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  • Question 1 - A 10-year-old girl presents to the hospital with complaints of fever, painful joints,...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old girl presents to the hospital with complaints of fever, painful joints, and a rash. Her parents insist that she was otherwise well except for a history of sore throat 2 weeks before.On examination, she appears quite unwell with a temperature reading of 38.5°C. She was found to be tachycardic, hypertensive and with an erythematous rash with raised edges noted on the anterior aspect of her abdomen. Her left ankle and right elbow joints are swollen, and she has multiple painless subcutaneous nodules under her skin. Auscultation revealed an apical mid-diastolic murmur. Blood investigations reveal leucocytosis and raised C-reactive protein (CRP) levels. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) was also above normal limits for her gender and age. An ECG confirms the presence of a tachycardia, a prolonged PR interval, and flat inverted T waves.What is the most probable diagnosis for this child?

      Your Answer: Rheumatic fever

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for this child would be rheumatic fever due to a previous history of rheumatic fever, evidence of streptococcal disease from a throat swab, a raised ASO titre and a positive streptococcal antigen test or a leukocytosis.Acute Rheumatic Fever:ARF occurs because of an abnormal immune response to a streptococcal antigenic component. It has a latent period of 1–3 weeks and is more common in the lower socio-economic classes. It peaks at around 5–15 years of age and affects the blood vessels, joints, nervous system and subcutaneous tissues. It is characterised as an autoimmune disease, and there is a risk of rheumatic fever occurring after infection in 3% of the population. The recurrence is greater in younger children and increases with each attack. Duckett-Jones criteria:The diagnostic criteria for acute rheumatic fever.Major: – Pancarditis- Chorea (Sydenham’s) – Polyarthritis (flitting)- Erythema marginatum- Subcutaneous nodulesMinor criteria include the presence of arthralgia, fever, prolonged PR interval, raised ESR, raised CRP.Note that:To make the diagnosis of rheumatic fever: Two major and/or one major with two minor criteria are required. Evidence of a recent streptococcal infection with a raised ASO titre or an antiribonuclease B level is sufficient. Exceptions to this rule are mentioned below:- Chorea alone is diagnostic.- Insidious or late-onset carditis with no other explanation.- Rheumatic recurrence: The presence of one major and one minor criterion with a prior streptococcal disease that is recurring.Consequences of pericarditis include heart block, pericardial effusion, tachycardia, cardiomegaly, pericardial friction rub, congestive cardiac failure, valvular disease and a Carey–Coombes apical mid-diastolic rumbling murmur.New heart murmurs are often audible, including those of mitral regurgitation and aortic regurgitation. Skin nodules affect the perivascular tissues and are non-specific lesions resulting from fibroid degeneration.Management:Medication includes aspirin for the acute phase, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs for arthritis, prednisolone for severe carditis, and high-dose penicillin for immediate management with antibiotic prophylaxis in the long term. Antibiotics may include penicillin V, erythromycin or benzylpenicillin. Diazepam and haloperidol may be required to control the chorea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      143.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - An 8-year-old boy is presented with arthritis, cough and non-blanching purpura. His coagulation...

    Correct

    • An 8-year-old boy is presented with arthritis, cough and non-blanching purpura. His coagulation profile is normal. His CBC: Hb 11.8 TLC 7.2*10^9 Plt 286*10^9. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Henoch-Schönlein Purpura (HSP)

      Explanation:

      The best answer is Henoch-Schönlein Purpura (HSP). This patient has a characteristic rash and the labs are consistent with this diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      30.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - The use of prostaglandin to keep the ductus arteriosus open is necessary for...

    Incorrect

    • The use of prostaglandin to keep the ductus arteriosus open is necessary for which of the following?

      Your Answer: Aortic stenosis

      Correct Answer: Tricuspid atresia

      Explanation:

      Tricuspid atresia is the third most common form of cyanotic congenital heart disease, with a prevalence of 0.3-3.7% in patients with congenital heart disease. The deformity consists of a complete lack of formation of the tricuspid valve with the absence of a direct connection between the right atrium and right ventricle.The following 3 considerations guide the treatment of infants with tricuspid atresia:- The amount of pulmonary blood flow must be regulated to decrease hypoxemia or symptoms of congestive heart failure.- Myocardial function, the integrity of the pulmonary vascular bed, and pulmonary vascular integrity must be preserved to optimize conditions for a later Fontan operation.- The risk of bacterial endocarditis and thromboembolism must be minimized.Infants with decreased pulmonary blood flow: encompasses most of the infants with tricuspid atresia.Marked cyanosis and hypoxemia characterize the clinical course. Acidaemia may occur if the hypoxemia is profound, and death can ensue.Promptly treat infants with severe hypoxemia with prostaglandin E infusions to maintain patency of the ductus arteriosus and improve pulmonary blood flow.Infants with increased pulmonary blood flow: These infants have an associated unrestrictive ventricular septal defect and transposed great vessels.They present with severe congestive heart failure and benefit from digitalis and diuretic therapy until an operative intervention can be undertaken to restrict the pulmonary blood flow.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      34.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following is used to diagnose Infective endocarditis using the Duke...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is used to diagnose Infective endocarditis using the Duke criteria?

      Your Answer: 4 minor criteria

      Correct Answer: 1 major criteria and 3 minor criteria

      Explanation:

      Infective endocarditis (IE) is caused by a bacterial, or fungal infection which damages the heart’s endothelium and can thus lead to changes in heart function, valve incompetencies, possible cardiac failure, as well other associated skin and organ changes. Organisms common in IE include Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus viridians. The HACEK organisms (Haemophilus, Actinobacillus, Cardiobacterium, Eikenella, and Kingella species) are common in neonates. The Duke criteria uses 2 major, or 1 major and 3 minor criteria, or 5 minor criteria to diagnose infective endocarditis. Major criteria include:- a positive blood culture and evidence of endocardial involvement. Minor criteria include: – evidence of predisposition (a heart condition of injection drug use)- a fever- vascular phenomena such as Janeway lesions- immunologic phenomena such as Osler’s nodes and Roth’s spots| and- microbiological or serological evidence of active infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      25.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A new-born term baby has a 2/6 systolic murmur 6-hours after delivery.Which one...

    Incorrect

    • A new-born term baby has a 2/6 systolic murmur 6-hours after delivery.Which one of the following is the most common explanation of this murmur?

      Your Answer: Persistent arterial duct

      Correct Answer: Tricuspid regurgitation

      Explanation:

      The murmur of tricuspid valve regurgitation is typically a high-pitched, blowing, holosystolic, plateau, nonradiating murmur best heard at the lower left sternal border. The intensity is variable, but tends to increase during inspiration (Carvallo’s sign), with passive leg raising, after a post-extrasystole pause, and following amyl nitrite inhalation. The intensity of the murmur tends to correlate positively with the severity of regurgitation. Right ventricular enlargement may displace the location of the murmur leftward. Right ventricular failure may abolish respiratory variation. When tricuspid regurgitation is caused by pulmonary hypertension, a pulmonic ejection click may be audible. Severe tricuspid regurgitation is commonly accompanied by a third heart sound emanating from the right ventricle and best heard at the lower left sternal border. Severe tricuspid regurgitation typically produces an accentuated jugular cv wave and may produce hepatic congestion with a pulsatile liver.The auscultatory findings associated with ventricular septal defect are variable, depending on a variety of morphologic and hemodynamic considerations. The systolic murmur associated with a Roger’s-type ventricular septal defect (regurgitant jet flows directly into the right ventricular outflow tract) in patients with low pulmonary vascular resistance is a low to medium pitched, holosystolic murmur with midsystolic accentuation. The intensity of the murmur is typically grade 3 or higher.Patent ductus arteriosus produces a continuous murmur in patients with normal pulmonary vascular resistance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      38.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 15-day old male baby was brought to the emergency department with sweating...

    Correct

    • A 15-day old male baby was brought to the emergency department with sweating and his lips turning blue while feeding. He was born full term. On examination, his temperature was 37.9°C, blood pressure 75/45 mmHg, pulse was 175/min, and respiratory rate was 42/min. A harsh systolic ejection murmur could be heard at the left upper sternal border. X-ray chest showed small, boot-shaped heart with decreased pulmonary vascular markings. He most likely has:

      Your Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot

      Explanation:

      The most common congenital cyanotic heart disease and the most common cause of blue baby syndrome, Tetralogy of Fallot shows four cardiac malformations occurring together. These are ventricular septal defect (VSD), pulmonary stenosis (right ventricular outflow obstruction), overriding aorta (degree of which is variable), and right ventricular hypertrophy. The primary determinant of severity of disease is the degree of pulmonary stenosis. Tetralogy of Fallot is seen in 3-6 per 10,000 births and is responsible for 5-7% congenital heart defects, with slightly higher incidence in males. It has also been associated with chromosome 22 deletions and DiGeorge syndrome. It gives rise to right-to-left shunt leading to poor oxygenation of blood. Primary symptom is low oxygen saturation in the blood with or without cyanosis at birth of within first year of life. Affected children ay develop acute severe cyanosis or ‘tet spells’ (sudden, marked increase in cyanosis, with syncope, and may result in hypoxic brain injury and death). Other symptoms include heart murmur, failure to gain weight, poor development, clubbing, dyspnoea on exertion and polycythaemia. Chest X-ray reveals characteristic coeur-en-sabot (boot-shaped) appearance of the heart. Treatment consists of immediate care for cyanotic spells and Blalock–Taussig shunt (BT shunt) followed by corrective surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      570.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A child on 70% O2 suddenly crouches down whilst playing to help with...

    Correct

    • A child on 70% O2 suddenly crouches down whilst playing to help with breathing. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot

      Explanation:

      Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF), a congenital heart defect, includes the following: right ventricular hypertrophy, ventricular septal defect, abnormal position of the aorta and pulmonary valve stenosis. The O2 saturation in patients with TOF is typically lower than normal and the condition usually becomes symptomatic early in life. A feature of the disease with high diagnostic significance is squatting or crouching of the infant as a compensatory mechanism to increase the peripheral vascular resistance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      36.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - An asymptomatic 5-month old boy was referred to the paediatric cardiology department after...

    Correct

    • An asymptomatic 5-month old boy was referred to the paediatric cardiology department after his GP noted an ejection systolic murmur and thrill at the upper left sternal edge. SpO2 saturation is at 98%, and an ECG reveals an R/S ratio >1 in the V1 lead.What is the most probable diagnosis for this child?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary Stenosis

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis in this patient would be pulmonary stenosis. Pulmonary Stenosis:Pulmonary valve murmurs are heard in the upper left sternal edge, associated with a thrill but no desaturation in the absence of an additional shunt. The ECG changes suggest right ventricular hypertrophy. Pulmonary stenosis is often well tolerated in childhood unless severe. These should be monitored with serial echocardiography, and balloon pulmonary valvoplasty should be considered once the pressure gradient reaches 64 mmHg.Other options:- Atrial septal defect: While atrial septal defects are associated with right ventricular outflow tract murmurs, they would not cause a thrill.- Patent ductus arteriosus: PDA murmurs can be audible in the left upper sternal edge, but would normally be audible in the left infraclavicular area and be continuous rather than ejection systolic. This left to right shunt would not cause desaturation but does cause left-sided volume loading and hence left-sided ECG changes.- Tetralogy of Fallot: Ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, subpulmonary stenosis, and right ventricular hypertrophy. This would often cause a ULSE murmur with a thrill and RVH on ECG. However, this degree of obstruction would cause shunting from right to left, and this child would be desaturated.- Ventricular septal defect: Isolated ventricular septal defects cause pansystolic murmurs at the left lower sternal edge. They would have left-sided ECG changes and normal saturations (in the absence of pulmonary hypertension).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      29.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A child is admitted due to potassium supplement overdose. What of the following...

    Correct

    • A child is admitted due to potassium supplement overdose. What of the following do you expect to see?

      Your Answer: High voltage T waves in the electrocardiogram

      Explanation:

      Hyperkalaemia presents with high voltage (peaked) T waves on ECG. Other features on ECG include smaller p-waves and wider QRS complexes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 13-year-old girl is brought by her mother to the A&E with breathlessness,...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old girl is brought by her mother to the A&E with breathlessness, fatigue and palpitations. Anamnesis does not reveal any syncope or chest pain in the past. on the other hand, these symptoms were present intermittently for a year. Clinical examination reveals a pan-systolic murmur associated with giant V waves in the jugular venous pulse. Chest auscultation and resting ECG are normal. 24 hour ECG tape shows a short burst of supraventricular tachycardia. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy

      Correct Answer: Ebstein's anomaly

      Explanation:

      Ebstein’s anomaly is characterised by apical displacement and adherence of the septal and posterior leaflets of the tricuspid valve to the underlying myocardium, thereby displacing the functional tricuspid orifice apically and dividing the right ventricle into two portions. The main haemodynamic abnormality leading to symptoms is tricuspid valve incompetence. The clinical spectrum is broad| patients may be asymptomatic or experience right-sided heart failure, cyanosis, arrhythmias and sudden cardiac death (SCD). Many Ebstein’s anomaly patients have an interatrial communication (secundum atrial septal defect (ASD II) or patent foramen ovale). Other structural anomalies may also be present, including a bicuspid aortic valve (BAV), ventricular septal defect (VSD), and pulmonary stenosis. The morphology of the tricuspid valve in Ebstein anomaly, and consequently the clinical presentation, is highly variable. The tricuspid valve leaflets demonstrate variable degrees of failed delamination (separation of the valve tissue from the myocardium) with fibrous attachments to the right ventricular endocardium.The displacement of annular attachments of septal and posterior (inferior) leaflets into the right ventricle toward the apex and right ventricular outflow tract is the hallmark finding of Ebstein anomaly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      171.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 10 year old boy presented with episodic bluish pale skin while crying...

    Correct

    • A 10 year old boy presented with episodic bluish pale skin while crying and brief episodes of loss of consciousness. On examination he has clubbing, cyanosis and a pansystolic murmur. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot

      Explanation:

      Except Tetralogy of Fallot, the others are acyanotic heart diseases. The cyanotic spells and loss of consciousness are due to spasm of the infundibular septum, which acutely worsens the right ventricular outflow tract obstruction. The given murmur is due to a ventricular septal defect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      39.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - An infant born at 34 weeks was kept in the incubator for almost...

    Correct

    • An infant born at 34 weeks was kept in the incubator for almost a month. Physical examination revealed a heart murmur, which however was not present at discharge. What is the most probable cause of this murmur?

      Your Answer: PDA

      Explanation:

      PDA is particularly common in premature babies and it is managed by indomethacin administration. However, if PDA is not the only defect, prostaglandin E1 can be administered in order to keep the ductus open until the surgery takes place.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      43.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - What does a prominent left precordium in a 15-year-old boy with an ejection...

    Correct

    • What does a prominent left precordium in a 15-year-old boy with an ejection murmur in the second left intercostal space indicate?

      Your Answer: ASD with pulmonary hypertension

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PH) is noted in 9 to 35 % of patient with a secundum type ASD. The haemodynamic definition of PH is a mean pulmonary arterial pressure (mPAP) of ≥25 mmHg at rest by means of right heart catheterization. In ASD, The findings on physical examination depend on the degree of left-to-right shunt and its hemodynamic consequences, which, in turn, depends on the size of the defect, the diastolic properties of both ventricles, and the relative resistance of the pulmonary and systemic circulations.Blood flow across the atrial septal defect (ASD) does not cause a murmur at the site of the shunt because no substantial pressure gradient exists between the atria. However, ASD with moderate-to-large left-to-right shunts results in increased right ventricular stroke volume across the pulmonary outflow tract creating a crescendo-decrescendo systolic ejection murmur. This murmur is heard in the second intercostal space at the upper left sternal border.Patients with large left-to-right shunts often have a rumbling mid-diastolic murmur at the lower left sternal border because of increased flow across the tricuspid valve.ASD is an acyanotic lesion. Thus, the patient should be normally saturated. In the rare case of severe pulmonary arterial hypertension, atrial shunt reversal (Eisenmenger syndrome) may occur, leading to cyanosis and clubbing

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      95
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of the following is an ECG feature of hypercalcaemia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is an ECG feature of hypercalcaemia?

      Your Answer: Prolonged QT

      Correct Answer: Tall T waves

      Explanation:

      On electrocardiography (ECG), characteristic changes in patients with hypercalcemia include:Tall T wavesReduced QTProlonged and depressed STArrhythmiaOther electrolyte disturbances:Hypokalaemia:Flat T wavesST depressionU waveAtrial and ventricular ectopicsVF and VTHyperkalaemia:Tall T wavesST- changesReduced QT intervalIncreased PR intervalSmaller or absent P wavesWidened QRS, broadening to VFHypocalcaemia:Prolonged QTProlonged STFlat or absent T wavesU waves

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      26
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following can cause Torsades de Pointes? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following can cause Torsades de Pointes?

      Your Answer: Anorexia nervosa

      Explanation:

      Torsade de pointes is an uncommon and distinctive form of polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (VT) characterized by a gradual change in the amplitude and twisting of the QRS complexes around the isoelectric line.Conditions associated with torsade include the following:Electrolyte abnormalities – Hypokalaemia, hypomagnesemia, hypocalcaemiaEndocrine disorders – Hypothyroidism, hyperparathyroidism, pheochromocytoma, hyperaldosteronism, hypoglycaemiaCardiac conditions – Myocardial ischemia, myocardial infarction, myocarditis, bradyarrhythmia, complete atrioventricular (AV) block, takotsubo cardiomyopathyIntracranial disorders – Subarachnoid haemorrhage, thalamic hematoma, cerebrovascular accident, encephalitis, head injuryNutritional disorders – Anorexia nervosa, starvation, liquid protein diets, gastroplasty and ileojejunal bypass, celiac diseaseRisk factors for torsade include the following:Congenital long QT syndromeFemale genderAcquired long QT syndrome (causes of which include medications and electrolyte disorders such as hypokalaemia and hypomagnesemia)BradycardiaBaseline electrocardiographic abnormalitiesRenal or liver failure

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - All of the given options are examples of neonatal cyanotic congenital heart disease...

    Incorrect

    • All of the given options are examples of neonatal cyanotic congenital heart disease EXCEPT?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary atresia

      Correct Answer: Eisenmenger syndrome

      Explanation:

      Cyanotic congenital heart disease (CCHD) is a common cause of neonatal morbidity and mortality. They can be classified as CCHD due to:- Right-to-left shunt, associated with the decreased pulmonary flow, e.g., tetralogy of Fallot (TOF), pulmonary atresia, right-sided hypoplastic heart,- Right-to-left shunt, associated with the decreased aortic flow, e.g., left-sided hypoplastic heart, interrupted arch, severe coarctation| – Bidirectional shunt, e.g., TGA, DORV, TA, etc. Eisenmenger syndrome is not a neonatal CCHD| rather it develops later in young adulthood secondary to various CHD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      18
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 2-day old boy is diagnosed with a patent ductus arteriosus. He has...

    Correct

    • A 2-day old boy is diagnosed with a patent ductus arteriosus. He has a cyanotic heart disease. Which of the following would be the best course of action in this patient?

      Your Answer: Prostaglandin E1 (PGE1) administration

      Explanation:

      Administration of IV prostaglandin/PGE1 (e.g., alprostadil) is indicated in ductal-dependent CHDs until surgery can be performedMechanism: prostaglandin prevents the ductus arteriosus from closing → creates intentional shunt to allow mixing of deoxygenated with oxygenated blood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      38.1
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which of the following statements is correct regarding coarctation of the aorta? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is correct regarding coarctation of the aorta?

      Your Answer: It can be accompanied by a bicuspid aortic valve

      Explanation:

      Coarctation of the aorta is one of the serious forms of congenital heart diseases characterized by a congenitally narrowed down proximal thoracic aorta. This narrowing is usually located distal to the origin of the left subclavian artery. Coarctation can occur in isolation but can accompany other cardiac lesions, including a bicuspid aortic valve. When the coarctation is located just above the left subclavian artery, raised blood pressure can be noted in the right arm. The most common type of murmur found in coarctation of the aorta is a diastolic murmur of aortic regurgitation due to the presence of a bicuspid aortic valve. Exercise augmented cardiac output is only affected in cases where coarctation of the aorta leads to heart failure. Hypertension persists even after the surgical repair and needs to be closely monitored.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      45.8
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 17-year-old girl is brought to the ER after collapsing at a party....

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old girl is brought to the ER after collapsing at a party. Her friends state that she complained about palpitations prior to collapsing. On further history, it is revealed that she recently visited the dermatologist and was given an antibiotic prescription for an infected toe. She is reported to be allergic to penicillin. Her mother died of a sudden cardiac event when the girl was just 3 years old. An uncle and aunt also passed away suddenly at a young age. ECG shows sinus rhythm and a corrected QT interval of 550 ms. Which of the following most likely lead to the collapse in this young girl?

      Your Answer: Lown–Ganong–Levine syndrome

      Correct Answer: Congenital long QT syndrome

      Explanation:

      Congenital LQTS arises from mutations in genes that code for ion channels within myocytes.These mutations all cause ventricular action potentials to be prolonged, resulting in a lengthened QT interval on ECG. The congenital long-QT syndrome (LQTS) is a life-threatening cardiac arrhythmia syndrome that represents a leading cause of sudden death in the young. LQTS is typically characterized by a prolongation of the QT interval on the ECG and by the occurrence of syncope or cardiac arrest, mainly precipitated by emotional or physical stress.LQTS type 1Most common type of congenital LQTSDefect: loss of function mutation on the KCNQ1 gene located on chromosome 11p → defective slow delayed rectifier voltage-gated potassium channelSubtypesJervell and Lange-Nielsen syndrome Associated with congenital deafnessAutosomal recessiveAssociated with ventricular tachyarrhythmiasRomano-Ward syndrome No associated deafnessAutosomal dominantAssociated with ventricular tachyarrhythmias

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      43.1
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which of the following conditions is not associated with an atrial septal defect?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following conditions is not associated with an atrial septal defect?

      Your Answer: Fragile X syndrome

      Explanation:

      Atrial septal defects may also occur in association with a variety of other congenital heart defects, or in new-borns that are relatively small or premature. The following conditions are associated with an atrial septal defect:Ebstein’s anomalyFoetal alcohol syndromeHolt-Oram syndromeDown syndromeEllis van Creveld syndromeLutembacher’s syndrome Ostium primum defects occur frequently in individuals with Down syndrome or Ellis van-Creveld syndrome.Holt-Oram syndrome characterized by an autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance and deformities of the upper limbs (most often, absent or hypoplastic radii) has been attributed to a single gene defect in TBX5Fragile X syndrome is characterized by moderate intellectual disability in affected males and mild intellectual disability in affected females. The physical features in affected males are variable and may not be obvious until puberty. These symptoms can include a large head, long face, prominent forehead and chin, protruding ears, loose joints and large testes. Other symptoms can include flat feet, frequent ear infections, low muscle tone, a long narrow face, high arched palate, dental problems, crossed eyes (strabismus) and heart problems including mitral valve prolapse.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      25
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 12-year-old boy has a history of fever for one week (39C), with...

    Correct

    • A 12-year-old boy has a history of fever for one week (39C), with no other symptoms leading up to the fever. He recently had a surgical extraction of one of his incisors two weeks before consultation. On examination of CVS, a mid-systolic click followed by a late systolic murmur is heard. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Infection

      Explanation:

      Tooth extraction or any surgical procedure may introduce bacteria into the blood stream. The most commonly involved organisms include Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus viridans. Once in the blood, these organisms have a very high tendency of attaching to the walls of the heart and causing inflammation known as endocarditis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      35.4
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - An infant of 2 months is diagnosed with a ventricular septal defect. This...

    Correct

    • An infant of 2 months is diagnosed with a ventricular septal defect. This congenital anomaly is most likely due to a developmental failure of which embryological structure?

      Your Answer: Endocardial cushions

      Explanation:

      The heart is the first organ to form and become functional, emphasizing the importance of transport of material to and from the developing infant. It originates about day 18 or 19 from the mesoderm and begins beating and pumping blood about day 21 or 22. It forms from the cardiogenic region near the head and is visible as a prominent heart bulge on the surface of the embryo. Originally, it consists of a pair of strands called cardiogenic cords that quickly form a hollow lumen and are referred to as endocardial tubes. These then fuse into a single heart tube and differentiate into the truncus arteriosus, bulbus cordis, primitive ventricle, primitive atrium, and sinus venosus, starting about day 22. The primitive heart begins to form an S shape within the pericardium between days 23 and 28. The internal septa begin to form about day 28, separating the heart into the atria and ventricles, although the foramen ovale persists until shortly after birth. Between weeks five and eight, the atrioventricular valves form. The semilunar valves form between weeks five and nine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      23.1
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which is a sign of subacute bacterial endocarditis (SBE)? ...

    Correct

    • Which is a sign of subacute bacterial endocarditis (SBE)?

      Your Answer: Splinter haemorrhages

      Explanation:

      Infective endocarditis (IE) is defined as an infection of the endocardial surface of the heart.Fever, possibly low-grade and intermittent, is present in 90% of patients with IE. Heart murmurs are heard in approximately 85% of patients.One or more classic signs of IE are found in as many as 50% of patients. They include the following:- Petechiae: Common, but nonspecific, finding- Subungual (splinter) haemorrhages: Dark-red, linear lesions in the nail beds -Osler nodes: Tender subcutaneous nodules usually found on the distal pads of the digits- Janeway lesions: Nontender maculae on the palms and soles- Roth spots: Retinal haemorrhages with small, clear centres| rareSigns of neurologic disease, which occur in as many as 40% of patients, include the following:- Embolic stroke with focal neurologic deficits: The most common neurologic sign- Intracerebral haemorrhage- Multiple microabscessesOther signs of IE include the following:- Splenomegaly- Stiff neck- Delirium- Paralysis, hemiparesis, aphasia- Conjunctival haemorrhage- Pallor- Gallops- Rales- Cardiac arrhythmia- Pericardial rub- Pleural friction rub

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which of the following cardiac abnormalities is most often found in patients suffering...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following cardiac abnormalities is most often found in patients suffering from Marfan syndrome?

      Your Answer: Dilated cardiomyopathy

      Correct Answer: Aortic regurgitation

      Explanation:

      Marfan syndrome is a disorder that affects the connective tissue found throughout the body, Marfan syndrome can affect many systems, often causing abnormalities in the heart, blood vessels, eyes, bones, and joints. The two primary features of Marfan syndrome are vision problems caused by a dislocated lens (ectopia lentis) in one or both eyes and aortic root disease, leading to aneurysmal dilatation, aortic regurgitation and dissection is the main cause of morbidity and mortality in Marfan syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      23.2
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 4 year old boy presented in the sixth day of fever, with...

    Correct

    • A 4 year old boy presented in the sixth day of fever, with erythema of the palms and soles and maculopapular rash. His eyes and tongue were red. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Kawasaki Disease

      Explanation:

      Kawasaki disease is an acute febrile illness of early childhood characterized by vasculitis of the medium-sized arteries. Diagnostic criteria include fever of at least 5 days duration along with 4 or 5 of the principal clinical features – extremity changes, polymorphous rash, oropharyngeal changes, conjunctival injection and unilateral nonpurulent cervical lymphadenopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      34.1
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 16-year-old has a right sided aortic arch which is visible on the...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old has a right sided aortic arch which is visible on the echocardiography. Which of the following condition most likely predisposes to this finding?

      Your Answer: Coarctation of the aorta

      Correct Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot

      Explanation:

      Several types of right-sided aortic arch exist, the most common ones being right-sided aortic arch with aberrant left subclavian artery and the mirror-image type. The variant with aberrant left subclavian artery is associated with congenital heart disease in only a small minority of affected people. The mirror-image type of right aortic arch is very strongly associated with congenital heart disease, in most cases tetralogy of Fallot. A right-sided aortic arch does not cause symptoms on itself, and the overwhelming majority of people with the right-sided arch have no other symptoms. However when it is accompanied by other vascular abnormalities, it may form a vascular ring, causing symptoms due to compression of the trachea and/or oesophagus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      29.5
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 13-year-old girl presents with episodes of feeling her heart racing and pounding,...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old girl presents with episodes of feeling her heart racing and pounding, dizziness, and sweating. Her mother reports that she appears slightly pale and feels frightened during these episodes. These episodes occur at different times during the day and a few times a week. There is no clear history suggestive of a trigger. She has no other known medical problems. Which of the following is the most probable underlying cause for these episodes?

      Your Answer: Atrio-ventricular re-entrant tachycardia (AVRT)

      Correct Answer: Atrio-ventricular nodal re-entrant tachycardia (AVNRT)

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for the patient in question is atrioventricular nodal re-entrant tachycardia (AVNRT).The presenting features of the patient are suggestive of supraventricular tachycardia (SVT). The most common form of SVT in children over 8 years old is atrioventricular nodal re-entrant tachycardia. It occurs as a result of an additional electrical circuit in or near the AV node itself.Other options:- Atrial Flutter: is a form of re-entry tachycardia within the atria which then becomes unsynchronised with the ventricles, which is not the case here. Furthermore, it is most common in babies and children with congenital heart disease.- Atrial tachycardia: is a condition where an area of atrium takes over the pacemaker activity of the heart. However, it is relatively uncommon.- Atrioventricular re-entrant tachycardia (AVRT): occurs due to an accessory electrical pathway between the atria and ventricles forming a re-entry circuit. This is the most common cause of SVT in children < 8 years old. One of the specific diagnoses of AVRT is Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome. However, WPW syndrome is much rarer than AVNRT.- Premature atrial contractions (PACs): are very common in normal, healthy children and adolescents. Occasionally, they can give rise to the feeling of a 'skipped beat'. Fortunately, they are rarely associated with any significant underlying pathology or need to be treated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      390.7
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which of the following segments of the ECG represents ventricular repolarization? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following segments of the ECG represents ventricular repolarization?

      Your Answer: T wave

      Explanation:

      The T wave represents ventricular repolarization. Other options:- P wave:Depolarization that spreads from the SA node throughout the atria. The wave lasts 0.08 to 0.1 seconds (80-100 ms).The isoelectric period after the P wave represents the time in which the impulse is travelling within the AV node.- P-R interval:Time from the onset of the P wave to the beginning of the QRS complex. The wave ranges from 0.12 to 0.20 seconds in duration.Represents the time between the onset of atrial depolarization and the onset of ventricular depolarization- QRS complex:It represents ventricular depolarization. The duration of the QRS complex is normally 0.06 to 0.1 seconds.- ST-segment:The isoelectric period following the QRS. It represents the period in which the entire ventricle is depolarized and roughly corresponds to the plateau phase of the ventricular action potential- U wave: It is a small positive wave which may follow the T wave. It represents the last remnants of ventricular repolarization.- Q-T intervalIt represents the time for both ventricular depolarization and repolarization to occur, and therefore roughly estimates the duration of an average ventricular action potential.The interval ranges from 0.2 to 0.4 seconds depending upon heart rate.At high heart rates, ventricular action potentials shorten in duration, which decreases the Q-T interval. Therefore the Q-T interval is expressed as a corrected Q-T (QTc) by taking the Q-T interval and dividing it by the square root of the R-R interval (interval between ventricular depolarizations). This allows an assessment of the Q-T interval that is independent of heart rate.The normal corrected Q-Tc interval is less than 0.44 seconds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      16.7
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 5 month old boy presents with breathlessness, central cyanosis, irregular pulse, and...

    Correct

    • A 5 month old boy presents with breathlessness, central cyanosis, irregular pulse, and oedema. On cardiac auscultation, he has a displaced apical beat laterally and a profound right ventricular heave. On lung auscultation, he has bilateral basal crackles. X-ray of the chest reveals gross cardiomegaly. Heart ultrasound shows mitral valve prolapse. Finally, ECG shows a prolonged and widened QRS complex with a short PR interval. Doctors establish the diagnosis of a right bundle branch block with a dominant R wave in V1. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Type A Wolff–Parkinson–White syndrome (WPWS)

      Explanation:

      Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome is a pre-excitation syndrome characterised by re-entry tachycardia that most commonly presents as a recurrent supraventricular tachycardia. ECG will show a short PR interval and a prolonged QRS complex.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      63.4
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 6-months-old boy develops QT interval prolongation. Which of the following is NOT...

    Correct

    • A 6-months-old boy develops QT interval prolongation. Which of the following is NOT a cause of QT prolongation in this boy?

      Your Answer: Lown-Ganong-Levine syndrome

      Explanation:

      Normal QT interval in a 6 months old baby is < 0.44 seconds. A duration exceeding this value is referred to as QT interval prolongation, which is associated with some important congenital syndromes that include Brugada syndrome which is characterized by vasovagal syncope and sudden cardiac death, Jervell and Lange-Nielsen syndrome which is associated with congenital deafness, Andersen syndrome which is marked by bone deformities, and Timothy syndrome with associated heart disease and immunodeficiency. Romano-Ward syndrome is the commonest cause of congenital QT prolongation with no associated extra-cardiac manifestations. Lown-Ganong-Levine syndrome is characterized by a shortened PR interval and a normal QRS duration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      12.1
      Seconds

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