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  • Question 1 - A 17-year-old patient with a headache, fever, and a non-blanching rash is brought...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old patient with a headache, fever, and a non-blanching rash is brought to the emergency room. Meningococcal infection is confirmed by a lumbar puncture. Neisseria meningitidis uses one of the following immune evasion mechanisms:

      Your Answer: Produces exotoxin

      Correct Answer: Secretes IgA protease

      Explanation:

      Meningococci have 3 important virulence factors, as follows:

      Polysaccharide capsule – Individuals with immunity against meningococcal infections have bactericidal antibodies against cell wall antigens and capsular polysaccharides; a deficiency of circulating anti meningococcal antibodies is associated with the disease.
      Lipo-oligosaccharide endotoxin (LOS)
      Immunoglobulin A1 (IgA1)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Principles
      88.7
      Seconds

  • Question 2 - The most common cause of anaemia worldwide is which of the following? ...

    Correct

    • The most common cause of anaemia worldwide is which of the following?

      Your Answer: Iron deficiency anaemia

      Explanation:

      The most common cause of microcytic anaemia and of any anaemia worldwide is iron deficiency anaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      23.2
      Seconds

  • Question 3 - Identify the type of graph described below:

    This graph is a useful tool for...

    Incorrect

    • Identify the type of graph described below:

      This graph is a useful tool for evaluating the performance of diagnostic tests and more generally for evaluating the accuracy of a statistical model (e.g., logistic regression, linear discriminant analysis) that classifies subjects into 1 of 2 categories, diseased or non diseased. The closer the graph is to the upper left corner, which represents 100% sensitivity and 100% specificity, the more accurate the diagnostic test.

      Your Answer: Kaplan-Meier plot

      Correct Answer: ROC curve

      Explanation:

      Receiver-operating characteristic (ROC) analysis was originally developed during World War II to analyse classification accuracy in differentiating signal from noise in radar detection. Recently, the methodology has been adapted to several clinical areas heavily dependent on screening and diagnostic tests, in particular, laboratory testing, epidemiology, radiology, and bioinformatics. ROC analysis is a useful tool for evaluating the performance of diagnostic tests and more generally for evaluating the accuracy of a statistical model (e.g., logistic regression, linear discriminant analysis) that classifies subjects into 1 of 2 categories, diseased or non diseased. Its function as a simple graphical tool for displaying the accuracy of a medical diagnostic test is one of the most well-known applications of ROC curve analysis.

      The closer the ROC curve is to the upper left corner, which has 100% sensitivity and 100% specificity, the higher the overall accuracy of the diagnostic test.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      54.3
      Seconds

  • Question 4 - A 35 year old man presents with a deep laceration to the proximal...

    Correct

    • A 35 year old man presents with a deep laceration to the proximal part of the forearm. On further assessment, the patient is unable to flex the metacarpophalangeal joints and interphalangeal joints of the index, middle finger and the thumb.

      The ring and little fingers are intact but there is weakness at the proximal interphalangeal joint.

      There is also loss of sensation over the lateral palm and the palmar surface of the lateral three and a half fingers.

      Which of these nerve(s) has most likely been affected?

      Your Answer: Median nerve

      Explanation:

      A median nerve injury affecting the extrinsic and intrinsic muscles of the hand will present with:

      Loss of sensation to the lateral palm and the lateral three and a half fingers.

      Weakness of flexion at the metacarpophalangeal joints of the index and middle finger. This is because of paralysis of the lateral two lumbricals.

      Weakness of flexion of the proximal interphalangeal joints of all four fingers due to paralysis of the flexor digitorum superficialis

      Weakness of flexion at the distal interphalangeal joints of the index and middle finger following paralysis of the lateral half of the flexor digitorum profundus.
      Weakness of thumb flexion, abduction and opposition due to paralysis of the flexor pollicis longus and thenar muscles

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      50.1
      Seconds

  • Question 5 - You are teaching a group of medical students about cardiovascular examination. You are...

    Correct

    • You are teaching a group of medical students about cardiovascular examination. You are discussing heart sounds and the cardiac cycle. Which of the following stages of the cardiac cycle occurs immediately after the aortic valve closes:

      Your Answer: Isovolumetric relaxation

      Explanation:

      Immediately after the closure of the semilunar valves, the ventricles rapidly relax and ventricular pressure decreases rapidly but the AV valves remain closed as initially the ventricular pressure is still greater than atrial pressure. This is isovolumetric relaxation. Atrial pressure continues to rise because of venous return, with the v wave of the JVP waveform peaking during this phase. Rapid flow of blood from the atria into the ventricles during the ventricular filling phase causes thethird heart sound, which is normal in children but, in adults, is associated with disease such as ventricular dilation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      69.7
      Seconds

  • Question 6 - The arterial blood gas (ABG) of a 56-year-old woman shows type A lactic...

    Correct

    • The arterial blood gas (ABG) of a 56-year-old woman shows type A lactic acidosis.

      What is the most likely cause of her lactic acidosis?

      Your Answer: Left ventricular failure

      Explanation:

      Lactic acidosis is a common finding in critically ill patients and commonly associated with other serious underlying pathologies. It occurs when pH is <7.35 and lactate is >5 mmol/L. Anion gap is increased in lactic acidosis.

      Acquired lactic acidosis is classified into two subtypes:
      Type A: lactic acidosis due to tissue hypoxia and
      Type B: due to non-hypoxic processes affecting the production and elimination of lactate

      Some causes of type A and type B lactic acidosis include:
      Type A lactic acidosis
      Left ventricular failure
      Severe anaemia
      Shock (including septic shock)
      Asphyxia
      Cardiac arrest
      CO poisoning
      Respiratory failure
      Severe asthma and COPD

      Type B lactic acidosis:
      Regional hypoperfusion
      Renal failure
      Liver failure
      Sepsis (non-hypoxic sepsis)
      Thiamine deficiency
      Alcoholic ketoacidosis
      Diabetic ketoacidosis
      Cyanide poisoning
      Methanol poisoning
      Biguanide poisoning

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal Physiology
      60.9
      Seconds

  • Question 7 - Which of the following muscles is least likely to be involved in forceful expiration:...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following muscles is least likely to be involved in forceful expiration:

      Your Answer: Transversus abdominis

      Correct Answer: External intercostal muscles

      Explanation:

      Forceful expiration is primarily produced by the deeper thoracic muscles (internal and innermost intercostal muscles, subcostals and transversus thoracis) aided by contraction of the abdominal wall muscles which increase intra-abdominal pressure thus further reducing the volume of the thorax.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      56.9
      Seconds

  • Question 8 - Which of the following is NOT an adverse effect associated with warfarin therapy:...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT an adverse effect associated with warfarin therapy:

      Your Answer: Pancreatitis

      Correct Answer: Neutropenia

      Explanation:

      Adverse effects of warfarin:
      The most common adverse effect of warfarin is bleeding

      Other common adverse effects of warfarin include nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea, jaundice, hepatic dysfunction, pancreatitis, pyrexia, alopecia, purpura, and rash

      Skin necrosis is a rare but serious adverse effect of warfarin; treatment with warfarin should be stopped if warfarin related skin necrosis is suspected

      Calciphylaxis is a rare, but a very serious condition that causes vascular calcification and cutaneous necrosis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      48.5
      Seconds

  • Question 9 - Given a patient with dislocation of the patella, which muscle is the most...

    Incorrect

    • Given a patient with dislocation of the patella, which muscle is the most important to address during rehabilitation to prevent recurrent dislocation?

      Your Answer: Rectus femoris

      Correct Answer: Vastus medialis

      Explanation:

      Patellar dislocation is a disabling musculoskeletal disorder which predominantly affects younger people who are engaged in multidirectional physically active pursuits. Conservative (non-operative) treatment is the treatment of choice for FTPD (first time patellar dislocation). Quadriceps strengthening exercises are considered one of the principal management aims for people following FTPD. A United Kingdom (UK) survey of physiotherapy practice has shown that quadriceps strengthening and specific-vastus medialis obliquus (VMO) or distal vastus medialis (VM) muscle strengthening or recruitment exercises were two of the most frequently used interventions for this population. Specific VM exercises are favoured in some quarters based on the assumption that the VM has an important role in preventing excessive lateral patellar translation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      87.4
      Seconds

  • Question 10 - A 29-year-old male presents with a 3-day history of bloody diarrhoea and abdominal...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old male presents with a 3-day history of bloody diarrhoea and abdominal pain.

      All the following are causes of infectious bloody diarrhoea EXCEPT?

      Your Answer: Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli

      Explanation:

      Infective causes of bloody diarrhoea include:
      Salmonella spp
      Campylobacter spp
      Schistosomiasis
      Entamoeba histolytica (Amoebiasis )
      Shigella spp
      Clostridium difficile
      Yersinia spp
      Enteroinvasive Escherichia coli

      Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli is non-invasive and does not cause inflammation of the gut and bloody diarrhoea. It presents with copious watery diarrhoea and usually are not associated with abdominal cramping.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      57.4
      Seconds

  • Question 11 - A 66-year-old male presents to his family physician with the complaint of increasing...

    Incorrect

    • A 66-year-old male presents to his family physician with the complaint of increasing fatigue and lethargy, along with itching, especially after a hot bath. He also complains of increased sweating and dizziness. On examination, he has a plethoric appearance. Abdominal examination shows the presence of splenomegaly. A basic panel of blood tests is ordered in which her Hb comes out to be 17 g/dL.

      Which one of the following treatment options will be most suitable in this case?

      Your Answer: Desferrioxamine

      Correct Answer: Venesection

      Explanation:

      The clinical and laboratory findings, in this case, support a diagnosis of polycythaemia vera. A plethoric appearance, lethargy, splenomegaly and itching are common in this disease. Patients may also have gouty arthritis, Budd-Chiari syndrome, erythromelalgia, stroke, myocardial infarction or DVT. The average age for diagnosis of Polycythaemia Vera is 65-74 years. It is a haematological malignancy in which there is overproduction of all three cell lines. Venesection is the treatment of choice as it would cause a decrease in the number of red blood cells within the body.

      Erythropoietin is given in patients with chronic renal failure as they lack this hormone. Administration of erythropoietin in such patients causes stimulation of the bone marrow to produce red blood cells.

      Desferrioxamine is a chelating agent for iron and is given to patients with iron overload due to repeated blood transfusions, e.g. in thalassemia patients.

      Penicillamine is a chelating agent for Copper, given as treatment in Wilson’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      26.1
      Seconds

  • Question 12 - Foetal haemoglobin (HbF) comprises about how much of the total haemoglobin in adults:...

    Incorrect

    • Foetal haemoglobin (HbF) comprises about how much of the total haemoglobin in adults:

      Your Answer: 0 - 0.001%

      Correct Answer: 0.5 - 0.8%

      Explanation:

      Foetal haemoglobin (HbF) makes up about 0.5 – 0.8 % of total adult haemoglobin and consists of two α and two gamma (γ) globin chains.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular
      • Physiology
      45.1
      Seconds

  • Question 13 - Nitrous oxide is associated with which of the following adverse effects: ...

    Incorrect

    • Nitrous oxide is associated with which of the following adverse effects:

      Your Answer: Laryngospasm

      Correct Answer: Megaloblastic anaemia

      Explanation:

      Exposure to nitrous oxide for prolonged periods, either by continuous or by intermittent administration, may result in megaloblastic anaemia as a result of interference with the action of vitamin B12; neurological toxic effects can occur without preceding overt haematological changes. Depression of white cell formation may also occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia
      • Pharmacology
      67.1
      Seconds

  • Question 14 - From which of the following cell types are platelets derived? ...

    Incorrect

    • From which of the following cell types are platelets derived?

      Your Answer: Promyelocytes

      Correct Answer: Megakaryocytes

      Explanation:

      Synthesis of platelets occurs in the bone marrow by fragmentation of megakaryocytes cytoplasm, derived from the common myeloid progenitor cell. The average time for differentiation of the human stem cell to the production of platelets is about 10 days. The major regulator of platelet formation is thrombopoietin and 95% of this is produced by the liver. Normal platelet count is 150 – 450 x 109/L and the normal lifespan of a platelet is about 10 days. Usually about one-third of the marrow output of platelets may be trapped at any one time in the normal spleen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular
      • Physiology
      26.7
      Seconds

  • Question 15 - In patients who are not at risk of hypercapnic respiratory failure but are...

    Incorrect

    • In patients who are not at risk of hypercapnic respiratory failure but are requiring oxygen, the oxygen saturations should be maintained at which of the following?

      Your Answer: 100%

      Correct Answer: 94 - 98%

      Explanation:

      Oxygen saturation should be 94 – 98% in most acutely ill patients with a normal or low arterial carbon dioxide (PaCO2). In some clinical situations, however, like cardiac arrest and carbon monoxide poisoning, it is more appropriate to aim for the highest possible oxygen saturation until the patient is stable.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      • Respiratory
      22
      Seconds

  • Question 16 - A 22-year-old presents with acute severe asthma. He takes a drug prescribed by...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old presents with acute severe asthma. He takes a drug prescribed by her GP but cannot recall the name and is receiving regular salbutamol nebulisers. His current potassium level is 2.8 mmol/l.

      Which drug is least likely to have caused his hypokalaemia?

      Your Answer: Hydrocortisone

      Correct Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      Serious hypokalaemia can occur in severe asthma and the effect can be potentiated by concomitant treatment with theophyllines like aminophylline, corticosteroids, thiazide and loop diuretics, and hypoxia. Plasma-potassium concentration should be monitored in severe asthma.

      Spironolactone, a potassium-sparing diuretic, is not likely to have contributed to patients hypokalaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      • Respiratory Pharmacology
      32.8
      Seconds

  • Question 17 - Which of the following is NOT a contraindication to the use of diazepam: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT a contraindication to the use of diazepam:

      Your Answer: Unstable myasthenia gravis

      Correct Answer: Acute alcohol withdrawal

      Explanation:

      Benzodiazepines are used to treat symptoms in patients with acute alcohol withdrawal syndrome.
      Benzodiazepines are contraindicated in:
      Respiratory depression
      Marked neuromuscular respiratory weakness, such as unstable myasthenia gravis
      Obstructive sleep apnoea syndrome (symptoms may be aggravated)
      Severe hepatic impairment (the elimination half-life of diazepam may be prolonged; increased risk of coma)
      Phobic or obsessional states, chronic psychosis or hyperkinesis (paradoxical reactions may occur).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia
      • Pharmacology
      80.9
      Seconds

  • Question 18 - A patient suffers an injury to the nerve that innervates piriformis.
    The piriformis muscle...

    Correct

    • A patient suffers an injury to the nerve that innervates piriformis.
      The piriformis muscle is innervated by which of the following nerves? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Nerve to piriformis

      Explanation:

      Piriformis is innervated by the nerve to piriformis, which is a direct branch from the sacral plexus (S1 and S2).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      70.1
      Seconds

  • Question 19 - What is the average healing time for a femoral shaft fracture under normal...

    Incorrect

    • What is the average healing time for a femoral shaft fracture under normal circumstances? Choose ONE answer.

      Your Answer: 16 weeks

      Correct Answer: 12 weeks

      Explanation:

      The process of fracture healing occurs naturally after traumatic bone disruption and begins with haemorrhage, then progresses through Inflammatory, reparative, and remodelling stages

      Average healing times of common fractures are:
      Femoral shaft: 12 weeks
      Tibia: 10 weeks
      Phalanges: 3 weeks
      Metacarpals: 4-6 weeks
      Distal radius: 4-6 weeks
      Humerus: 6-8 weeks

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      56.4
      Seconds

  • Question 20 - Which of the following statements is INCORRECT. Fick's law tells us that the...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is INCORRECT. Fick's law tells us that the rate of diffusion of a gas across a membrane increases as:

      Your Answer: the membrane surface area increases.

      Correct Answer: the partial pressure gradient decreases.

      Explanation:

      Fick’s law tells us that the rate of diffusion of a gas increases:
      the larger the surface area involved in gas exchange
      the greater the partial pressure gradient across the membrane
      the thinner the membrane
      the more soluble the gas in the membrane
      the lower the molecular weight of the gas

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      21
      Seconds

  • Question 21 - You examine a resuscitated patient who has been diagnosed with ventricular tachycardia. The...

    Incorrect

    • You examine a resuscitated patient who has been diagnosed with ventricular tachycardia. The patient's hemodynamics are normal. You intended to prescribe amiodarone to him, but you can't because he has a contraindication.

      In these circumstances, which of the following is a contraindication to using amiodarone?

      Your Answer: Long QT syndrome

      Correct Answer: Sinus node disease

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone is an anti-arrhythmic medication that can be used to treat both ventricular and atrial arrhythmias.

      The use of amiodarone is contraindicated in the following situations:
      Conduction disturbances that are severe (unless pacemaker fitted)
      Sinus node disease is a condition that affects the lymph nodes in (unless pacemaker fitted)
      Sensitivity to iodine
      Blockage of the Sino-atrial heart valve (except in cardiac arrest)
      Bradycardia in the sinuses (except in cardiac arrest)
      Thyroid disorders

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      52.2
      Seconds

  • Question 22 - An 18-year-old patient was brought to the ER after falling off of his...

    Correct

    • An 18-year-old patient was brought to the ER after falling off of his skateboard. He is unable to flex the distal interphalangeal joint of his index finger. You suspect that he suffers from a supracondylar fracture. Which of the following conditions would confirm supracondylar fracture?

      Your Answer: Inability to oppose the thumb

      Explanation:

      A supracondylar fracture is a fracture that occurs through the thin section of the distal humerus above the growth plate.

      A supracondylar fracture is most usually associated with median nerve injury. A medial nerve damage causes paralysis of the thenar muscles, as well as loss of thumb opposition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      61.9
      Seconds

  • Question 23 - The Auerbach's plexus is a set of ganglia that controls peristalsis and is...

    Incorrect

    • The Auerbach's plexus is a set of ganglia that controls peristalsis and is located in the gut wall.

      Auerbach's plexus is located in which layer of the gut wall?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Muscular layer

      Explanation:

      The Auerbach’s plexus, also known as the myenteric plexus, is a collection of ganglia that controls peristalsis and is located in the gut wall.

      In the muscular layer of the wall, it is located between the circular and longitudinal muscle layers. It is a linear network of linked neurons that runs the length of the gastrointestinal system. The myenteric plexus generates an increase in gut wall tone and the strength of rhythmical contractions when stimulated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal Physiology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 24 - A dermatological examination of a patient presenting with a lump shows a visible...

    Incorrect

    • A dermatological examination of a patient presenting with a lump shows a visible collection of fluid measuring 0.3 cm in diameter.

      Which one of these best describes the lump you have found on examination?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vesicle

      Explanation:

      A vesicle is a visible collection of fluid measuring less than 0.5 cm in diameter.

      A furuncle, or boil, is a pyogenic infection of the hair follicle commonly caused by infection with Staphylococcus aureus.

      A carbuncle is a collection of individual boils clustered together.

      A bulla is a visible collection of clear fluid measuring greater than 0.5 cm in diameter.

      A pustule is a small visible skin elevation containing an accumulation of pus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 25 - A 70-year-old man presents with right-sided hemiplegia and loss of joint position sense,...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man presents with right-sided hemiplegia and loss of joint position sense, vibratory sense, and discriminatory touch. Upon further physical examination, it was observed that her tongue deviates to the left-hand side. An MRI and CT scan was ordered and results showed that he was suffering a left-sided stroke.

      Branches of which of the following arteries are most likely implicated in the case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anterior spinal artery

      Explanation:

      Medial medullary syndrome is a form of stroke that affects the medial medulla of the brain. It is caused by a lesion in the medial part of the medulla, which is due to an infraction of vertebral arteries and/or paramedian branches of the anterior spinal artery.

      It is characterized by contralateral paralysis of the upper and lower limb of the body, a contralateral decrease in proprioception, vibration, and/or fine touch sensation, paresthesias or less commonly dysesthesias in the contralateral trunk and lower limb, and loss of position and vibration sense with proprioceptive dysfunction. Ipsilateral deviation of the tongue due to ipsilateral hypoglossal nerve damage can also be seen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 26 - Regarding myeloma, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding myeloma, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Myeloma is associated with marked rouleaux formation on blood film.

      Explanation:

      98% of cases of myeloma occur over the age of 40 years with a peak incidence between 65 and 70 years. The disease is twice as common in black individuals compared to those of white or Asian origin. Laboratory findings include presence of a paraprotein in serum/urine (the paraprotein is IgG in 60% of cases, IgA in 20% and light chain only in almost all the rest) and marked Rouleaux formation on blood film. There is no cure for myeloma. The overall median survival is now 7-10 years and in younger (less than 50 years) patients it can be over 10 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 27 - A 45-year-old African American male presents to your clinic complaining of swelling of...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old African American male presents to your clinic complaining of swelling of his feet for the past six months. On examination, there is periorbital and pedal oedema. A 24-hour urine collection is ordered, which shows 8 g of protein. The serum cholesterol is ten mmol/L. You order a renal biopsy to confirm the diagnosis.

      Which one of the following findings are you most likely to see in this patient's biopsy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

      Explanation:

      This patient has Nephrotic Syndrome confirmed by the presence of 1. Heavy proteinuria (greater than 3-3.5 g/24 hours)
      2. Hypoalbuminemia (serum albumin < 25 g/L)
      3. Generalised oedema (often with periorbital involvement)
      4. Severe hyperlipidaemia (total cholesterol is often > 10 mmol/L).

      Focal Segmental Glomerulosclerosis will be the most likely answer as it is the most common cause of Nephrotic Syndrome in African American adults.

      Minimal change disease is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children.

      Membranous glomerulonephritis is the most common cause of Nephrotic Syndrome in Caucasian adults.

      In IgA nephropathy, patients will complain of cola-coloured urine.

      Mesangiocapillary glomerulonephritis presents with features of Nephritic Syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 28 - Which lobe of the prostate gland is most commonly affected in prostatic carcinoma?...

    Incorrect

    • Which lobe of the prostate gland is most commonly affected in prostatic carcinoma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Posterior

      Explanation:

      The periurethral portion of the prostate gland increases in size during puberty and after the age of 55 years due to the growth of non-malignant cells in the transition zone of the prostate that surrounds the urethra. Most cancers develop in the posterior lobe, and cancers in this location may be palpated during a digital rectal examination (DRE).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen And Pelvis
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 29 - Regarding skeletal muscle contraction, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding skeletal muscle contraction, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The force of contraction of a muscle can be controlled by increasing recruitment of motor units.

      Explanation:

      Each motor unit contracts in an all or nothing fashion, i.e. if a motor unit is excited, it will stimulate all of its muscle fibres to contract. The force of contraction of a muscle is controlled by varying the motor unit recruitment (spatial summation), and by varying the firing rate of the motor units (temporal summation). During a gradual increase in contraction of a muscle, the first units start to discharge and increase their firing rate, and, as the force needs to increase, new units are recruited and, in turn, also increase their firing rate. For most motor units, the firing rate for a steady contraction is between 5 and 8 Hz. Because the unitary firing rates for each motor unit are different and not synchronised, the overall effect is a smooth force profile from the muscle. Increasing the firing rate of motor units is temporal summation where the tension developed by the first action potential has not completely decayed when the second action potential and twitch is grafted onto the first and so on. If the muscle fibres are stimulated repeatedly at a faster frequency, a sustained contraction results where it is not possible to detect individual twitches. This is called tetanus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 30 - Which of the following is an example of discrete data: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is an example of discrete data:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Number of children

      Explanation:

      Discrete data is quantitative data that can only take whole numerical values e.g. number of children, number of days missed from work.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      • Statistics
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Microbiology (1/2) 50%
Principles (0/1) 0%
Haematology (1/1) 100%
Pathology (1/3) 33%
Evidence Based Medicine (0/2) 0%
Anatomy (1/5) 20%
Upper Limb (1/2) 50%
Cardiovascular (1/2) 50%
Physiology (3/5) 60%
Renal Physiology (1/1) 100%
Thorax (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology (1/5) 20%
Lower Limb (0/2) 0%
Specific Pathogen Groups (1/1) 100%
Basic Cellular (1/1) 100%
Respiratory (0/2) 0%
Respiratory Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Anaesthesia (1/1) 100%
General Pathology (0/2) 0%
Cardiovascular Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Gastrointestinal Physiology (0/1) 0%
Statistics (0/1) 0%
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