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  • Question 1 - A 66-year-old baker presents to the oncology clinic with six-month history of weight...

    Incorrect

    • A 66-year-old baker presents to the oncology clinic with six-month history of weight loss and anorexia. Tumour marker profile shows an elevated level of bombesin.

      Out of the following, which is the most likely cancer to account for this result?

      Your Answer: Breast carcinoma

      Correct Answer: Small cell lung carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Bombesin is a tumour marker elevated in small cell lung carcinomas, as well as in gastric carcinomas and retinoblastomas.

      Tumour markers can be divided into:
      1. Monoclonal antibodies
      CA 125: Ovarian cancer, primary peritoneal cancer
      CA 19-9: Pancreatic cancer
      CA 15-3: Breast cancer

      2. Tumour specific antigens
      Prostate specific antigen (PSA): Prostatic carcinoma
      Alpha-feto protein (AFP): Hepatocellular carcinoma, teratoma
      Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA): Colorectal cancer
      S-100: Melanoma, schwannomas
      Bombesin: Small cell lung carcinoma, gastric cancer

      3. Enzymes
      Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)
      Neuron specific enolase (NSE)

      4. Hormones
      Calcitonin
      Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
      Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 2 - A 63-year-old man, known to have small cell lung cancer and ischaemic heart...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man, known to have small cell lung cancer and ischaemic heart disease (IHD), presents with increasing shortness of breath for the past 7 days. It becomes worse at night and is associated with an occasional non-productive cough. He has also noticed that his wedding ring feels tight. His cancer was diagnosed five months ago and he has recently completed a course of chemotherapy. From a cardiac point of view, he had a myocardial infarction (MI) two years ago following which he had primary angioplasty with stent placement. He has had no episode of angina since then.

      Clinical examination of his chest is unremarkable. He does, however, have distended neck veins and periorbital oedema.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Superior vena cava obstruction

      Explanation:

      Superior vena cava (SVC) obstruction is an oncological emergency caused by compression of the SVC and is most commonly associated with lung cancer.

      Some causes of the condition include:
      1. Common malignancies: non small cell lung cancer, lymphoma
      2. Other malignancies: metastatic seminoma, Kaposi’s sarcoma, breast cancer
      3. Aortic aneurysm
      4. Mediastinal fibrosis

      Clinical features of SVC obstruction include:
      1. Dyspnoea: most common
      2. Swelling of the face, neck, and arms: conjunctival and periorbital oedema may be seen
      3. Headache: often worse in the morning
      4. Visual disturbances
      5. Pulseless jugular venous distension

      Management options are:
      1. General: dexamethasone, balloon venoplasty, stenting
      2. Small cell lung cancer: chemotherapy and radiotherapy
      3. Non small cell lung cancer: radiotherapy

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 3 - A 45-year-old male patient who was initially investigated for having an abdominal mass...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old male patient who was initially investigated for having an abdominal mass is diagnosed as having Burkitt lymphoma. He is due to start chemotherapy today.

      Which one of the following should be given prior to his chemotherapy in order to reduce the risk of tumour lysis syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rasburicase

      Explanation:

      Rasburicase should be given prior to chemotherapy in order to reduce the risk of tumour lysis syndrome (TLS). Rasburicase is a recombinant version of urate oxidase which is an enzyme that metabolizes uric acid to allantoin. Allantoin is 5-10 times more soluble than uric acid, hence, renal excretion is more effective.

      TLS is a potentially fatal condition occurring as a complication during the treatment of high-grade lymphomas and leukaemias. It occurs from the simultaneous breakdown (lysis) of the tumour cells and subsequent release of chemicals into the bloodstream. This leads to hyperkalaemia and hyperphosphatemia in the presence of hyponatraemia. TLS can occur in the absence of chemotherapy, but it is usually triggered by the introduction of combination chemotherapy. Awareness of the condition is critical for its prophylactic management.

      Burkitt lymphoma is a high-grade B-cell neoplasm. There are two major forms:
      1. Endemic (African) form: typically involves maxilla or mandible.
      2. Sporadic form: abdominal (e.g. ileocaecal) tumours are the most common form. More common in patients with HIV.

      Burkitt lymphoma is associated with the c-myc gene translocation, usually t(8;14). The Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is strongly implicated in development of the African form of Burkitt lymphoma and to a lesser extent, the sporadic form.

      Management of the lymphoma is with chemotherapy. This tends to produce a rapid response which may cause TLS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 4 - A 43-year-old man is about to be started on chemotherapy for a high-grade...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old man is about to be started on chemotherapy for a high-grade lymphoma. He is given intravenous rasburicase to help lower the risk of tumour lysis syndrome (TLS).

      What is the mechanism of action of this drug?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Converts uric acid to allantoin

      Explanation:

      Rasburicase is a recombinant version of urate oxidase which is an enzyme that metabolizes uric acid to allantoin.

      TLS is a potentially fatal condition occurring as a complication during the treatment of high-grade lymphomas and leukaemias. It occurs from the simultaneous breakdown (lysis) of the tumour cells and subsequent release of chemicals into the bloodstream. This leads to hyperkalaemia and hyperphosphatemia in the presence of hyponatraemia. TLS can occur in the absence of chemotherapy, but it is usually triggered by the introduction of combination chemotherapy. Awareness of the condition is critical for its prophylactic management.

      Patients at high risk of TLS should be given IV rasburicase or IV allopurinol immediately prior to and during the first few days of chemotherapy. Allantoin is much more water soluble than uric acid and is therefore more easily excreted by the kidneys. Patients in lower-risk groups should be given oral allopurinol during cycles of chemotherapy in an attempt to avoid the condition.

      TLS is graded according to the Cairo-Bishop scoring system as:
      1. Laboratory tumour lysis syndrome
      2. Clinical tumour lysis syndrome

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 5 - An 86-year-old male patient has been diagnosed with monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance....

    Incorrect

    • An 86-year-old male patient has been diagnosed with monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance. He is eager to know its relation to his future health.

      Which of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 10% of patients with MGUS go on to develop myeloma over 10 years

      Explanation:

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 6 - Tumour suppressor genes MLH1 and MSH2 are affected in which familial cancer? ...

    Incorrect

    • Tumour suppressor genes MLH1 and MSH2 are affected in which familial cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hereditary non-polyposis colonic carcinoma (HNPCC)

      Explanation:

      In hereditary non-polyposis colonic carcinoma (HNPCC), mutations in MSH2, MSH6, PMS2 or MLH1 genes are found.
      Ataxia telangiectasia – ATM gene is affected.
      Familial adenomatous polyposis – APC gene is affected.
      Li-Fraumeni syndrome – mutation of the TP53 tumour suppressor gene. Neurofibromatosis – mutation in or a deletion of the NF1 gene

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 7 - A 40-year-old female is receiving a course of chemotherapy for breast cancer. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old female is receiving a course of chemotherapy for breast cancer. She is, however, experiencing troublesome vomiting which is not responding to domperidone.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate next step of management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add a 5-HT3 antagonist

      Explanation:

      Nausea and vomiting are the common side effects of chemotherapy. Risk factors for the development of these symptoms include age<50 years, anxiety, concurrent use of opioids, and the type of chemotherapy administered. For patients at low risk of these symptoms, drugs such as metoclopramide may be used. For high-risk patients, however, 5-HT3 receptor antagonists such as ondansetron are often effective, especially if combined with dexamethasone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 8 - A 50-year-old female patient is started on cyclophosphamide for vasculitis associated with Wegener's...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old female patient is started on cyclophosphamide for vasculitis associated with Wegener's granulomatosis. Which of the following adverse effects is most characteristically associated with cyclophosphamide use?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemorrhagic cystitis

      Explanation:

      Cyclophosphamide is a cytotoxic alkylating agent that acts by causing cross-linking of DNA strands. Its major adverse effects include haemorrhagic cystitis, myelosuppression, and transitional cell carcinoma.

      Cardiomyopathy is caused by doxorubicin and ototoxicity is caused by cisplatin. Alopecia and weight gain are associated with a variety of chemotherapeutic agents especially those that treat breast cancers (e.g. paclitaxel).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 9 - A 33-year-old man presents with recurrent episodes of abdominal pain associated with weakness...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old man presents with recurrent episodes of abdominal pain associated with weakness of his arms and legs.

      Which one of the following urine tests would best indicate lead toxicity?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Coproporphyrin

      Explanation:

      Lead poisoning is characterised by abdominal pain, fatigue, constipation, peripheral neuropathy (mainly motor), and blue lines on gum margin in 20% of the adult patients (very rare in children).

      For diagnosis, the level of lead in blood is usually considered with levels greater than 10 mcg/dL being significant. Furthermore, the blood film shows microcytic anaemia and basophilic stippling of red blood cells. Urinary coproporphyrin is increased (urinary porphobilinogen and uroporphyrin levels are normal to slightly increased). Raised serum and urine levels of delta-aminolaevulinic acid may also be seen, making it sometimes difficult to differentiate from acute intermittent porphyria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 10 - Which the following features is most suggestive of megaloblastic anaemia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which the following features is most suggestive of megaloblastic anaemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypersegmented neutrophils in peripheral blood film

      Explanation:

      Hypersegmented neutrophils in the peripheral blood film is suggestive of megaloblastic changes in bone marrow.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 11 - A 52-year-old man is referred to the oncology clinic by his GP. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old man is referred to the oncology clinic by his GP. He recently suffered a fracture of his right humerus with minimal trauma.

      The results of the blood tests, taken on his arrival, prompted the referral:
      Hb: 8.9 g/dL
      WCC: 9.5 x 10^9/L
      Plts: 140 x 10^9/L
      MCV: 86 fL
      ESR: 60mm/1st hour
      Na+: 149 mmol/L
      K+: 3.6 mmol/L
      Urea: 15 mmol/L
      Creatinine: 160 mmol/L
      Calcium (corrected): 2.89 mmol/l
      Albumin: 28g/L
      Total protein: 89 g/L

      X-ray of right humerus reported a possible pathological fracture. Which of the following investigations would help best in confirming the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Protein electrophoresis

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis with anaemia, raised erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), hypercalcaemia, renal impairment, and raised total protein with low albumin is multiple myeloma (MM). Protein electrophoresis will confirm the presence of monoclonal band of paraprotein. Of note, a radioisotope bone scan is not a good test for picking up the lytic lesions of MM.

      Diagnosis of MM is based on the confirmation of (a) one major criterion and one minor criterion or (b) three minor criteria in an individual who has signs or symptoms of multiple myeloma.

      Major criteria:
      1. >30% plasma cells on bone marrow biopsy
      2. Monoclonal band of paraprotein on electrophoresis: >35g/L for IgG, 20g/L for IgA, or >1g of light chains excreted in the urine per day

      Minor criteria:
      1. 10-30% plasma cells on bone marrow biopsy
      2. Abnormal monoclonal band but levels less than listed above
      3. Lytic bone lesions observed radiographically
      4. Immunosuppression

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 12 - A 23-year-old man is being investigated for excessive bleeding following a tooth extraction....

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old man is being investigated for excessive bleeding following a tooth extraction.

      His coagulation profile shows:
      Plts: 173 x 10^9/L
      PT: 12.9 secs
      APTT: 84 secs

      Which clotting factor is he most likely deficient in?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Factor VIII

      Explanation:

      The patient is most likely a case of haemophilia A which is the genetic deficiency of clotting factor VIII in blood.

      Haemophilia is an X-linked recessive disorder of coagulation. Up to 30% of patients have no family history of the condition. Haemophilia A is more common than haemophilia B and accounts for 90% of the cases. In haemophilia B (Christmas disease), there is a deficiency of clotting factor IX.

      Characteristic features of haemophilia include hemarthrosis, haematomas, and prolonged bleeding following trauma or surgery. Coagulation profile of a haemophiliac person shows prolonged bleeding time, activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT), thrombin time (TT), but a normal prothrombin time (PT).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 13 - Which of the following is not a recognised feature of methemoglobinemia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not a recognised feature of methemoglobinemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decreased pO2 but normal oxygen saturation

      Explanation:

      Normal pO2 but decreased oxygen saturation is characteristic of methemoglobinemia.

      Methemoglobinemia is a rare condition in which the haemoglobin iron is in oxidized or ferric state (Fe3+) and cannot reversibly bind oxygen. Normally, the conversion of ferrous form of iron (Fe2+) to its ferric form (Fe3+) is regulated by NADH methaemoglobin reductase, which results in the reduction of methaemoglobin to haemoglobin. Disruption in the enzyme leads to increased methaemoglobin in the blood. There is tissue hypoxia as Fe3+ cannot bind oxygen, and hence the oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve is shifted to the left.

      Methemoglobinemia can occur due to congenital or acquired causes. Congenital causes include haemoglobin variants such as HbM and HbH, and deficiency of NADH methaemoglobin reductase. Acquired causes are drugs (e.g. sulphonamides, nitrates, dapsone, sodium nitroprusside, and primaquine) and chemicals (such as aniline dyes).

      The features of methemoglobinemia are cyanosis, dyspnoea, anxiety, headache, severe acidosis, arrhythmias, seizures, and loss of consciousness. Patients have normal pO2 but oxygen saturation is decreased. Moreover, presence of chocolate-brown coloured arterial blood (colour does not change with addition of O2) and brown urine also point towards the diagnosis of methemoglobinemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 14 - A 55-year-old female, on warfarin for mitral valve replacement and atrial fibrillation (AF),...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old female, on warfarin for mitral valve replacement and atrial fibrillation (AF), is due for extensive abdominal surgery.

      What is the most appropriate step in regards to her anticoagulation therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stop warfarin five days pre-operatively, bridge with LMWH and give vitamin K if INR is still above 3.0 on the evening of operation

      Explanation:

      Patients with a VTE within the previous three months, patients with AF and previous stroke or TIA or multiple other risk factors, and patients with a mitral valve replacement should be considered for bridging therapy.

      The most appropriate bridging therapy in this case would be low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH), with the last dose given not less than 24 hours prior to the procedure. Warfarin should be discontinued 5 days prior to the procedure. If the INR is still above 3 on the day prior to the procedure, vitamin K should be administered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 15 - A 52-year-old woman is diagnosed as having acute myeloid leukaemia. What is the...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old woman is diagnosed as having acute myeloid leukaemia. What is the single most important test in determining her prognosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cytogenetics

      Explanation:

      All of the aforementioned options may be important however cytogenetics, for detecting chromosomal abnormalities, is the single most important test to determine her disease prognosis.

      Acute myeloid leukaemia (AML) is the acute expansion of the myeloid stem line, which may occur as a primary disease or follow the secondary transformation of a myeloproliferative disorder. It is more common over the age of 45 and is characterized by signs and symptoms largely related to bone marrow failure such as anaemia (pallor, lethargy), frequent infections due to neutropenia (although the total leucocyte count may be very high), thrombocytopaenia (bleeding), ostealgia, and splenomegaly.

      The disease has a poor prognosis if:
      1. Age of the patient >60 years
      2. >20% blasts seen after the first course of chemotherapy
      3. Chromosomal aberration with deletion of part of chromosome 5 or 7.

      Acute promyelocytic leukaemia (APL) is an aggressive form of AML.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 16 - A 64-year-old woman with metastatic breast cancer has developed progressive back pain over...

    Incorrect

    • A 64-year-old woman with metastatic breast cancer has developed progressive back pain over the last 2 days. She also reports of weakness of her lower limbs and difficulty in walking. On examination, she has reduced power in both legs and increased tone associated with brisk knee and ankle reflexes. There is some sensory loss in the lower limbs and feet but perianal sensation is normal.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Spinal cord compression at T10

      Explanation:

      The upper motor neurone signs in this patient point towards a diagnosis of spinal cord compression above the level of L1 and rules out cauda equina syndrome.

      Spinal cord compression is an oncological emergency and affects up to 5% of cancer patients. Extradural compression accounts for the majority of cases, usually due to vertebral body metastases. One of the most common causes of spinal cord compression is osteoarthritis. It is also more commonly seen in patients with lung, breast, or prostate cancer.

      Clinical features include:
      1. Back pain: the earliest and most common symptom, may worsen on lying down or coughing
      2. Lower limb weakness
      3. Sensory changes: sensory loss and numbness
      4. Neurological signs: depending on the level of the lesion.
      Lesions above L1 usually result in upper motor neurone signs in the legs. Lesions below L1 usually cause lower motor neurone signs in the legs and perianal numbness. Tendon reflexes are increased below the level of the lesion and absent at the level of the lesion.

      Management options are:
      1. High-dose oral dexamethasone
      2. Urgent MRI for consideration of radiotherapy or surgery

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 17 - A 5-year-old child was found to have orchidomegaly and splenomegaly. Blood tests show...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old child was found to have orchidomegaly and splenomegaly. Blood tests show a WBC = 1.7 X 104/L, Hb = 7.1 g/dl and platelets = 44 X 104g/dl. His parents mention that he suffers from fatigue while at presentation he looks pale and has a fever. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

      Explanation:

      Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is an aggressive type of blood and bone marrow cancer which can appear in childhood. Signs of childhood ALL include: Fever, Easy bruising, Petechiae, Bone or joint pain, Painless lumps in multiple areas of the body, Weakness, fatigue or paleness, and Loss of appetite. Blood tests may show elevated white blood cells, decreased values of red blood cells and low platelet count.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 18 - Regarding haemochromatosis, which of the following is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding haemochromatosis, which of the following is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemochromatosis may be treated with therapeutic phlebotomy

      Explanation:

      Haemochromatosis is an abnormally high rate of the production of haemoglobin. It is an autosomal recessive disease copied on chromosome 6. It is associated with hepatic disorders, cardiac diseases and skin pigmentation. It is treated by regular venesection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 19 - A woman is prescribed docetaxel as part of her chemotherapy for breast cancer....

    Incorrect

    • A woman is prescribed docetaxel as part of her chemotherapy for breast cancer. What is the mechanism of action of docetaxel?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prevents microtubule disassembly

      Explanation:

      The principal mechanism of action of taxanes (e.g. docetaxel) is the prevention of microtubule disassembly.

      Other aforementioned options are ruled out because:

      1. Doxorubicin: stabilizes DNA topoisomerase II complex and inhibits DNA and RNA synthesis.

      2. Vincristine, vinblastine: inhibits formation of microtubules.

      3. Cisplatin: causes cross-linking in DNA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 20 - A 65-year-old male patient presents with a non-explosive cough, muscle twitching on the...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old male patient presents with a non-explosive cough, muscle twitching on the level of the tongue and aspiration pneumonia. He also claims that occasionally the food he swallows comes back through his nose. What is the most likely cause of dysphagia in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bulbar palsy

      Explanation:

      Bulbar palsy and pseudobulbar palsy are rare types of a motor neuron disease that affect the cranial motor nerves. Bulbar palsy is a lower motor neuron palsy that affects the nuclei of the 9th to 12th cranial nerves. Pseudobulbar palsy is an upper motor neuron palsy that affects the corticobulbar tracts of the 5th, 7th and 9th to 12th cranial nerves. Any condition which disrupts or damages the cranial nerve nuclei or corticobulbar tracts can cause bulbar or pseudobulbar palsy (e.g., stroke, multiple sclerosis, infections, brain stem tumours). Both bulbar and pseudobulbar palsy are seen mainly in men over 75 years old and present with progressive dysarthria and dysphagia. In addition, patients with pseudobulbar palsy present with a lack of facial expression, difficulty chewing, and emotional lability. Lower motor neuron signs (atrophy and fasciculations of the tongue, absent gag reflex) differentiate bulbar palsy from pseudobulbar palsy, which presents with upper motor neuron signs (spastic tongue, exaggerated gag, and jaw jerk reflexes). Diagnosis is mainly clinical and treatment mostly supportive with a poor prognosis. Life expectancy is around 1-3 years following diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 21 - A 60-year-old man complains of weight loss, fatigue, fever and abdominal discomfort. Abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man complains of weight loss, fatigue, fever and abdominal discomfort. Abdominal ultrasound reveals massive splenomegaly and the lab results return the following: WBC=127, Hgb=8.7, Plt=138. Basophils were also found on the peripheral blood film. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CML

      Explanation:

      CML is a myeloproliferative disorder involving neoplastic proliferation of mature myeloid cells, especially granulocytes and their precursors. The non-acute symptoms of marked splenomegaly and anaemia accompanied by of fever and abdominal discomfort rules out the other conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 22 - A 55-year-old woman was found to have splenomegaly with her spleen palpable up...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman was found to have splenomegaly with her spleen palpable up to the umbilicus. Blood tests revealed the following results: Hb=8.7g/dl, Platelets=72 and WBC=100. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chronic myeloid leukaemia

      Explanation:

      Patients with chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML) can initially be asymptomatic but as the disease progresses, they appear to have elevated WBCs with anaemia and a lower than normal platelet count. The blood test results in addition to the profound splenomegaly, which is the most common finding in patients with CML, make CML the most possible diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 23 - A 28-year-old woman presents with easy bruising. She has no history of mucosal...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents with easy bruising. She has no history of mucosal bleeding and is generally well apart from occasional diarrhoea. She has previously attended a psychiatric unit for self-harming behaviour and is now brought in by her mother having consumed a number of pills. Her mother has had recurrent venous thromboses, but there is no family history of a bleeding disorder.

      Her full blood count (FBC) is normal, but her coagulation profile shows:
      Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT): 60 secs (28-38 secs)
      Prothrombin time (PT): no clot after 120 secs (10-14 secs)
      Fibrinogen: 3.6 g/L (2-4 g/L)

      What is the most likely explanation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Warfarin overdose

      Explanation:

      Warfarin inhibits the vitamin K-dependent procoagulants II, VII, IX, and X as well as anticoagulant protein C and S. It is highly protein-bound and can be displaced by a wide variety of drugs. It has a half-life of 36-48 hours.

      Bleeding is the major side effect. Easy bruising, as seen in this case, is commonly seen in patients of warfarin overdose. Grossly prolonged PT and lesser increase in APTT may be seen in such cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 24 - A 32-year-old female who is 37 weeks pregnant presents with a swollen, painful...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old female who is 37 weeks pregnant presents with a swollen, painful right calf. A deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is confirmed on Doppler scan.

      What should be the preferred anticoagulant?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Subcutaneous low molecular weight heparin (LMWH)

      Explanation:

      Subcutaneous (S/C) low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH) is a preferred anticoagulant in pregnancy. Warfarin is contraindicated due to its teratogenic effects, especially in the first trimester and at term.

      Pregnancy is a hypercoagulable state with the majority of VTE incidents occurring in the last trimester.

      Hypercoagulability in pregnancy is caused by:
      1. Increase in factors VII, VIII, X, and fibrinogen
      2. Decrease in protein S
      3. Uterus pressing on IVC causing venous stasis in legs

      Management options include:
      1. S/C LMWH preferred to IV heparin (less bleeding and thrombocytopaenia)
      2. Warfarin contraindicated

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 25 - In chemotherapy, what is the rationale behind using combinations of chemotherapeutic agents rather...

    Incorrect

    • In chemotherapy, what is the rationale behind using combinations of chemotherapeutic agents rather than single agents?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Combination therapy decreases the chances of drug resistance developing

      Explanation:

      There are two main reasons for using combinations of chemotherapeutic agents rather than single agents. First, different drugs exert their effects through different mechanisms, therefore, carefully combining them will increase the number of tumour cells killed in each cycle as well as decrease their chances of developing drug resistance. Second, there may be an even greater effect with drugs that are synergistic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 26 - A 65-year-old man having small cell lung cancer is admitted onto the ward...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man having small cell lung cancer is admitted onto the ward for chemotherapy. He has a history of severe nausea and vomiting secondary to chemotherapy, in the past.

      The consultant asks you to prescribe a neurokinin 1 (NK1) receptor blocker. Which agent, out of the following, will you choose?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aprepitant

      Explanation:

      Aprepitant is an anti-emetic which blocks the neurokinin 1 (NK1) receptor and acts as a substance P antagonist. It is licensed for chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting (CINV) and for prevention of postoperative nausea and vomiting.

      Nausea and vomiting are the common side effects of chemotherapy. Risk factors for the development of these symptoms include age<50 years, anxiety, concurrent use of opioids, and the type of chemotherapy administered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 27 - A 53-year-old woman presents with a painless lump in the left breast associated...

    Incorrect

    • A 53-year-old woman presents with a painless lump in the left breast associated with nipple discharge. The skin over the lump has an orange peel skin appearance. According to the patient, the lump has increased in size, with time.

      Diagnosis of breast cancer is strongly suspected. Which of the following would be most useful in monitoring the prognosis of breast cancer, in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lymph node metastases

      Explanation:

      The prognosis of breast cancer depends chiefly on the extent of nodal metastases.

      The breast cancer TNM staging system is the most common way that doctors use to stage breast cancer. TNM stands for Tumour, Node, Metastasis. The results are combined to determine the stage of cancer for each person. There are five stages: stage 0 (zero), which is non-invasive ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS), and stages I through IV (1 through 4), which are used for invasive breast cancer.

      Staging can be clinical or pathological. Clinical staging is based on the results of tests done before surgery, which may include physical examinations, mammogram, ultrasound, and MRI scans. Pathologic staging is based on what is found during surgery to remove breast tissue and lymph nodes. In general, pathological staging provides the most information to determine a patient’s prognosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 28 - A 65-year-old man is referred to the oncology clinic with progressively worsening lower...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man is referred to the oncology clinic with progressively worsening lower back pain for the last three months and history of weight loss for the past eight months. MRI lumbar spine confirms the suspicion of bone metastasis.

      What is the most likely primary tumour?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prostate carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Prostate cancer is the most common primary tumour that metastasises to the bone.

      Most common tumours causing bone metastasis (in descending order):
      1. Prostate (32%)
      2. Breast (22%)
      3. Kidneys (16%)
      4. Lungs
      5. Thyroid

      Most common sites of bone metastasis (in descending order):
      1. Spine
      2. Pelvis
      3. Ribs
      4. Skull
      5. Long bones

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 29 - A 60-year-old man presents with asymptomatic enlargement of his cervical lymph nodes. Full...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man presents with asymptomatic enlargement of his cervical lymph nodes. Full blood count shows low-grade anaemia, leukocytosis, and thrombocytopenia. Lymph node biopsy is suggestive of a low-grade non-Hodgkin lymphoma.

      Which two of the following statements fit best with this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Extra-nodal presentation is more common than in Hodgkin's disease

      Explanation:

      Extra-nodal presentation is more common in non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL) than in Hodgkin lymphoma (HL). Bone marrow infiltration is more common in low-grade than in high-grade NHLs.

      Low-grade NHL is predominantly a disease of older people. Most present with advanced disease, bone marrow infiltration being almost invariable. Anaemia, leucocytosis, and/or thrombocytopaenia in a patient are suggestive of bone marrow involvement. For definitive diagnosis, lymph node biopsy is sufficient.

      The other aforementioned statements are ruled out because:
      1. Renal impairment in NHL usually occurs as a consequence of ureteric obstruction secondary to intra-abdominal or pelvic lymph node enlargement.

      2. Burkitt lymphoma is a high-grade NHL, which was first described in children in West Africa who presented with a jaw tumour, extra-nodal abdominal involvement, and ovarian tumours. It develops most often in children or young adults and is uncommon in older people.

      3. High-grade lymphomas are potentially curable. They have a better prognosis and are responsive to chemotherapy unlike low-grade lymphomas, which are incurable with conventional therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 30 - Which of the following is mostly associated with thymomas? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is mostly associated with thymomas?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Red cell aplasia

      Explanation:

      Red cell aplasia is commonly associated with thymomas.

      Thymoma is the most common tumour of the anterior mediastinum and is usually detected between the sixth and seventh decades of life. It is associated with myasthenia gravis (30-40% of patients), red cell aplasia, and dermatomyositis. Compression of airway and cardiac tamponade are the common causes of death in thymoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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