive predictive value is the ratio of patients truly diagnosed as positive to all those who had positive test results. In this case, this is 60/(60+20)=75%.
The negative predictive value is the ratio of patients truly diagnosed as negative to all those who had negative test results. In this case, this is 80/(80+40)=67%.
The sensitivity is the ratio of patients with the disease who test positive i.e. true positive patients to the total number of people with the disease. In this case, this is 60/(60+40)=60%.
The specificity is the ratio of people who don’t have the disease who test negative i.e. true negatives to the total number of people without the disease. In this case, this is 80/(20+80)=80%.
70% is not the result of any screening measurements
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 29
Correct
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What structure lies deepest within the popliteal fossa?
Your Answer: Popliteal artery
Explanation:The popliteal fossa is the shallow, diamond-shaped depression located in the back of the knee joint.
The structures that lie within in from superficial to deep are:
The tibial and common fibular nerve: Most superficial. They arise from the sciatic nerve.
The popliteal vein
The popliteal artery: Lies deepest. It arises from the femoral arteryBoundaries of the popliteal fossa:
Laterally
Biceps femoris above, lateral head of gastrocnemius and plantaris belowMedially
Semimembranosus and semitendinosus above, medial head of gastrocnemius belowFloor
Popliteal surface of the femur, posterior ligament of knee joint and popliteus muscleRoof
Superficial and deep fascia -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Which one of the following causes vasoconstriction?
Your Answer: Prostacyclin
Correct Answer: Angiotensin II
Explanation:Prostacyclin is a strong vasodilator. It is administered as an intravenous infusion for critical ischemia. Commercially, it is available as sodium epoprodtenol.
Atrial Natriuretic peptide (ANP) hormone secreted from the atria, kidney, and neural tissues. It primarily acts on renal vessel to maintain normal blood pressure and reduce plasma volume by: increasing the renal excretion of salt and water, glomerular filtration rate, vasodilation, and by increasing the vascular permeability. It also inhibits the release of renin and aldosterone.
Indoramin is an alpha-adrenoceptor blocking agent. which act selectively on post-synaptic-alpha adrenoreceptor, leading to decease in peripheral resistance.
Angiotensin II is a vasoconstrictor, causing high sodium retention. It also increases the secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and aldosterone level.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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