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Question 1
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You review an elderly patient with a history of heart disease that has presented with shortness of breath, chest pain, and dizziness. Upon reviewing his cardiac tests today, you note that his ejection fraction has recently fallen significantly.
Elderly patients should undergo cardiac intervention when their ejection fraction (EF) reaches what level?Your Answer: 15 ml/minute
Explanation:Patients typically initiate dialysis when their glomerular filtration rate (GFR) drops to 10 ml/min. However, if the patient has diabetes, dialysis may be recommended when their GFR reaches 15 ml/min. The GFR is a measure of kidney function and indicates how well the kidneys are able to filter waste products from the blood. Dialysis is a medical procedure that helps perform the function of the kidneys by removing waste and excess fluid from the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 2
Correct
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You assess a client with a history of schizophrenia who is currently experiencing acute psychosis. He reports a sensation in which he believes that individuals in close proximity to him are inserting their thoughts into his mind.
Which ONE of the following thought disorders is he exhibiting?Your Answer: Thought insertion
Explanation:Thought insertion is one of the primary symptoms identified by Schneider in schizophrenia. This symptom refers to the patient’s belief that their thoughts are being controlled or influenced by external sources, such as other individuals or entities. In some cases, they may even experience auditory hallucinations, hearing distinct voices.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 3
Correct
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A 15 year old female patient is brought to the emergency department after being kicked by a horse multiple times. The patient had recently started work cleaning stables and was kicked several times whilst behind one of the horses. The patients observations are shown below:
Parameter Result
Blood pressure 108/62 mmHg
Pulse rate 124 bpm
Respiration rate 30 rpm
SpO2 95% on air
On examination there is significant bruising to the right anterolateral aspect of the chest wall, the patient is clammy, there is reduced air entry with dull percussion to the right lung base and the trachea is central. What is the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Massive haemothorax
Explanation:Massive haemothorax is characterized by the presence of more than 1.5 litres of blood in the pleural space. The patient’s history and examination findings are indicative of haemothorax. When blood loss exceeds 1500ml, it is classified as grade 3 hypovolemic shock, which is considered severe. Symptoms such as a pulse rate over 120, respiration rate over 30, and low blood pressure align with grade 3 shock and are consistent with massive haemothorax. In the case of pneumothorax, percussion reveals a resonant or hyper-resonant sound. Chylothorax, on the other hand, is a rare condition that typically occurs due to injury to the thoracic duct.
Further Reading:
Haemothorax is the accumulation of blood in the pleural cavity of the chest, usually resulting from chest trauma. It can be difficult to differentiate from other causes of pleural effusion on a chest X-ray. Massive haemothorax refers to a large volume of blood in the pleural space, which can impair physiological function by causing blood loss, reducing lung volume for gas exchange, and compressing thoracic structures such as the heart and IVC.
The management of haemothorax involves replacing lost blood volume and decompressing the chest. This is done through supplemental oxygen, IV access and cross-matching blood, IV fluid therapy, and the insertion of a chest tube. The chest tube is connected to an underwater seal and helps drain the fluid, pus, air, or blood from the pleural space. In cases where there is prompt drainage of a large amount of blood, ongoing significant blood loss, or the need for blood transfusion, thoracotomy and ligation of bleeding thoracic vessels may be necessary. It is important to have two IV accesses prior to inserting the chest drain to prevent a drop in blood pressure.
In summary, haemothorax is the accumulation of blood in the pleural cavity due to chest trauma. Managing haemothorax involves replacing lost blood volume and decompressing the chest through various interventions, including the insertion of a chest tube. Prompt intervention may be required in cases of significant blood loss or ongoing need for blood transfusion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 4
Correct
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A 45 year old patient presents to the emergency department with a head laceration sustained following a fall while under the influence of alcohol. You determine to evaluate the patient's alcohol consumption. Which screening tool does NICE (National Institute for Health and Care Excellence) recommend for assessing risky drinking?
Your Answer: AUDIT
Explanation:The AUDIT screening tool is recommended by NICE for identifying patients who may be at risk of hazardous drinking.
Alcoholic liver disease (ALD) is a spectrum of disease that ranges from fatty liver at one end to alcoholic cirrhosis at the other. Fatty liver is generally benign and reversible with alcohol abstinence, while alcoholic cirrhosis is a more advanced and irreversible form of the disease. Alcoholic hepatitis, which involves inflammation of the liver, can lead to the development of fibrotic tissue and cirrhosis.
Several factors can increase the risk of progression of ALD, including female sex, genetics, advanced age, induction of liver enzymes by drugs, and co-existent viral hepatitis, especially hepatitis C.
The development of ALD is multifactorial and involves the metabolism of alcohol in the liver. Alcohol is metabolized to acetaldehyde and then acetate, which can result in the production of damaging reactive oxygen species. Genetic polymorphisms and co-existing hepatitis C infection can enhance the pathological effects of alcohol metabolism.
Patients with ALD may be asymptomatic or present with non-specific symptoms such as abdominal discomfort, vomiting, or anxiety. Those with alcoholic hepatitis may have fever, anorexia, and deranged liver function tests. Advanced liver disease can manifest with signs of portal hypertension and cirrhosis, such as ascites, varices, jaundice, and encephalopathy.
Screening tools such as the AUDIT questionnaire can be used to assess alcohol consumption and identify hazardous or harmful drinking patterns. Liver function tests, FBC, and imaging studies such as ultrasound or liver biopsy may be performed to evaluate liver damage.
Management of ALD involves providing advice on reducing alcohol intake, administering thiamine to prevent Wernicke’s encephalopathy, and addressing withdrawal symptoms with benzodiazepines. Complications of ALD, such as intoxication, encephalopathy, variceal bleeding, ascites, hypoglycemia, and coagulopathy, require specialized interventions.
Heavy alcohol use can also lead to thiamine deficiency and the development of Wernicke Korsakoff’s syndrome, characterized by confusion, ataxia, hypothermia, hypotension, nystagmus, and vomiting. Prompt treatment is necessary to prevent progression to Korsakoff’s psychosis.
In summary, alcoholic liver disease is a spectrum of disease that can range from benign fatty liver to irreversible cirrhosis. Risk factors for progression include female sex, genetics, advanced age, drug-induced liver enzyme induction, and co-existing liver conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 60-year-old woman is brought into the Emergency Department by the Police. She is handcuffed and has bitten one of the Police Officers accompanying her. She is very aggressive and violent and has a history of bipolar disorder. She has a history of hypertension and had a non-ST elevation myocardial infarction two years ago.
According to the NICE guidelines for short-term management of violent and aggressive patients, what should be used as the first-line treatment for rapid tranquillisation of this patient?Your Answer: Lorazepam
Explanation:Rapid tranquillisation involves the administration of medication through injection when oral medication is not feasible or appropriate and immediate sedation is necessary. The current guidelines from NICE recommend two options for rapid tranquillisation in adults: intramuscular lorazepam alone or a combination of intramuscular haloperidol and intramuscular promethazine. The choice of medication depends on various factors such as advanced statements, potential intoxication, previous responses to these medications, interactions with other drugs, and existing physical health conditions or pregnancy.
If there is insufficient information to determine the appropriate medication or if the individual has not taken antipsychotic medication before, intramuscular lorazepam is recommended. However, if there is evidence of cardiovascular disease or a prolonged QT interval, or if an electrocardiogram has not been conducted, the combination of intramuscular haloperidol and intramuscular promethazine should be avoided, and intramuscular lorazepam should be used instead.
If there is a partial response to intramuscular lorazepam, a second dose should be considered. If there is no response to intramuscular lorazepam, then intramuscular haloperidol combined with intramuscular promethazine should be considered. If there is a partial response to this combination, a further dose should be considered.
If there is no response to intramuscular haloperidol combined with intramuscular promethazine and intramuscular lorazepam has not been used yet, it should be considered. However, if intramuscular lorazepam has already been administered, it is recommended to arrange an urgent team meeting to review the situation and seek a second opinion if necessary.
After rapid tranquillisation, the patient should be closely monitored for any side effects, and their vital signs should be regularly checked, including heart rate, blood pressure, respiratory rate, temperature, hydration level, and level of consciousness. These observations should be conducted at least hourly until there are no further concerns about the patient’s physical health.
For more information, refer to the NICE guidance on violence and aggression: short-term management in mental health, health, and community settings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man presents having ingested an overdose of an unknown substance. He is drowsy and slurring his speech. His vital signs are as follows: heart rate 116 beats per minute, blood pressure 91/57 mmHg, oxygen saturation 96% on room air. Glasgow Coma Scale score is 11 out of 15. The results of his arterial blood gas (ABG) on room air are as follows:
pH: 7.24
pO2: 9.4 kPa
PCO2: 3.3 kPa
HCO3-: 22 mmol/l
Na+: 143 mmol/l
Cl–: 99 mmol/l
Lactate: 5 IU/l
Which SINGLE statement regarding this patient is true?Your Answer: She is likely to have a type B lactic acidosis
Correct Answer: Her anion gap is elevated
Explanation:Arterial blood gas (ABG) interpretation is essential for evaluating a patient’s respiratory gas exchange and acid-base balance. The normal values on an ABG may slightly vary between analyzers, but generally, they fall within the following ranges:
pH: 7.35 – 7.45
pO2: 10 – 14 kPa
PCO2: 4.5 – 6 kPa
HCO3-: 22 – 26 mmol/l
Base excess: -2 – 2 mmol/lIn this particular case, the patient’s history indicates an overdose. However, there is no immediate need for intubation as her Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is 11/15, and she can speak, albeit with slurred speech, indicating that she can maintain her own airway.
The relevant ABG findings are as follows:
– Mild hypoxia
– Decreased pH (acidaemia)
– Low PCO2
– Normal bicarbonate
– Elevated lactateThe anion gap is a measure of the concentration of unmeasured anions in the plasma. It is calculated by subtracting the primary measured cations from the primary measured anions in the serum. The reference range for anion gap varies depending on the methodology used, but it is typically between 8 to 16 mmol/L.
In this case, the patient’s anion gap can be calculated using the formula:
Anion gap = [Na+] – [Cl-] – [HCO3-]
Using the given values:
Anion gap = [143] – [99] – [22]
Anion gap = 22Therefore, it is evident that she has a raised anion gap metabolic acidosis. It is likely a type A lactic acidosis resulting from tissue hypoxia and hypoperfusion. Some potential causes of type A and type B lactic acidosis include:
Type A lactic acidosis:
– Shock (including septic shock)
– Left ventricular failure
– Severe anemia
– Asphyxia
– Cardiac arrest
– Carbon monoxide poisoning
– Respiratory failure
– Severe asthma and COPD
– Regional hypoperfusionType B lactic acidosis:
– Renal failure
– Liver failure
– Sepsis (non-hypoxic sepsis)
– Thiamine deficiency
– Al -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 7
Correct
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A 45-year-old man receives a blood transfusion for anemia secondary to gastrointestinal bleeding. During the transfusion, he complains of experiencing alternating sensations of heat and cold during the second unit, and his temperature is measured at 38.1ºC. His temperature before the transfusion was measured at 37ºC. He feels fine otherwise and does not have any other symptoms.
Which of the following transfusion reactions is most likely to have taken place?Your Answer: Febrile transfusion reaction
Explanation:Blood transfusion is a crucial medical treatment that can save lives, but it also comes with various risks and potential problems. These include immunological complications, administration errors, infections, and immune dilution. While there have been improvements in safety procedures and a reduction in transfusion use, errors and adverse reactions still occur. One common adverse reaction is febrile transfusion reactions, which present as an unexpected rise in temperature during or after transfusion. This can be caused by cytokine accumulation or recipient antibodies reacting to donor antigens. Treatment for febrile transfusion reactions is supportive, and other potential causes should be ruled out.
Another serious complication is acute haemolytic reaction, which is often caused by ABO incompatibility due to administration errors. This reaction requires the transfusion to be stopped and IV fluids to be administered. Delayed haemolytic reactions can occur several days after a transfusion and may require monitoring and treatment for anaemia and renal function. Allergic reactions, TRALI (Transfusion Related Acute Lung Injury), TACO (Transfusion Associated Circulatory Overload), and GVHD (Graft-vs-Host Disease) are other potential complications that require specific management approaches.
In summary, blood transfusion carries risks and potential complications, but efforts have been made to improve safety procedures. It is important to be aware of these complications and to promptly address any adverse reactions that may occur during or after a transfusion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman who is being treated for a urinary tract infection comes back after 48 hours because her symptoms have not improved. Regrettably, the lab has not yet provided the sensitivities from the urine sample that was sent. Her blood tests today indicate that her eGFR is >60 ml/minute. She has been taking trimethoprim 200 PO BD for the past two days.
What is the most suitable antibiotic to prescribe in this situation?Your Answer: Nitrofurantoin
Explanation:For the treatment of women with lower urinary tract infections (UTIs) who are not pregnant, it is recommended to consider either a back-up antibiotic prescription or an immediate antibiotic prescription. This decision should take into account the severity of symptoms and the risk of developing complications, which is higher in individuals with known or suspected abnormalities of the genitourinary tract or weakened immune systems. The evidence for back-up antibiotic prescriptions is limited to non-pregnant women with lower UTIs where immediate antibiotic treatment is not deemed necessary. It is also important to consider previous urine culture and susceptibility results, as well as any history of antibiotic use that may have led to the development of resistant bacteria. Ultimately, the preferences of the woman regarding antibiotic use should be taken into account.
If a urine sample has been sent for culture and susceptibility testing and an antibiotic prescription has been given, it is crucial to review the choice of antibiotic once the microbiological results are available. If the bacteria are found to be resistant and symptoms are not improving, it is recommended to switch to a narrow-spectrum antibiotic whenever possible.
The following antibiotics are recommended for non-pregnant women aged 16 years and older:
First-choice:
– Nitrofurantoin 100 mg modified-release taken orally twice daily for 3 days (if eGFR >45 ml/minute)
– Trimethoprim 200 mg taken orally twice daily for 3 days (if low risk of resistance*)Second-choice (if there is no improvement in lower UTI symptoms on first-choice treatment for at least 48 hours, or if first-choice treatment is not suitable):
– Nitrofurantoin 100 mg modified-release taken orally twice daily for 3 days (if eGFR >45 ml/minute)
– Pivmecillinam 400 mg initial dose taken orally, followed by 200 mg taken orally three times daily for 3 days
– Fosfomycin 3 g single sachet dose*The risk of resistance may be lower if the antibiotic has not been used in the past 3 months, previous urine culture suggests susceptibility (although this was not used), and in younger individuals in areas where local epidemiology data indicate low resistance rates. Conversely, the risk of resistance may be higher with recent antibiotic use and in older individuals in residential facilities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 9
Correct
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You are part of the resus team treating a 42-year-old female patient with a severe head injury after falling from a ladder. As the patient's GCS continues to decline, your consultant instructs you to prepare for rapid sequence induction. You gather the necessary supplies and prepare etomidate as the induction agent. Upon reviewing the patient's details, you observe that she weighs 65kg. What would be the appropriate dose of etomidate for this patient during RSI?
Your Answer: 21mg
Explanation:The recommended dose of etomidate for rapid sequence intubation (RSI) is typically 0.3mg per kilogram of body weight. For example, a patient weighing 70 kilograms would receive a dose of 21mg (70 x 0.3 = 21mg). This dosage falls within the accepted range of 0.15-0.3 mg/kg as suggested by the British National Formulary (BNF). Therefore, the only option within this range is the fourth option.
Further Reading:
There are four commonly used induction agents in the UK: propofol, ketamine, thiopentone, and etomidate.
Propofol is a 1% solution that produces significant venodilation and myocardial depression. It can also reduce cerebral perfusion pressure. The typical dose for propofol is 1.5-2.5 mg/kg. However, it can cause side effects such as hypotension, respiratory depression, and pain at the site of injection.
Ketamine is another induction agent that produces a dissociative state. It does not display a dose-response continuum, meaning that the effects do not necessarily increase with higher doses. Ketamine can cause bronchodilation, which is useful in patients with asthma. The initial dose for ketamine is 0.5-2 mg/kg, with a typical IV dose of 1.5 mg/kg. Side effects of ketamine include tachycardia, hypertension, laryngospasm, unpleasant hallucinations, nausea and vomiting, hypersalivation, increased intracranial and intraocular pressure, nystagmus and diplopia, abnormal movements, and skin reactions.
Thiopentone is an ultra-short acting barbiturate that acts on the GABA receptor complex. It decreases cerebral metabolic oxygen and reduces cerebral blood flow and intracranial pressure. The adult dose for thiopentone is 3-5 mg/kg, while the child dose is 5-8 mg/kg. However, these doses should be halved in patients with hypovolemia. Side effects of thiopentone include venodilation, myocardial depression, and hypotension. It is contraindicated in patients with acute porphyrias and myotonic dystrophy.
Etomidate is the most haemodynamically stable induction agent and is useful in patients with hypovolemia, anaphylaxis, and asthma. It has similar cerebral effects to thiopentone. The dose for etomidate is 0.15-0.3 mg/kg. Side effects of etomidate include injection site pain, movement disorders, adrenal insufficiency, and apnoea. It is contraindicated in patients with sepsis due to adrenal suppression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Anaesthetics
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man is brought in by ambulance following a car crash. A FAST scan is conducted to assess for the presence of a haemoperitoneum.
Where is free fluid most likely to be observed if a haemoperitoneum is present?Your Answer: Para-colic
Correct Answer: Liver
Explanation:A Focussed Assessment with Sonography for Trauma (FAST) scan is a point-of-care ultrasound examination conducted when a trauma patient arrives. Its primary purpose is to identify the presence of intra-abdominal free fluid, which is typically assumed to be haemoperitoneum in the context of trauma. This information is crucial for making decisions regarding further management of the patient.
The sensitivity of FAST scanning for detecting intraperitoneal fluid is approximately 90%, while its specificity is around 95%. However, its sensitivity for detecting solid organ injuries is much lower. As a result, FAST scanning has largely replaced diagnostic peritoneal lavage as the preferred initial method for assessing haemoperitoneum.
During a standard FAST scan, four regions are examined. The subxiphoid transverse view is used to assess for pericardial effusion and left lobe liver injuries. The longitudinal view of the right upper quadrant helps identify right liver injuries, right kidney injury, and fluid in the hepatorenal recess (Morison’s pouch). The longitudinal view of the left upper quadrant is used to assess for splenic injury and left kidney injury. Lastly, the transverse and longitudinal views of the suprapubic region are used to examine the bladder and fluid in the pouch of Douglas.
In addition to the standard FAST scan, an extended FAST or eFAST may be performed to assess the left and right thoracic regions. This helps determine the presence of pneumothorax and haemothorax.
The hepatorenal recess is the deepest part of the peritoneal cavity when the patient is lying flat. Consequently, it is the most likely area for fluid to accumulate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A patient with a known history of asthma presents with symptoms of theophylline toxicity after starting a new medication.
Which of the following drugs is most likely causing this interaction?Your Answer: St. John’s wort
Correct Answer: Fluconazole
Explanation:Theophylline, a medication commonly used to treat respiratory conditions, can be affected by certain drugs, either increasing or decreasing its plasma concentration and half-life. Drugs that can increase the plasma concentration of theophylline include calcium channel blockers like verapamil, cimetidine, fluconazole, macrolides such as erythromycin, methotrexate, and quinolones like ciprofloxacin. On the other hand, drugs like carbamazepine, phenobarbitol, phenytoin (and fosphenytoin), rifampicin, and St. John’s wort can decrease the plasma concentration of theophylline. It is important to be aware of these interactions when prescribing or taking theophylline to ensure its effectiveness and avoid potential side effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 12
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman presents with right eye pain and sensitivity to light. She reports that the eye pain worsens when she reads or uses her computer. Her eye is excessively watery. During the examination, her right pupil is constricted, and there is noticeable redness around the iris. Her visual acuity is measured and found to be 6/6. She has a history of ankylosing spondylitis and takes a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory medication.
What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Anterior uveitis
Explanation:Anterior uveitis refers to the inflammation of the middle layer of the eye, which includes the iris and the ciliary body. If left untreated, it can lead to permanent damage and vision loss due to the development of conditions like glaucoma, cataract, or retinal edema.
There are various causes of anterior uveitis, including eye trauma from being hit or having a foreign object in the eye. It can also be associated with inflammatory disorders such as ankylosing spondylitis.
The clinical features of anterior uveitis are characterized by a red and sore eye, accompanied by pain that worsens when the ciliary muscles contract. Other symptoms include watering of the eye, blurred vision, sensitivity to light (photophobia), and a constricted or distorted pupil. The visual acuity may be normal or reduced.
Overall, anterior uveitis is a condition that requires prompt attention and treatment to prevent further complications and preserve vision.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 22 year old female presents to the emergency department with symptoms of headache, nausea, and vomiting. The patient has a history of being insulin dependent due to diabetes. Initial tests indicate that the patient is likely experiencing diabetic ketoacidosis. As part of the patient's treatment plan, you order an insulin infusion. What is an expected outcome of administering insulin in this situation?
Your Answer: Decrease intracellular glucose
Correct Answer: Increase blood pH
Explanation:Insulin is known to have several effects on the body. One of its important functions is to increase blood pH. In patients with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), their blood pH is low due to acidosis. Insulin helps to correct this by reducing the levels of free fatty acids in the blood, which are responsible for the production of ketone bodies that contribute to acidosis. By doing so, insulin can increase the blood pH.
Additionally, insulin plays a role in regulating glucose levels. It facilitates the movement of glucose from the blood into cells, leading to a decrease in blood glucose levels and an increase in intracellular glucose.
Furthermore, insulin affects the balance of sodium and potassium in the body. It decreases the excretion of sodium by the kidneys and drives potassium from the blood into cells, resulting in a reduction in blood potassium levels. However, it is important to monitor potassium levels closely during insulin infusions, as if they become too low (hypokalemia), the infusion may need to be stopped.
Further Reading:
Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of diabetes that occurs due to a lack of insulin in the body. It is most commonly seen in individuals with type 1 diabetes but can also occur in type 2 diabetes. DKA is characterized by hyperglycemia, acidosis, and ketonaemia.
The pathophysiology of DKA involves insulin deficiency, which leads to increased glucose production and decreased glucose uptake by cells. This results in hyperglycemia and osmotic diuresis, leading to dehydration. Insulin deficiency also leads to increased lipolysis and the production of ketone bodies, which are acidic. The body attempts to buffer the pH change through metabolic and respiratory compensation, resulting in metabolic acidosis.
DKA can be precipitated by factors such as infection, physiological stress, non-compliance with insulin therapy, acute medical conditions, and certain medications. The clinical features of DKA include polydipsia, polyuria, signs of dehydration, ketotic breath smell, tachypnea, confusion, headache, nausea, vomiting, lethargy, and abdominal pain.
The diagnosis of DKA is based on the presence of ketonaemia or ketonuria, blood glucose levels above 11 mmol/L or known diabetes mellitus, and a blood pH below 7.3 or bicarbonate levels below 15 mmol/L. Initial investigations include blood gas analysis, urine dipstick for glucose and ketones, blood glucose measurement, and electrolyte levels.
Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, electrolyte correction, insulin therapy, and treatment of any underlying cause. Fluid replacement is typically done with isotonic saline, and potassium may need to be added depending on the patient’s levels. Insulin therapy is initiated with an intravenous infusion, and the rate is adjusted based on blood glucose levels. Monitoring of blood glucose, ketones, bicarbonate, and electrolytes is essential, and the insulin infusion is discontinued once ketones are below 0.3 mmol/L, pH is above 7.3, and bicarbonate is above 18 mmol/L.
Complications of DKA and its treatment include gastric stasis, thromboembolism, electrolyte disturbances, cerebral edema, hypoglycemia, acute respiratory distress syndrome, and acute kidney injury. Prompt medical intervention is crucial in managing DKA to prevent potentially fatal outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 14
Correct
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A healthy and active 45-year-old woman comes in with paralysis of the facial muscles on the right side. She is unable to frown or raise her eyebrow on the right side. When instructed to close her eyes and bare her teeth, the right eyeball rolls up and outwards. These symptoms began 24 hours ago. She has no significant medical history, and the rest of her examination appears normal.
What is the most probable diagnosis in this case?Your Answer: Bell’s palsy
Explanation:The patient has presented with a facial palsy that affects only the left side and involves the lower motor neurons. This can be distinguished from an upper motor neuron lesion because the patient is unable to raise their eyebrow and the upper facial muscles are also affected. Additionally, the patient demonstrates a phenomenon known as Bell’s phenomenon, where the eye on the affected side rolls upwards and outwards when attempting to close the eye and bare the teeth.
Approximately 80% of sudden onset lower motor neuron facial palsies are attributed to Bell’s palsy. It is believed that this condition is caused by swelling of the facial nerve within the petrous temporal bone, which is secondary to a latent herpesvirus, specifically HSV-1 and HZV.
There are other potential causes for an isolated lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy, including Ramsay-Hunt syndrome (caused by the herpes zoster virus), trauma, parotid gland tumor, cerebellopontine angle tumor (such as an acoustic neuroma), middle ear infection, cholesteatoma, and sarcoidosis.
However, Ramsay-Hunt syndrome is unlikely in this case since there is no presence of pain or pustular lesions in and around the ear. An acoustic neuroma is also less likely, especially without any symptoms of sensorineural deafness or tinnitus. Furthermore, there are no clinical features consistent with an inner ear infection.
The recommended treatment for this patient is the administration of steroids, and appropriate follow-up should be organized.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 15
Correct
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A 32-year-old man with a known history of asthma presents with a headache, vomiting, and dizziness. His heart rate is elevated at 116 bpm. He currently takes a salbutamol inhaler and theophylline for his asthma. He had visited the Emergency Department a few days earlier and was prescribed an antibiotic.
Which antibiotic was most likely prescribed to this patient?Your Answer: Erythromycin
Explanation:Theophylline is a medication used to treat severe asthma. It is a bronchodilator that comes in modified-release forms, which can maintain therapeutic levels in the blood for 12 hours. Theophylline works by inhibiting phosphodiesterase and blocking the breakdown of cyclic AMP. It also competes with adenosine on A1 and A2 receptors.
Achieving the right dose of theophylline can be challenging because there is a narrow range between therapeutic and toxic levels. The half-life of theophylline can be influenced by various factors, further complicating dosage adjustments. It is recommended to aim for serum levels of 10-20 mg/l six to eight hours after the last dose.
Unlike many other medications, the specific brand of theophylline can significantly impact its effects. Therefore, it is important to prescribe theophylline by both its brand name and generic name.
Several factors can increase the half-life of theophylline, including heart failure, cirrhosis, viral infections, and certain drugs. Conversely, smoking, heavy drinking, and certain medications can decrease the half-life of theophylline.
There are several drugs that can either increase or decrease the plasma concentration of theophylline. Calcium channel blockers, cimetidine, fluconazole, macrolides, methotrexate, and quinolones can increase the concentration. On the other hand, carbamazepine, phenobarbitol, phenytoin, rifampicin, and St. John’s wort can decrease the concentration.
The clinical symptoms of theophylline toxicity are more closely associated with acute overdose rather than chronic overexposure. Common symptoms include headache, dizziness, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, rapid heartbeat, dysrhythmias, seizures, mild metabolic acidosis, low potassium, low magnesium, low phosphates, abnormal calcium levels, and high blood sugar.
Seizures are more prevalent in acute overdose cases, while chronic overdose typically presents with minimal gastrointestinal symptoms. Cardiac dysrhythmias are more common in chronic overdose situations compared to acute overdose.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 16
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman is brought into resus following a car accident. She is experiencing difficulty breathing, and you are unable to hear breath sounds on the left-hand side. Her trachea is deviated to the right, and her neck veins are distended. You make a clinical diagnosis of a tension pneumothorax and decide to perform a needle thoracocentesis.
At which anatomical landmark should this procedure be performed?Your Answer: 5th intercostal space midaxillary line
Explanation:A tension pneumothorax occurs when there is an air leak from the lung or chest wall that acts like a one-way valve. This causes air to build up in the pleural space without any way to escape. As a result, pressure in the pleural space increases and pushes the mediastinum into the opposite hemithorax. If left untreated, this can lead to cardiovascular instability, shock, and cardiac arrest.
The clinical features of tension pneumothorax include respiratory distress and cardiovascular instability. Tracheal deviation away from the side of the injury, unilateral absence of breath sounds on the affected side, and a hyper-resonant percussion note are also characteristic. Other signs include distended neck veins and cyanosis, which is a late sign. It’s important to note that both tension pneumothorax and massive haemothorax can cause decreased breath sounds on auscultation. However, percussion can help differentiate between the two conditions. Hyper-resonance suggests tension pneumothorax, while dullness suggests a massive haemothorax.
Tension pneumothorax is a clinical diagnosis and should not be delayed for radiological confirmation. Requesting a chest X-ray in this situation can delay treatment and put the patient at risk. Immediate decompression through needle thoracocentesis is the recommended treatment. Traditionally, a large-bore needle or cannula is inserted into the 2nd intercostal space in the midclavicular line of the affected hemithorax. However, studies on cadavers have shown better success in reaching the thoracic cavity when the 4th or 5th intercostal space in the midaxillary line is used in adult patients. ATLS now recommends this location for needle decompression in adults. The site for needle thoracocentesis in children remains the same, using the 2nd intercostal space in the midclavicular line. It’s important to remember that needle thoracocentesis is a temporary measure, and the insertion of a chest drain is the definitive treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Resus
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Question 17
Correct
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You are a member of the team assisting with the intubation of a pediatric patient. The initial intubation attempt is unsuccessful. Your attending physician instructs you to apply pressure on the larynx during the second attempt. With the patient positioned in a semi-recumbent position, which direction should pressure be applied to aid in intubation?
Your Answer: Backwards, upwards and rightwards
Explanation:The BURP maneuver is a technique used to assist with intubation. It involves applying pressure in a specific direction on the larynx. The acronym BURP stands for backwards (B), upwards (U), rightwards (R), and pressure (P). To perform the maneuver correctly, the thyroid cartilage is moved backwards, 2 cm upwards, and 0.5cm – 2 cm to the right in relation to the anatomical position.
Further Reading:
A difficult airway refers to a situation where factors have been identified that make airway management more challenging. These factors can include body habitus, head and neck anatomy, mouth characteristics, jaw abnormalities, and neck mobility. The LEMON criteria can be used to predict difficult intubation by assessing these factors. The criteria include looking externally at these factors, evaluating the 3-3-2 rule which assesses the space in the mouth and neck, assessing the Mallampati score which measures the distance between the tongue base and roof of the mouth, and considering any upper airway obstructions or reduced neck mobility.
Direct laryngoscopy is a method used to visualize the larynx and assess the size of the tracheal opening. The Cormack-Lehane grading system can be used to classify the tracheal opening, with higher grades indicating more difficult access. In cases of a failed airway, where intubation attempts are unsuccessful and oxygenation cannot be maintained, the immediate priority is to oxygenate the patient and prevent hypoxic brain injury. This can be done through various measures such as using a bag-valve-mask ventilation, high flow oxygen, suctioning, and optimizing head positioning.
If oxygenation cannot be maintained, it is important to call for help from senior medical professionals and obtain a difficult airway trolley if not already available. If basic airway management techniques do not improve oxygenation, further intubation attempts may be considered using different equipment or techniques. If oxygen saturations remain below 90%, a surgical airway such as a cricothyroidotomy may be necessary.
Post-intubation hypoxia can occur for various reasons, and the mnemonic DOPES can be used to identify and address potential problems. DOPES stands for displacement of the endotracheal tube, obstruction, pneumothorax, equipment failure, and stacked breaths. If intubation attempts fail, a maximum of three attempts should be made before moving to an alternative plan, such as using a laryngeal mask airway or considering a cricothyroidotomy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Anaesthetics
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old patient presents with acute theophylline toxicity. In addition to theophylline, he uses salbutamol and beclomethasone inhalers.
What is the most likely factor that triggered this episode?Your Answer: Phenytoin
Correct Answer: Heart failure
Explanation:Theophylline is a medication used to treat severe asthma. It is a bronchodilator that comes in modified-release forms, which can maintain therapeutic levels in the blood for 12 hours. Theophylline works by inhibiting phosphodiesterase and blocking the breakdown of cyclic AMP. It also competes with adenosine on A1 and A2 receptors.
Achieving the right dose of theophylline can be challenging because there is a narrow range between therapeutic and toxic levels. The half-life of theophylline can be influenced by various factors, further complicating dosage adjustments. It is recommended to aim for serum levels of 10-20 mg/l six to eight hours after the last dose.
Unlike many other medications, the specific brand of theophylline can significantly impact its effects. Therefore, it is important to prescribe theophylline by both its brand name and generic name.
Several factors can increase the half-life of theophylline, including heart failure, cirrhosis, viral infections, and certain drugs. Conversely, smoking, heavy drinking, and certain medications can decrease the half-life of theophylline.
There are several drugs that can either increase or decrease the plasma concentration of theophylline. Calcium channel blockers, cimetidine, fluconazole, macrolides, methotrexate, and quinolones can increase the concentration. On the other hand, carbamazepine, phenobarbitol, phenytoin, rifampicin, and St. John’s wort can decrease the concentration.
The clinical symptoms of theophylline toxicity are more closely associated with acute overdose rather than chronic overexposure. Common symptoms include headache, dizziness, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, rapid heartbeat, dysrhythmias, seizures, mild metabolic acidosis, low potassium, low magnesium, low phosphates, abnormal calcium levels, and high blood sugar.
Seizures are more prevalent in acute overdose cases, while chronic overdose typically presents with minimal gastrointestinal symptoms. Cardiac dysrhythmias are more common in chronic overdose situations compared to acute overdose.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 62 year old male presents to the emergency department due to worsening abdominal distension over the past few weeks. You note the patient has a history of heavy alcohol use and continues to drink 50-100 units per week. On clinical assessment the patient's abdomen is visibly distended, nontender to palpation with shifting dullness on percussion. The patient's observations are shown below:
Blood pressure 118/78 mmHg
Pulse 86 bpm
Respiration rate 16 bpm
Temperature 36.6ºC
Which of the following medications would be most appropriate to use first line to treat this patient's condition?Your Answer: Lactulose
Correct Answer: Spironolactone
Explanation:Spironolactone, a potassium sparing diuretic, is the preferred initial treatment for ascites. Ascites triggers the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS), causing sodium retention (Hypernatraemia) and potassium excretion (Hypokalaemia). By blocking aldosterone, spironolactone helps to counteract these effects. Other diuretics can worsen potassium deficiency, so close monitoring of electrolyte levels is necessary if they are used instead.
Further Reading:
Cirrhosis is a condition where the liver undergoes structural changes, resulting in dysfunction of its normal functions. It can be classified as either compensated or decompensated. Compensated cirrhosis refers to a stage where the liver can still function effectively with minimal symptoms, while decompensated cirrhosis is when the liver damage is severe and clinical complications are present.
Cirrhosis develops over a period of several years due to repeated insults to the liver. Risk factors for cirrhosis include alcohol misuse, hepatitis B and C infection, obesity, type 2 diabetes, autoimmune liver disease, genetic conditions, certain medications, and other rare conditions.
The prognosis of cirrhosis can be assessed using the Child-Pugh score, which predicts mortality based on parameters such as bilirubin levels, albumin levels, INR, ascites, and encephalopathy. The score ranges from A to C, with higher scores indicating a poorer prognosis.
Complications of cirrhosis include portal hypertension, ascites, hepatic encephalopathy, variceal hemorrhage, increased infection risk, hepatocellular carcinoma, and cardiovascular complications.
Diagnosis of cirrhosis is typically done through liver function tests, blood tests, viral hepatitis screening, and imaging techniques such as transient elastography or acoustic radiation force impulse imaging. Liver biopsy may also be performed in some cases.
Management of cirrhosis involves treating the underlying cause, controlling risk factors, and monitoring for complications. Complications such as ascites, spontaneous bacterial peritonitis, oesophageal varices, and hepatic encephalopathy require specific management strategies.
Overall, cirrhosis is a progressive condition that requires ongoing monitoring and management to prevent further complications and improve outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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You evaluate a 75-year-old woman with chronic heart failure.
Which specific beta-blocker is approved for the treatment of chronic heart failure?Your Answer: Atenolol
Correct Answer: Nebivolol
Explanation:Currently, there are three beta-blockers that have been approved for the treatment of chronic heart failure. These medications include bisoprolol, carvedilol, and nebivolol.
Chronic HF is a common clinical syndrome resulting from coronary artery disease (CAD), HTN, valvular heart disease, and/or primary cardiomyopathy. There is now conclusive evidence that β-blockers, when added to ACE inhibitors, substantially reduce mortality, decrease sudden death, and improve symptoms in patients with HF. Despite the overwhelming evidence and guidelines that mandate the use of β-blockers in all HF patients without contraindications, many patients do not receive this treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 21
Correct
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A 65-year-old man comes in with a sudden onset of right-sided weakness and difficulty speaking. A CT scan has ruled out a primary intracerebral hemorrhage and he is being prepared for thrombolysis. His blood pressure is currently elevated at 190/100 mmHg.
What would be the most suitable next course of action in managing his condition?Your Answer: Labetalol 10 mg IV
Explanation:Severe hypertension, defined as blood pressure greater than 180/120 mmHg, is a condition that prevents the use of thrombolysis. In order to proceed with thrombolysis, it is necessary to lower the patient’s blood pressure to below this level within the designated time frame. Oral medications are unlikely to work quickly enough, so an intravenous antihypertensive agent is required.
One commonly used agent in these situations is labetalol, which is administered intravenously at a dose of 10 mg over 1-2 minutes. This dose can be repeated if necessary, or an infusion can be set up to deliver a continuous dose of 2-8 mg per minute. Once the blood pressure is reduced to less than 180/105 mmHg, thrombolysis can be safely performed.
Alternatively, a nitrate infusion, such as Isoket, can be used in patients who cannot tolerate beta-blockers due to contraindications like asthma, heart block, or cardiac failure. This provides an alternative option for lowering blood pressure in these individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 22
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman with a history of Parkinson's disease and depression has experienced a gradual decline in her cognitive abilities over the past year. Her memory and ability to focus have been noticeably impaired recently. Additionally, she has experienced a few episodes of unexplained temporary loss of consciousness and occasional visual hallucinations.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Dementia with Lewy bodies (DLB)
Explanation:Dementia with Lewy bodies (DLB), also known as Lewy body dementia (LBD), is a progressive neurodegenerative condition that is closely linked to Parkinson’s disease (PD). It is the third most common cause of dementia in older individuals, following Alzheimer’s disease and vascular dementia.
DLB is characterized by several clinical features, including the presence of Parkinsonism or co-existing PD, a gradual decline in cognitive function, fluctuations in cognition, alertness, and attention span, episodes of temporary loss of consciousness, recurrent falls, visual hallucinations, depression, and complex, systematized delusions. The level of cognitive impairment can vary from hour to hour and day to day.
Pathologically, DLB is marked by the formation of abnormal protein collections called Lewy bodies within the cytoplasm of neurons. These intracellular protein collections share similar structural characteristics with the classic Lewy bodies observed in Parkinson’s disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Elderly Care / Frailty
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 3 year old boy is brought into the emergency department by concerned parents. The parents inform you that the patient has had a persistent cough and runny nose for the past 2-3 days. However, today they noticed that the patient was having difficulty breathing and was coughing up a lot of mucus. They suspected that the patient might have croup. Upon examination, you hear audible stridor and observe rapid breathing. There are no signs of difficulty swallowing or excessive drooling. The patient is given dexamethasone and nebulized adrenaline, but subsequent observations reveal an increase in respiratory rate and the patient appears increasingly tired.
What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?Your Answer: Epiglottitis
Correct Answer: Bacterial tracheitis
Explanation:Patients who have bacterial tracheitis usually do not show any improvement when treated with steroids and adrenaline nebulizers. The symptoms of bacterial tracheitis include a prelude of upper respiratory tract infection symptoms, followed by a rapid decline in health with the presence of stridor and difficulty breathing. Despite treatment with steroids and adrenaline, there is no improvement in the patient’s condition. On the other hand, patients with epiglottitis commonly experience difficulty swallowing and excessive saliva production.
Further Reading:
Croup, also known as laryngotracheobronchitis, is a respiratory infection that primarily affects infants and toddlers. It is characterized by a barking cough and can cause stridor (a high-pitched sound during breathing) and respiratory distress due to swelling of the larynx and excessive secretions. The majority of cases are caused by parainfluenza viruses 1 and 3. Croup is most common in children between 6 months and 3 years of age and tends to occur more frequently in the autumn.
The clinical features of croup include a barking cough that is worse at night, preceded by symptoms of an upper respiratory tract infection such as cough, runny nose, and congestion. Stridor, respiratory distress, and fever may also be present. The severity of croup can be graded using the NICE system, which categorizes it as mild, moderate, severe, or impending respiratory failure based on the presence of symptoms such as cough, stridor, sternal/intercostal recession, agitation, lethargy, and decreased level of consciousness. The Westley croup score is another commonly used tool to assess the severity of croup based on the presence of stridor, retractions, air entry, oxygen saturation levels, and level of consciousness.
In cases of severe croup with significant airway obstruction and impending respiratory failure, symptoms may include a minimal barking cough, harder-to-hear stridor, chest wall recession, fatigue, pallor or cyanosis, decreased level of consciousness, and tachycardia. A respiratory rate over 70 breaths per minute is also indicative of severe respiratory distress.
Children with moderate or severe croup, as well as those with certain risk factors such as chronic lung disease, congenital heart disease, neuromuscular disorders, immunodeficiency, age under 3 months, inadequate fluid intake, concerns about care at home, or high fever or a toxic appearance, should be admitted to the hospital. The mainstay of treatment for croup is corticosteroids, which are typically given orally. If the child is too unwell to take oral medication, inhaled budesonide or intramuscular dexamethasone may be used as alternatives. Severe cases may require high-flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline.
When considering the differential diagnosis for acute stridor and breathing difficulty, non-infective causes such as inhaled foreign bodies
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Emergencies
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Question 24
Correct
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A 57-year-old man comes in with a fever, difficulty breathing, and a cough with phlegm. During the examination, you notice crackling sounds in his lower left lung. You diagnose him with community-acquired pneumonia.
Which of the following statements is accurate about the CURB-65 scoring system?Your Answer: A serum urea of 7.5 mmol/l scores 1 point
Explanation:The CURB criteria, also referred to as the CURB-65 criteria, is a clinical prediction rule that has been scientifically proven to predict mortality in cases of community-acquired pneumonia. These criteria consist of five factors: confusion of new onset (AMTS <8), urea level greater than 7 mmol/l, respiratory rate exceeding 30 per minute, blood pressure below 90 mmHg systolic or 60 mmHg diastolic, and age over 65 years. Based on the score obtained from these criteria, the risk level can be determined. A score of 0-1 indicates a low-risk situation, where outpatient treatment is recommended. A score of 2-3 suggests a moderate risk, and either inpatient treatment or an ambulatory care pathway is recommended. A score of 4-5 indicates a high risk, requiring hospitalization and potentially critical care involvement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 25
Incorrect
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You are caring for a hypoxic patient in the resuscitation bay. One of the potential diagnoses is methaemoglobinaemia. If the diagnosis of methaemoglobinaemia is confirmed, which of the following treatments would be the most appropriate to administer?
Your Answer: Intralipid
Correct Answer: Methylene blue
Explanation:If IV methylene blue is obtained, it is typically used to treat a specific cause. However, if there is no response to methylene blue, alternative treatments such as hyperbaric oxygen or exchange transfusion may be considered. In cases where the cause is NADH-methaemoglobinaemia reductase deficiency, ascorbic acid can be used as a potential treatment.
Further Reading:
Methaemoglobinaemia is a condition where haemoglobin is oxidised from Fe2+ to Fe3+. This process is normally regulated by NADH methaemoglobin reductase, which transfers electrons from NADH to methaemoglobin, converting it back to haemoglobin. In healthy individuals, methaemoglobin levels are typically less than 1% of total haemoglobin. However, an increase in methaemoglobin can lead to tissue hypoxia as Fe3+ cannot bind oxygen effectively.
Methaemoglobinaemia can be congenital or acquired. Congenital causes include haemoglobin chain variants (HbM, HbH) and NADH methaemoglobin reductase deficiency. Acquired causes can be due to exposure to certain drugs or chemicals, such as sulphonamides, local anaesthetics (especially prilocaine), nitrates, chloroquine, dapsone, primaquine, and phenytoin. Aniline dyes are also known to cause methaemoglobinaemia.
Clinical features of methaemoglobinaemia include slate grey cyanosis (blue to grey skin coloration), chocolate blood or chocolate cyanosis (brown color of blood), dyspnoea, low SpO2 on pulse oximetry (which often does not improve with supplemental oxygen), and normal PaO2 on arterial blood gas (ABG) but low SaO2. Patients may tolerate hypoxia better than expected. Severe cases can present with acidosis, arrhythmias, seizures, and coma.
Diagnosis of methaemoglobinaemia is made by directly measuring the level of methaemoglobin using a co-oximeter, which is present in most modern blood gas analysers. Other investigations, such as a full blood count (FBC), electrocardiogram (ECG), chest X-ray (CXR), and beta-human chorionic gonadotropin (bHCG) levels (in pregnancy), may be done to assess the extent of the condition and rule out other contributing factors.
Active treatment is required if the methaemoglobin level is above 30% or if it is below 30% but the patient is symptomatic or shows evidence of tissue hypoxia. Treatment involves maintaining the airway and delivering high-flow oxygen, removing the causative agents, treating toxidromes and consider giving IV dextrose 5%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old patient with advanced metastatic bowel cancer is experiencing symptoms of bowel obstruction and is currently suffering from nausea and vomiting. The patient has been informed that she has only a few days left to live. Upon examination, her abdomen is found to be tender and distended.
What is the most suitable course of action to address her nausea and vomiting in this situation?Your Answer: Prochlorperazine
Correct Answer: Hyoscine butylbromide
Explanation:According to NICE, hyoscine butylbromide is recommended as the initial medication for managing nausea and vomiting in individuals with obstructive bowel disorders who are in the last days of life. NICE provides guidance on how to handle these symptoms in the final days of life, which includes assessing the potential causes of nausea and vomiting in the dying person. This may involve considering factors such as certain medications, recent chemotherapy or radiotherapy, psychological causes, biochemical causes like hypercalcemia, raised intracranial pressure, gastrointestinal motility disorder, ileus, or bowel obstruction.
It is important to discuss the available options for treating nausea and vomiting with the dying person and their loved ones. Non-pharmacological methods should also be considered when managing these symptoms in someone in the last days of life. When selecting medications for nausea and vomiting, factors such as the likely cause and reversibility of the symptoms, potential side effects (including sedation), other symptoms the person may be experiencing, and the desired balancing of effects when managing other symptoms should be taken into account. Additionally, compatibility and potential drug interactions with other medications the person is taking should be considered.
For individuals in the last days of life with obstructive bowel disorders who have nausea or vomiting, hyoscine butylbromide is recommended as the first-line pharmacological treatment. If the symptoms do not improve within 24 hours of starting treatment with hyoscine butylbromide, octreotide may be considered as an alternative option.
For more information, refer to the NICE guidance on the care of dying adults in the last days of life. https://www.nice.org.uk/guidance/ng31
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Palliative & End Of Life Care
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Question 27
Incorrect
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You assess a limping adolescent with hip discomfort. An X-ray is conducted, and a diagnosis of Slipped upper femoral epiphysis (SUFE) is confirmed.
Which ONE statement about this condition is NOT true?Your Answer: It is bilateral in approximately 20% of cases
Correct Answer: It typically presents later in girls
Explanation:Slipped upper femoral epiphysis (SUFE), also referred to as slipped capital femoral epiphysis, is a rare but significant hip disorder that primarily affects children. It occurs when the growth plate slips at the epiphysis, causing the head of the femur to shift from its normal position on the femoral neck. Specifically, the femoral epiphysis remains in the acetabulum while the metaphysis moves forward and externally rotates.
SUFE typically presents later in boys, usually between the ages of 10 and 17, compared to girls who typically experience it between 8 and 15 years of age. Several risk factors contribute to its development, including being male, being overweight, having immature skeletal maturity, having a positive family history, being of Pacific Island or African origin, having hypothyroidism, growth hormone deficiency, or hypogonadism.
Patients with SUFE commonly experience hip pain and a limp. In severe cases, a leg length discrepancy may be noticeable. While the condition may not be immediately apparent on an anteroposterior (AP) film, it is usually detectable on a frog-leg lateral film. A diagnostic sign is the failure of a line drawn up the lateral edge of the femoral neck (known as the line of Klein) to intersect the epiphysis during the acute stage, also known as Trethowan’s sign.
Surgical pinning is the most common treatment for SUFE. In approximately 20% of cases, bilateral SUFE occurs, prompting some surgeons to recommend prophylactic pinning of the unaffected hip. If a significant deformity is present, osteotomies or even arthroplasty may be necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
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Question 28
Correct
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A 45-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a one-day history of central abdominal pain which has now moved to the right-hand side. His appetite is poor, and he is complaining of nausea. He has a history of chronic constipation and recently had an episode of sudden, unexplained rectal bleeding for which he has been referred to the general surgical outpatient clinic by his GP. His observations are as follows: temperature 38.4°C, HR 112, BP 134/78, RR 18. On examination, he is tender in the right iliac fossa, and his PR examination revealed rectal tenderness.
What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Acute diverticulitis
Explanation:Acute diverticulitis occurs when a diverticulum becomes inflamed or perforated. This inflammation can either stay localized, forming a pericolic abscess, or spread and cause peritonitis. The typical symptoms of acute diverticulitis include abdominal pain (most commonly felt in the lower left quadrant), fever/sepsis, tenderness in the left iliac fossa, the presence of a mass in the left iliac fossa, and rectal bleeding. About 90% of cases involve the sigmoid colon, which is why left iliac fossa pain and tenderness are commonly seen.
To diagnose acute diverticulitis, various investigations should be conducted. These include blood tests such as a full blood count, urea and electrolytes, C-reactive protein, and blood cultures. Imaging studies like abdominal X-ray, erect chest X-ray, and possibly an abdominal CT scan may also be necessary.
Complications that can arise from acute diverticulitis include perforation leading to abscess formation or peritonitis, intestinal obstruction, massive rectal bleeding, fistulae, and strictures.
In the emergency department, the treatment for diverticulitis should involve providing suitable pain relief, administering intravenous fluids, prescribing broad-spectrum antibiotics (such as intravenous co-amoxiclav), and advising the patient to refrain from eating or drinking. It is also important to refer the patient to the on-call surgical team for further management.
For more information on diverticular disease, you can refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgical Emergencies
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Question 29
Correct
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A 35-year-old man receives a blood transfusion. Shortly after the transfusion is started, he experiences a high body temperature, shivering, and severe shaking. Blood samples are collected, and a diagnosis of bacterial infection caused by the transfusion is confirmed.
What type of blood component is he most likely to have been given?Your Answer: Platelets
Explanation:Transfusion transmitted bacterial infection is a rare complication that can occur during blood transfusion. It is more commonly associated with platelet transfusion, as platelets are stored at room temperature. Additionally, previously frozen components that are thawed using a water bath and red cell components stored for several weeks are also at a higher risk for bacterial infection.
Both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria have been implicated in transfusion-transmitted bacterial infection, but Gram-negative bacteria are known to cause more severe illness and have higher rates of morbidity and mortality. Among the bacterial organisms, Yersinia enterocolitica is the most commonly associated with this type of infection. This particular organism is able to multiply at low temperatures and utilizes iron as a nutrient, making it well-suited for proliferation in blood stores.
The clinical features of transfusion-transmitted bacterial infection typically manifest shortly after the transfusion begins. These features include a high fever, chills and rigors, nausea and vomiting, tachycardia, hypotension, and even circulatory collapse.
If there is suspicion of a transfusion-transmitted bacterial infection, it is crucial to immediately stop the transfusion. Blood cultures and a Gram-stain should be requested to identify the specific bacteria causing the infection. Broad-spectrum antibiotics should be initiated promptly. Furthermore, the blood pack should be returned to the blood bank urgently for culture and Gram-stain analysis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 52 year old male is brought into the emergency department acutely ill and is transferred to resus. Your consultant suspects thyrotoxic crisis and instructs you to prepare the necessary medication. What drugs are typically administered during the initial treatment of thyrotoxic crisis?
Your Answer: Beta blocker, steroids and iodine solution
Correct Answer: Antithyroid drug, beta blocker, corticosteroids and iodine solution
Explanation:Thyroid storm, also known as thyrotoxic crisis, is a rare and dangerous complication of hyperthyroidism. The initial management of this condition involves the use of specific medications. These medications include a beta blocker, a corticosteroid, an antithyroid drug, and an iodine solution.
The beta blocker used is typically propranolol, which is administered intravenously at a dose of 1 mg over 1 minute. If a beta blocker is contraindicated, a calcium channel blocker such as diltiazem may be used instead, at a dose of 0.25 mg/kg over 2 minutes.
For corticosteroids, hydrocortisone is commonly used and given intravenously at a dose of 200 mg. Alternatively, dexamethasone can be used at a dose of 2 mg intravenously.
The antithyroid drug used is usually propylthiouracil, which is given orally, through a nasogastric tube, or rectally, at a dose of 200 mg.
An iodine solution, specifically Lugol’s iodine, is also part of the initial management. However, it should not be administered until at least 1 hour after the antithyroid drug has been given. This is because iodine can exacerbate thyrotoxicosis by stimulating thyroid hormone synthesis. Propylthiouracil, on the other hand, inhibits the normal interactions of iodine and peroxidase with thyroglobulin, preventing the formation of T4 and T3. Therefore, it is given first and allowed time to take effect before iodine is administered.
Further Reading:
The thyroid gland is an endocrine organ located in the anterior neck. It consists of two lobes connected by an isthmus. The gland produces hormones called thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3), which regulate energy use, protein synthesis, and the body’s sensitivity to other hormones. The production of T4 and T3 is stimulated by thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) secreted by the pituitary gland, which is in turn stimulated by thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) from the hypothalamus.
Thyroid disorders can occur when there is an imbalance in the production or regulation of thyroid hormones. Hypothyroidism is characterized by a deficiency of thyroid hormones, while hyperthyroidism is characterized by an excess. The most common cause of hypothyroidism is autoimmune thyroiditis, also known as Hashimoto’s thyroiditis. It is more common in women and is often associated with goiter. Other causes include subacute thyroiditis, atrophic thyroiditis, and iodine deficiency. On the other hand, the most common cause of hyperthyroidism is Graves’ disease, which is also an autoimmune disorder. Other causes include toxic multinodular goiter and subacute thyroiditis.
The symptoms and signs of thyroid disorders can vary depending on whether the thyroid gland is underactive or overactive. In hypothyroidism, common symptoms include weight gain, lethargy, cold intolerance, and dry skin. In hyperthyroidism, common symptoms include weight loss, restlessness, heat intolerance, and increased sweating. Both hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism can also affect other systems in the body, such as the cardiovascular, gastrointestinal, and neurological systems.
Complications of thyroid disorders can include dyslipidemia, metabolic syndrome, coronary heart disease, heart failure, subfertility and infertility, impaired special senses, and myxedema coma in severe cases of hypothyroidism. In hyperthyroidism, complications can include Graves’ orbitopathy, compression of the esophagus or trachea by goiter, thyrotoxic periodic paralysis, arrhythmias, osteoporosis, mood disorders, and increased obstetric complications.
Myxedema coma is a rare and life-threatening complication of severe hypothyroidism. It can be triggered by factors such as infection or physiological insult and presents with lethargy, bradycardia, hypothermia, hypotension, hypoventilation, altered mental state, seizures and/or coma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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