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Question 1
Correct
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The following statements are about chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which is true?
Your Answer: Inhaled corticosteroid usage slows the decline in health status
Explanation:Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is an obstructive, inflammatory lung condition. It encompasses symptoms of emphysema, chronic bronchitis and asthma.
Inhaling high dose steroids are prescribed to treat COPD. They are effective at reducing symptoms and improving lung function. They also work to reduce the number of hospitalisations by decreasing the number of acute exacerbation events. Despite providing effective symptom relief, it cannot slow down the decline of FEV1 as COPD is an irreversible condition.
COPD reduces the FEV1 measurements, as well as the FEV1/FVC ratio.
Breathlessness is a major COPD symptom and can occur at any point in the disease progression, including at an FEV1 >50%.
FEV1 is used in COPD staging, and it is classed as follows:
>80%: Mild or stage I
50 – 79%: Moderate or stage II
30 – 49%: Severe or stage III
<30%: Very severe or stage IV
Patients with mild COPD are usually able to manage their condition on their own, however once the disease progresses to moderate, more GP visits are required, with those in the severe category requiring frequent hospitalisation.Asthma is correlated to an increase in transfer factor. COPD (emphysema) is correlated to a decreased transfer factor.
COPD predisposes to eventual pulmonary hypertension as a result of an increase in pulmonary vascular resistance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is correct regarding hypomagnesaemia?
Your Answer: Causes hypercalcaemia
Correct Answer: Causes tetany
Explanation:The ECG changes seen in hypomagnesaemia include:
Prolonged PR interval
Prolonged QT interval
Flattening of T waves
ST segment depression
Prominent U wavesThese changes are almost the same as those of hypokalaemia.
There is an increased risk of digoxin toxicity and a risk of atrial and ventricular ectopic and ventricular arrhythmias.
There is impaired synthesis and release of parathyroid hormone (PTH) in chronic hypomagnesaemia leading to impaired target organ response to PTH. This produces secondary hypocalcaemia.
The use of potassium ‘wasting’ diuretics (e.g. loop diuretics like furosemide) may lead to Hypomagnesaemia.
A tall T wave is seen in hypermagnesemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old woman known to be hypothyroid and taking 150 mcg l-thyroxine daily is reviewed in the preoperative assessment clinic prior to a laparoscopic cholecystectomy.
She has required three increases in her thyroid replacement therapy in the last six months.
Her thyroid function tests are as follows:
TSH 11 (normal range 0.4-4mU/L)
T3 20 (normal range 9-25mU/L)
T4 6.2 (normal range 3.5-7.8mU/L)
What will explain this biochemical picture?Your Answer: Tissue level unresponsiveness to thyroid hormone
Correct Answer: Poor compliance with medication
Explanation:In patients with an intact hypothalamic-pituitary axis, serial TSH measurements are used to determine the adequacy of treatment with thyroid hormones . changes in TSH levels becoming apparent after approximately eight weeks of therapy with thyroid hormone replacement. Change in T3/T4 levels are seen before changes in TSH .
In patients taking thyroid replacement therapy, the most frequent reason for persistent elevation of serum TSH is poor compliance. Patients who do not regularly take their L-thyroxine try and catch up just before a visit to a clinician for blood test.
Tissue-level unresponsiveness to thyroid hormone is caused by mutation in the gene controlling a receptor for T3 and is rare.
Reduced responsiveness of target tissues to thyroid hormone aka resistance to thyroid hormones (rTH) occurs when there is a mutation in the thyroid hormone receptor ? gene. It is a rare autosomal dominant inherited syndrome of reduced end-organ responsiveness to thyroid hormone and has two types:
Generalised resistance (GrTH)
Pituitary resistance (PrTH)Patients with rTH have normal or slightly elevated serum thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level, elevated serum free thyroxine (FT4) and free triiodothyronine (FT3) concentrations.
Drugs that increase metabolism of thyroxine include:
Warfarin
Rifampin
Phenytoin
Phenobarbital
St John’s Wort
CarbamazepineThese drugs lower circulating thyroid hormones and would be associated with a raised TSH but low T3/T4.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 42 year old man came to the out-patient department with attacks of facial pain. Upon further questioning, he reported that the pain was intermittent, often occurring spontaneously. The quality of the pain was sharp, and severity was moderate to moderately severe. The pain was non-radiating, and often involved the left maxillary and mandibular areas.
Other medical information of the patient, such as allergies and co-morbidities, were unremarkable.
Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis of the patient?Your Answer: Temporomandibular joint dysfunction
Correct Answer: Trigeminal neuralgia
Explanation:Trigeminal neuralgia is characterized by excruciating paroxysms of pain in the lips, gums, cheek, or chin and, very rarely, in the distribution of the fifth nerve. The pain seldom lasts more than a few seconds or a minute or two but may be so intense that the patient winces, hence the term tic. The paroxysms, experienced as single jabs or clusters, tend to recur frequently, both day and night, for several weeks at a time. They may occur spontaneously or with movements of affected areas evoked by speaking, chewing, or smiling. Another characteristic feature is the presence of trigger zones, typically on the face, lips, or tongue, that provoke attacks; patients may report that tactile stimuli – e.g., washing the face, brushing the teeth, or exposure to a draft of air – generate excruciating pain. An essential feature of trigeminal neuralgia is that objective signs of sensory loss cannot be demonstrated on examination.
Trigeminal neuralgia is relatively common, with an estimated annual incidence of 4–8 per 100,000 individuals. Middle-aged and elderly persons are affected primarily, and ,60% of cases occur in women. Onset is typically sudden, and bouts tend to persist for weeks or months before remitting spontaneously. Remissions may be long-lasting, but in most patients, the disorder ultimately recurs.
An ESR or CRP is indicated if temporal arteritis is suspected. In typical cases of trigeminal neuralgia, neuroimaging studies are usually unnecessary but may be valuable if MS is a consideration or in assessing overlying vascular lesions in order to plan for decompression surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 60 year old non insulin dependent diabetic on metformin undergoes hip arthroscopy under general anaesthesia.
Her preoperative blood glucose is 6.5mmol/L. Anaesthesia is induced with 200 mg propofol and 100 mcg fentanyl and maintained with sevoflurane and air/oxygen mixture. she is given 8 mg dexamethasone, 40 mg parecoxib, 1 g paracetamol and 500 mL Hartmann's solution Intraoperatively.
The procedure took thirty minutes and her blood glucose in recovery is 14 mmol/L.
What is the most likely cause for her rise in blood sugar?Your Answer: Dexamethasone
Correct Answer: Stress response
Explanation:A significant early feature of the metabolic response to trauma and surgery is hyperglycaemia. It is due to an increased glucose production and decreased glucose utilisation bought on by neuroendocrine stimulation. Catecholamines, Growth hormone, ACTH and cortisol, and Glucagon are all increased.
There is also a decreased insulin sensitivity peripherally and an inhibition of insulin production from the beta cells of the pancreas. These changes lead to hyperglycaemia.
The stress response to endoscopic surgery will only be prevented with use of high dose opioids or central neuraxial block at anaesthesia.
To reduce the risk of inducing hyperchloremic acidosis, Ringer’s lactate/acetate or Hartmann’s solution is preferred to 0.9% sodium chloride as routine maintenance fluids.Though it has been suggested that administration of Hartmann’s solution to patients with type 2 diabetes leads to hyperglycaemia, one Litre of Hartmann’s solution would yield a maximum of 14.5 mmol of glucose. A rapid infusion of this volume would increase the plasma glucose by no more than 1 mmol/L..
Dexamethasone, a glucocorticoid, produces hyperglycaemia by stimulating gluconeogenesis . Glucocorticoids are agonists of intracellular glucocorticoid receptors. Their effects are mainly mediated via altered protein synthesis via gene transcription and so the onset of action is slow. The onset of action of dexamethasone is about one to four hours and therefore would NOT contribute to the hyperglycaemia in this patient in the time given.
0.9% Normal saline with or without adrenaline is the usual irrigation fluid. With this type of surgery, systemic absorption is unlikely to occur.
Fentanyl is not likely the primary cause of hyperglycaemia in this patient. In high doses (50 mcg/Kg) it has been shown to reduce the hyperglycaemic responses to surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 6
Correct
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Gag reflex was assessed as a part of brain stem death in a 22-year-old man with severe traumatic brain injury.
Which of the following nerves forms the afferent limb of this reflex?Your Answer: Glossopharyngeal nerve
Explanation:The gag reflex is a protective mechanism that prevents any foreign material to enter the aerodigestive tract.
This reflex has afferent (sensory) and effect (motor) components.
– Glossopharyngeal nerve form the afferent limb
– Vagus nerve form the efferent limb -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 7
Correct
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The following statements are about burns patients. Which one is true?
Your Answer: High protein diets may improve survival
Explanation:Patients who have sustained thermal injuries are at high risk of becoming hypercatabolic with larger cardiac outputs and oxygen consumptions.
The hypermetabolic states increase with an increase in the burn severity and surface area of the skin affected. A patient with thermal injuries affecting 60% of the total surface area of the body will have twice the normal metabolic rate.
The optimal temperature for nursing patients with burn injuries is 30°C to conserve the energy usage. The areas affected by the burn injuries should be covered to reduce loss of fluid via evaporation. Resetting hypothalamic thermoregulation will cause a 1-2°C increase in core temperature.
Burn injuries will have an immediate effect on the intestine, destroying the barrier function and allowing for the movement of bacteria and endotoxins within hours.
Enteral nutrition allows for the delivery of nutrients directly to the stomach or intestine. It has correlation with a dampened hypermetabolic response to a thermal and injury, especially when initiated early as it helps to protect the integrity of the mucosal lining and prevents the movement of bacteria into circulation.
Diet changes have been linked to reduced mortality due to burn injuries. Diets high in protein especially (calorie: nitrogen ratio of 100: 1), have the highest correlation with improved survival rates.
Parenteral feeds may be required alongside enteral nutrition, even with the increased risks of infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Over the course of 10 minutes, a normally fit and well 22-year-old male receives a 1 litre intravenous bolus of 20% albumin.
Which of the following primary physiological responses in this patient has the highest chance to influence a change in urine output?
Your Answer: Inhibition of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion
Correct Answer: Stimulation of atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) secretion
Explanation:The renal effects of atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) secretion are as follows:
Increased glomerular filtration rate by dilating the afferent glomerular arteriole. Moreover, it constricts the efferent glomerular arteriole, and relaxes the mesangial cells.
Reduces sodium reabsorption in the collecting ducts and distal convoluted tubule.
The renin-angiotensin system (RAS) is inhibited.
Blood flow in the vasa recta is increased.Because plasma osmolality is unlikely to change, hypothalamic osmoreceptors are unaffected.
The plasma protein has a molecular weight of 66 kDa, is not normally filtered into the proximal convoluted tubule, and has no osmotic diuretic effect.
The following are some basic assumptions:
Extracellular fluid (ECF) makes up one-third of total body water (TBW), while intracellular fluid makes up the other two-thirds (ICF)
One-quarter plasma and three-quarters interstitial fluid make up ECF (ISF)
The volume receptors in the atria have a 7-10% blood volume change threshold.
The osmoreceptors are sensitive to changes in osmolality of 1-2 percent.
The normal plasma osmolality before the transfusion is 287-290 mOsm/kg.
The plasma protein solution is a colloid that is only delivered to the intravascular compartment. The tonicity remains unchanged.
The blood volume increases by 20%, from 5,000 mls to 6,000 mls. This is higher than the volume receptor threshold of 7 to 10%. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Over the course of 10 minutes, one litre of 0.9% normal saline is intravenously infused into a normally fit and well 58-year-old male. A catheter is used to measure urine output before and after the infusion. The patient is 70 kg in weight.
The following data on urine output is obtained:
50ml/hour Before the infusion
200 ml/hour 1 hour following infusion
90 ml/hour 2 hours after the infusion
60 ml/hr 3 hours after the infusion
Which of the following physiological responses is most likely to account for the sudden increase in urine output after a fluid bolus?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased glomerular filtration rate
Explanation:The following are some basic assumptions:
Extracellular fluid (ECF) makes up one-third of total body water (TBW), while intracellular fluid makes up the other two-thirds (ICF).
One-quarter of ECF is plasma, and three-quarters is interstitial fluid (ISF).
The volume receptors have a 7-10% blood volume change threshold. The osmoreceptors are sensitive to changes in osmolality of 1-2 percent.
Prior to the transfusion, the plasma osmolality is normal (between 287 and 290 mOsm/kg).
[Na+] in 0.9 percent N. saline is 154 mmol/L, which is similar to that of extracellular fluid. When given intravenously, this limits its distribution within the extracellular space, resulting in a plasma compartment:ISF volume ratio of 1:3.
In this time frame, one litre of 0.9 percent N. saline will increase plasma volume by about 250 mL, which could be the threshold for activation of the volume receptors in the atria, resulting in the release of atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP).Because 0.9 percent N. saline is isosmotic, after a 1 L infusion, plasma osmolality will not change. No changes in antidiuretic hormone secretion will be detected by the hypothalamic osmoreceptors.
Because normal saline is protein-free, the oncotic pressure in the blood is slightly reduced after the saline infusion. As a result, fluid movement into the ISF is favoured (Starling’s hypothesis), and the lower oncotic pressure causes an immediate increase in the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) and a reduction in water reabsorption in the proximal tubule.
The flow of urine increases. There is no hormonal intermediary in this effect, so it is strictly local. Urine flow immediately increases. The fluid returns to the intravascular compartment, and urine flow continues until all of the transfused fluid has been excreted.
Blood pressure changes associated with a 1 L fluid infusion are unlikely to affect high-pressure baroreceptors in the carotid sinus.
The juxta-glomerular cells of the afferent arteriole are adjacent to the specialised cells (macula densa) of distal tubules. The sodium and chloride ions in the tubular fluid are detected by the macula densa. Renin release is inhibited when the tubular fluid contains too much sodium chloride. Hormonal changes take longer to manifest than physical changes that control glomerulotubular balance.
Hypertonic saline, not 0.9 percent N saline, is an osmotic diuretic. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 68-year old female is brought to the Emergency Room for abdominal pain. Medical history revealed that she is on long-term warfarin therapy for deep vein thrombosis.
Upon further investigation, the patient is hypotensive at 80/60 mmHg, and an abdominal mass is palpable on the umbilical area. An initial diagnosis of ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) is made. Moreover, blood tests show an international normalised ratio (INR) of 4.2.
Which of the following products should be initially transfused or administered to the patient to reverse the anticoagulation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prothrombin complex
Explanation:Warfarin prevents reductive metabolism of the inactive vitamin K epoxide back to its active hydroquinone form. Thus, warfarin inhibits the synthesis of vitamin K dependent clotting factors: X, IX, VII, II (prothrombin), and of the anticoagulants protein C and protein S. The therapeutic range for oral anticoagulant therapy is defined in terms of an international normalized ratio (INR). The INR is the prothrombin time ratio (patient prothrombin time/mean of normal prothrombin time for lab)ISI, where the ISI exponent refers to the International Sensitivity Index and is dependent on the specific reagents and instruments used for the determination. A prolonged INR is widely used as an indication of integrity of the coagulation system in liver disease and other disorders, it has been validated only in patients in steady state on chronic warfarin therapy.
Prothrombin complex concentrate (PCC) is used to replace congenital or acquired vitamin-K deficiency warfarin-induced anticoagulant effect, particularly in the emergent setting.
Intravenous vitamin K has a slower onset of action compared to PCC, but is useful for long term therapy.
Fresh frozen plasma (FFP) prepared from freshly donated blood is the usual source of the vitamin K-dependent factors and is the only source of factor V. The factors needed, however, are found in small quantities compared to PCC.
Cryoprecipitate is indicated for hypofibrinogenemia/dysfibrinogenemia, von Willebrand disease, haemophilia A, factor XIII deficiency, and management of bleeding related to thrombolytic therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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The following statements are about the conjugation of bilirubin. Which is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Is catalysed by a glucuronyl transferase
Explanation:Bilirubin is formed by metabolizing heme, mostly from haemoglobin in red blood cells.
Bilirubin is conjugated to glucuronic acid in the hepatocytes by the glucuronyl transferase enzyme in order to enable it to become soluble and allow for its secretion across the canalicular membrane and into bile.
The conjugation process is increased by rifampicin and decreased by valproate.
Gilbert’s syndrome is caused by a decrease in glucuronyl transferase in the hepatic system, decreasing the transport of bilirubin into the hepatocyte, causing unconjugated bilirubinaemia.
Crigler-Najjer syndrome is caused by mutations in the genes responsible for hepatic glucuronyl transferase, decreasing the activity of the enzyme, meaning bilirubin cannot be conjugated, causing unconjugated bilirubinaemia.
Dubin-Johnson syndrome does not cause an impairment in the conjugation of bilirubin, but it blocks the transport of bilirubin out of the hepatocyte resulting in conjugated bilirubinaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 40-year old farmer came into the emergency room with a chief complaint of 4 episodes of non-bloody diarrhoea. This was associated with frequent urination, vomiting and salivation. History also revealed frequent use of insecticides. Upon physical examination, there was miosis and bradycardia.
Given the different types of bonds, which is the most likely bond formed between insecticide poisoning and receptors?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Covalent
Explanation:Organophosphate poisoning occurs most often due to accidental exposure to toxic amounts of pesticides. Signs and symptoms include diarrhoea, urination, miosis, bradycardia, emesis, lacrimation, lethargy and salivation.
Organophosphates are classified as indirect acting cholinomimetics, and their mode of action involves: (1) the inhibition of acetylcholinesterase (AChE) by forming a stable covalent bond on the active site serine; and, (2) amplification of endogenously release acetylcholine (ACh), hence the clinical manifestation.
There are 4 types of bonds or interactions: ionic, covalent, hydrogen bonds, and van der Waals interactions. Ionic and covalent bonds are strong interactions that require a larger energy input to break apart. When an element donates an electron from its outer shell, a positive ion is formed. The element accepting the electron is now negatively charged. Because positive and negative charges attract, these ions stay together and form an ionic bond. Covalent bonds form when an electron is shared between two elements and are the strongest and most common form of chemical bond in living organisms. Covalent bonds form between the elements that make up the biological molecules in our cells. Unlike ionic bonds, covalent bonds do not dissociate in water.
When polar covalent bonds containing a hydrogen atom form, the hydrogen atom in that bond has a slightly positive charge. This is because the shared electron is pulled more strongly toward the other element and away from the hydrogen nucleus. Because the hydrogen atom is slightly positive, it will be attracted to neighbouring negative partial charges. When this happens, a weak interaction occurs between the slightly positive charge of the hydrogen atom of one molecule and the slightly negative charge of the other molecule. This interaction is called a hydrogen bond.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Which of the following best describes the phenomenon of higher partial pressures of oxygen in the alveoli (PAO2) in the lung apices when in the upright position?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The ventilation/perfusion (V/Q) ratio is greater than in the basal units
Explanation:The ventilation/perfusion ratio varies in different areas of the lung. In an upright individual, although both ventilation and perfusion increase from the apex to the base of the lung, the increase in ventilation is less than the increase in blood flow. As a result, the normal V̇ /Q̇ ratio at the apex of the lung is much greater than 1 (ventilation exceeds perfusion), whereas the V̇ /Q̇ ratio at the base of the lung is much less than 1 (perfusion exceeds ventilation).
There is more volume in the alveoli found in the apices than in the bases of the lungs. This is due to the weight of the lung stretching the apical alveoli to the maximum size. Also, the weight of the lungs pull themselves away from the chest wall, creating a negative intrapleural pressure. These factors, however, do not directly affect the PAO2.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 72-year old man is experiencing a cardiac risk evaluation for the management of obstructive umbilical hernia. Echocardiogram demonstrates an aortic valve area=0.59cm with a pressure of 70mmHg. Five years ago, he had mild myocardial infarction complicated with pulmonary oedema. Now he encounters angina with little exertion.
Which of the following factor is the foremost profoundly weighted using Deysky's cardiac risk scoring system in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aortic stenosis
Explanation:Detsky’s Modified cardiac risk classification system in patients undergoing non-cardiac surgery:
Age more than 70: 05 points
History of myocardial infarction:
Less than 6 months: 10 points
More than 6 months: 5 pointsAngina Pectoris:
Angina with minimal exertion: 10 points
Angina at any level of exertion: 20 points
Pulmonary Oedema:
Within 7 days: 10 points
At any time: 5 pointsSuspected aortic valve stenosis with valve area <0.6cm2: 20 points Arrhythmia: Any rhythm other than sinus or sinus with premature atrial complexes (PACs): 5 points More than 5 premature ventricular contractions: 5 points
Emergency Surgery: 10 points
Deficient general medical condition: 5 pointsRisk classification:
Grade I: 0-15 points = low risk
Grade II: 15-30 points = moderate risk
Grade III: >30 points = high risk -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant presented with significant proteinuria and severe headache. On examination, the blood pressure recorded was consistently raised at 190/110. Subsequently, she was admitted to the labour ward as a case of pre-eclampsia.
A loading dose of IV magnesium sulphate 4g is given, followed by a 1g/hour infusion.
The most suitable parameter to access magnesium toxicity is?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tendon reflexes
Explanation:Magnesium is a very important cation due to its various physiological roles in the body. This includes:
– playing the role of a cofactor in many enzymatic reactions
– influencing hormone receptor binding
– affecting calcium channels
– impact on cardiac, vascular and neural cellsMagnesium sulphate is used as first line in the treatment of eclampsia. Moreover, it has some preventive role in patients with severe pre-eclampsia. All the clinical effects of magnesium are in line with its plasma concentration.
The first sign of magnesium toxicity in obstetric patients is the loss of patellar reflex, which is regularly monitored during treatment. The other options are all late signs of magnesium toxicity.
Whenever there is a doubt, serum magnesium levels should always be monitored.
The table below correlates the effects of increased levels of magnesium on the body:
Plasma Concentration
(mmol/L) Effect
0.7-1.2 Normal
4-8 Decreased deep tendon reflexes, nausea, headache, weakness, malaise, lethargy and facial flushing
5-10 ECG changes (prolonged PR, prolonged QT, and widened QRS)
10 Muscle weakness, loss of deep tendon reflexes, hypotension
15 SA/AV nodal block, respiratory paralysis and depression
20 Cardiac arrest -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old woman with a medical history of ischaemic heart disease, hypertension, and hypothyroidism was brought to ER with a change in her mental state over the past few hours. Medications used by her were hydrochlorothiazide, aspirin, ramipril, and levothyroxine.
On physical examination, decreased skin turgor, orthostatic hypotension, and disorientation of time and place were found. There were no significant neurological signs.
Initial biochemical tests are as follows:
Na: 111 mmol/L (135-145)
K: 4.1 mmol/L (3.5-5.1)
Cl: 105 mmol/L (99-101)
Bic: 29 mmol/L (22-29)
Urea: 16.4 mmol/L (1.7-8.3)
Creatinine: 320µmol/L (44-80)
Glucose: 13.5mmol/L (3.5-5.5)
Plasma osmolality: 278mOsm/kg
Urinary osmolality: 450mOsm/kg
TSH: 6.2 miu/L (0.1-6.0)
Free T4: 10.1 pmol/L (10-25)
Free T3: 1.4nm/L (1.0-2.5)
Which of the following is most likely cause for this condition of the patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Drug idiosyncrasy
Explanation:Based on the laboratory reports, the patient is suffering from significant hyponatremia. The symptoms of hyponatremia are mainly neurological and depend on the severity and rapidity of onset of hyponatremia.
Patient symptom according to the hyponatremia level is correlated below:
125 – 130mmol/L – Nausea and malaise
115 – 125mmol/L – Headache, lethargy, seizures, and coma
<120mmol/L - Up to 11% present with coma. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is true about monoamine oxidase (MOA) enzymes?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Type A and type B are found in the liver and brain
Explanation:Monoamine oxidase (MOA) enzymes are responsible for the catalyses of monoamine oxidative deamination. It assists the degradation of serotonin, norepinephrine (NE) and dopamine.
They are found in the mitochondria of most central and peripheral nerve tissues.
There are 2 different types:
Type A: Whose main function it to inactivate dopamine, tyramine, norepinephrine and 5-hydroxytryptamine. In addition to the nervous system, it is also found in the liver, brain gastrointestinal tract, pulmonary endothelium and placenta
Type B: Whose main function is to inactivate dopamine, tyramine, tryptamine and phenylethylamine. In addition to the nervous system, it is also found in the liver, brain (especially in the basal ganglia) and blood platelets. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Regarding renal autoregulation, which of the following best describes its process?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reduces the effect of changes in arterial blood pressure on renal Na+ excretion
Explanation:Two mechanisms are responsible for autoregulation of RBF and GFR: one mechanism that responds to changes in arterial pressure and another that responds to changes in [NaCl] in tubular fluid. Both regulate the tone of the afferent arteriole. The pressure-sensitive mechanism, the so-called myogenic mechanism, is related to an intrinsic property of vascular smooth muscle: the tendency to contract when stretched. Accordingly, when arterial pressure rises and the renal afferent arteriole is stretched, the smooth muscle contracts in response. Because the increase in resistance of the arteriole offsets the increase in pressure, RBF, and therefore GFR, remains constant.
The second mechanism responsible for autoregulation of GFR and RBF is the [NaCl]-dependent mechanism known as tubuloglomerular feedback. This mechanism involves a feedback loop in which a change in GFR leads to alteration in the concentration of NaCl in tubular fluid, which is sensed by the macula densa of the juxtaglomerular apparatus and converted into signals that affect afferent arteriolar resistance and thus the GFR (Fig. 33.19). For example, when the GFR increases and causes [NaCl] in tubular fluid in the loop of Henle to rise, more NaCl enters the macula densa cells in this segment (Fig. 33.20). This leads to an increase in formation and release of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) and adenosine (a metabolite of ATP) by macula densa cells, which causes vasoconstriction of the afferent arteriole and normalization of GFR. In contrast, when GFR and [NaCl] in tubule fluid decrease, less NaCl enters the macula densa cells, and both ATP and adenosine production and release decline. The fall in [ATP] and [adenosine] results in afferent arteriolar vasodilation, which returns GFR to normal. NO, a vasodilator produced by the macula densa, attenuates tubuloglomerular feedback, whereas angiotensin II enhances tubuloglomerular feedback. Thus the macula densa may release both vasoconstrictors (e.g., ATP and adenosine) and a vasodilator (e.g., NO) that oppose each other’s action at the level of the afferent arteriole. Production plus release of either vasoconstrictors or vasodilators ensures exquisite control over tubuloglomerular feedback.
Renal autoregulation, thus, reduces the effect of changes in arterial blood pressure on renal sodium excretion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Following a traumatic head injury, you are summoned to the emergency department to transfer a patient to the CT scanner. With a Glasgow coma score of 3, he has already been intubated and ventilated.
It is important to ensure that cerebral protection strategies are implemented during the transfer.
Which of the following methods is the most effective for reducing venous obstruction?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Position with a head-up tilt of 30°
Explanation:ICP is significant because it influences cerebral perfusion pressure and cerebral blood flow. The normal ICP ranges from 5 to 13 mmHg.
The components within the skull include the brain (80%/1400 ml), blood (10%/150 ml), and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) (10%/150 ml).
Because the skull is a rigid box, if one of the three components increases in volume, one or more of the remaining components must decrease in volume to compensate, or the ICP will rise (Monroe-Kellie hypothesis).
Primary brain injury occurs as a result of a head injury and is unavoidable unless precautions are taken to reduce the risk of head injury. A reduction in oxygen delivery due to hypoxemia (low arterial PaO2) or anaemia, a reduction in cerebral blood flow due to hypotension or reduced cardiac output, and factors that cause a raised ICP and reduced CPP are all causes of secondary brain injury. Secondary brain injury can be avoided with proper management.
The most important initial management task is to make certain that:
There is protection of the airway and the cervical spine
There is proper ventilation and oxygenation
Blood pressure and cerebral perfusion pressure are both adequate (CPP).Following the implementation of these management principles, additional strategies to reduce ICP and preserve cerebral perfusion are required. The volume of one or more of the contents of the skull can be reduced using techniques that can be used to reduce ICP.
Reduce the volume of brain tissue
Blood volume should be reduced.
CSF volume should be reduced.The following are some methods for reducing the volume of brain tissue:
Abscess removal or tumour resection
Steroids (especially dexamethasone) are used to treat oedema in the brain.
To reduce intracellular volume, use mannitol/furosemide or hypertonic saline.
To increase intracranial volume, a decompressive craniectomy is performed.The following are some methods for reducing blood volume:
Haematomas must be evacuated.
Barbiturate coma reduces cerebral metabolic rate and oxygen consumption, lowering cerebral blood volume as a result.
Hypoxemia, hypercarbia, hyperthermia, vasodilator drugs, and hypotension should all be avoided in the arterial system.
PEEP/airway obstruction/CVP lines in neck: patient positioning with 30° head up, avoid neck compression with ties/excessive rotation, avoid PEEP/airway obstruction/CVP lines in neckThe following are some methods for reducing CSF volume:
To reduce CSF volume, an external ventricular drain or a ventriculoperitoneal shunt is inserted (although more a long term measure).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 31-year old Caucasian female came into the emergency department due to difficulty of breathing. History revealed exposure to room odorizes that are rich in alkyl nitrites. Upon physical examination, patient is tachypnoeic at 32 breaths per minute, desaturated at 88% while on a non-rebreather mask at 15 litres per minute oxygen. She was also noted to be cyanotic, however with clear breath sounds.
Considering the history, what is the most probable cause of her difficulty of breathing?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased affinity of bound oxygen to haemoglobin
Explanation:Amyl nitrate is part of the treatment of cyanide poisoning. The short acting nitrate causes oxidation of Fe2+ in haemoglobin to Fe3+ in methaemoglobin. Methaemoglobin combines with cyanide (cyanmethemoglobin), which reacts with sodium thiosulfate to convert nontoxic thiocyanate and methaemoglobin.
Methaemoglobin is formed when the iron in haemoglobin is converted from the reduced state (Fe2+) to the oxidized state (Fe3+). The oxidized form of haemoglobin (Fe3+) does not bind oxygen as readily as Fe2+, but has high affinity for cyanide. It also results to high affinity of bound oxygen to haemoglobin, thus leading to tissue hypoxia. Arterial oxygen tension is normal despite observations of cyanosis and dyspnoea. Methemoglobinemia can be treated with methylene blue and vitamin C.
Carboxyhaemoglobin can be due to carbon monoxide poisoning. In such cases, patients experience headache and dizziness, but do not develop cyanosis.
2,3-diphosphoglycerate causes a shift in the oxygen dissociation curve to the right, decreasing haemoglobin’s affinity to oxygen to facilitate unloading of oxygen to the tissues.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Regarding the use of soda lime as part of a modern circle system with a vaporiser outside the circuit (VOC), which of the following is its most deleterious consequence?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Carbon monoxide formation
Explanation:When using dry soda lime for VOCs, very high amounts of carbon monoxide may be produced, regardless of the inhalational anaesthetic agent used. The carbon monoxide produced is sufficient enough to cause cytotoxic and anaemic hypoxia. To prevent this, soda lime canisters are shaken well to even out the packing of granules. This can help to evenly distribute gas flow for proper CO2 absorption and ventilation.
Compound A is formed when dry soda lime, or soda lime in high temperature, reacts with the inhalational anaesthetic Sevoflurane. Animal studies have shown renal toxicity in rats, but renal adverse effects in humans are yet to be observed.
When monitors are not employed with VOCs, deleterious effects are not for certain. However, monitors not employed with vaporiser inside the circuit (VIC) can lead to significant adverse events.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Regarding chest tube insertion, which of the following measurements is utilized when selecting a chest tube drain?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: External circumference (mm)
Explanation:Selection of a chest drain will depend on the external circumference.
A cannula, whether intravenous or intra-arterial, are classified according to standard wire gauge, which refers to the number of wires that can fit into the same hole. If a cannula is labelled 22G, then 22 wires will fit into the standard size hole.
A more popular measurement than SWG nowadays is cross sectional area.
When the concern for selecting equipment is the rate of flow, then it is important to consider the diameter and the radius of a parallel sided tube. These, however, are not routinely considered when comparing sizes of a cannula.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Calcium homeostasis is regulated by parathormone (PTH).
Which of the following PTH actions is most likely to cause calcium to be released from bone?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Indirect stimulation of osteoclasts
Explanation:The hormone parathyroid hormone (PTH) and the receptor parathyroid hormone type 1 (PTH1-Rc) are important regulators of blood calcium homeostasis.
PTH can cause a rapid release of calcium from the matrix in bone, but it also affects long-term calcium metabolism by acting directly on bone-forming osteoblasts (by binding to PTH1-Rc) and indirectly on bone-resorbing osteoclasts.
PTH causes changes in the synthesis and/or activity of several proteins, including osteoclast-differentiating factor, also known as TRANCE or RANKL, when it acts on osteoblasts.
RANK receptors are found on the cell surfaces of osteoclast precursors. The osteoclasts are activated when RANKL binds to the RANK receptors. Osteoclasts lack PTH receptors, whereas osteoblasts do. Osteoclasts are activated indirectly when the RANK receptor binds to the RANKL secreted by osteoblasts, resulting in bone resorption. PTH1 receptors are found in osteoclasts, but they are few.
PTH activates G-protein coupled receptors in all target cells via adenylate cyclase.
The PTH2 receptor is most abundant in the nervous system and pancreas, but it is not a calcium metabolism regulator. It is abundant in the septum, midline thalamic nuclei, several hypothalamic nuclei, and the dorsal horn of the spinal cord, as well as the cerebral cortex and basal ganglia. Expression in pancreatic islet somatostatin cells is the most prominent on the periphery.
The distribution of the receptor is being used to test functional hypotheses. It may play a role in pain modulation and hypothalamic releasing-factor secretion control.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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The most sensitive indicator of mild obstructive airway disease is?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Forced expiratory flow (FEF25-75%)
Explanation:The volume expired in the first second of maximal expiration after a maximal inspiration is known as forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1), and it indicates how quickly full lungs can be emptied. It is the most commonly measured parameter for bronchoconstriction assessment.
The maximum volume of air exhaled after a maximal inspiration is known as the ‘slow’ vital capacity (VC). VC is normally equal to FVC after a forced vital capacity (FVC) or slow vital capacity (VC) manoeuvre, unless there is an airflow obstruction, in which case VC is usually higher than FVC.
The FEV1/FVC (Tiffeneau index) is a clinically useful index of airflow restriction that can be used to distinguish between restrictive and obstructive respiratory disorders.
The average expired flow over the middle half (25-75 percent) of the FVC manoeuvre is the forced expiratory volume (FEF25-75). The airflow from the resistance bronchioles corresponds to this. It’s a more sensitive indicator of mild small airway narrowing than FEV1, but it’s difficult to tell if the VC (or FVC) is decreasing or increasing.
The maximum expiratory flow rate achieved is called the peak expiratory flow (PEF), which is usually 8-14 L/second.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 46-year-old woman is listed for clipping of a cerebral aneurysm, following a diagnosis of surgical third nerve palsy.
Which of the following clinical findings correlate with surgical third nerve palsy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ptosis, inferolateral rotation of globe and mydriasis
Explanation:Ptosis and mydriasis are visible in surgical third nerve palsy, and the eye looks ‘down and out.’ The loss of innervation to all of the major structures supplied by the oculomotor nerve is reflected in these characteristics.
Ptosis is caused by the paralysis of the levator palpebrae superioris in oculomotor nerve palsy. Due to the unopposed actions of the superior oblique and lateral rectus muscles, the eye rotates down and out.
Mydriasis is caused by surgical (compressive) causes of third nerve palsy, which disrupt the parasympathetic pupillomotor fibres on the nerve’s periphery.
Medical (ischaemic) causes of a third nerve palsy, on the other hand, leave the superficial parasympathetic fibres relatively unaffected and the pupil unaffected.
Horner’s syndrome is characterised by ptosis, anhidrosis, and miosis, which are caused by a loss of sympathetic innervation to the tarsal muscle of the upper lid, facial skin, and dilator pupillae, respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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In North America, there have been reports of paediatric patients dying after undergoing adenotonsillectomy for obstructive sleep apnoea.
Respiratory depression/obstruction is thought to be the cause of death. The codeine dose was 0.5-1 mg/kg, given every 4-6 hours.
In this group of patients, which of the following is the most likely cause of respiratory depression and obstruction?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Exaggerated metabolism of codeine
Explanation:Codeine is easily absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract and converted to morphine and norcodeine in the liver via O- and N-demethylation. Morphine and norcodeine are excreted almost entirely by the kidney, primarily as conjugates with glucuronic acid.
By glucuronidation, phase II metabolism enzyme UDP-glucuronosyl transferase-2B7 converts morphine to morphine-3-glucuronide (M3G) and morphine-6-glucuronide (M6G) (UGT2B7).
Approximately 60% of morphine is converted to M3G, with the remaining 6-10% converted to M6G. M3G is inactive, but M6G is said to be 4 to 650 times more potent on the MOP receptor than morphine.
When codeine is consumed, cytochrome P450 2D6 in the liver converts it to morphine (CYP2D6).
Some people have DNA variations that increase the activity of this enzyme, causing codeine to be converted to morphine more quickly and completely than in others. After taking codeine, these ultra-rapid metabolisers are more likely to have higher than normal levels of morphine in their blood.
Respiratory depression/obstruction can be caused by high levels of morphine and M6G, especially in people who have a history of obstructive sleep apnoea. The estimated number of ultra-rapid metabolisers ranges from 1 to 7 per 100 people, but some ethnic groups may have as many as 28 per 100 people.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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An 81-year old man was admitted to the Pulmonology Ward due to chronic obstructive airway disease (COPD) exacerbation. Upon physical examination, he was hypertensive at 140/90 mmHg, tachycardic at 114 beats per minute, and tachypnoeic at 33 breaths per minute.
Arterial blood gas analysis was obtained and showed the following results:
pH: 7.25 (Reference range: 7.35-7.45)
PaO2: 73 mmHg (9.7 kPa) (Reference range: 11.3-12.6 kPa)
PaCO2: 56 mmHg (7.5 kPa) (Reference range: 4.7-6.0 kPa)
SaO2: 90%
Standard bicarbonate: 29 mmol/L (Reference range: 20-28)
BE: +4 mmol/L (± 2)
Which of the following options has the most significant impact on his respiratory rate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: CSF pH
Explanation:The arterial blood gas analysis indicates presence of acute respiratory acidosis.
Central chemoreceptors are located in the ventral medulla and respond directly to presence of hydrogen ions in the CSF. When stimulated, it causes an increase in respiratory rate.
It is believed that hydrogen ions may be the only important direct stimulus for these neurons, however, CO2 is believed to stimulate these neurons secondarily by changing the hydrogen ion concentration.
Changes in O2 concentration have virtually no direct effect on the respiratory centre itself to alter respiratory drive. Although, O2 changes do have an indirect effect by acting through the peripheral chemoreceptors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Which of the following options will best reflect the adequacy of preoxygenation prior to rapid sequence induction of a patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Expired fraction of oxygen (FEO2)
Explanation:The most important determinant of preoxygenation adequacy is expired fraction of oxygen. Denitrogenating of the functional residual capacity is the purpose of preoxygenation. This is dependent on three vital factors: (1) respiratory rate; (2) inspired volume, and; (3) inspired oxygen concentration (FiO2).
Arterial oxygen saturation does not efficiently determine adequacy of preoxygenation because of its inability to measure tissue reserves. Arterial partial pressure of oxygen is also unsuitable for determining preoxygenation adequacy. Moreover, the absence of central cyanosis is a very crude sign of low tissue oxygenation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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The lung volume that is commonly measured indirectly is?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Functional residual capacity
Explanation:The functional residual capacity (FRC) is the volume in the lungs at the end of passive expiration. It is determined by opposing forces of the expanding chest wall and the elastic recoil of the lung. A normal FRC = 1.7 to 3.5 L. It a marker for lung function, and, during this time, the alveolar pressure is equal to the atmospheric pressure.
FRC cannot be measured by spirometry because it contains the residual volume.
Tidal volume, inspiratory reserve volume, forced expiratory volume in 1 second, and vital capacity can be measured directly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Regarding adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) one of these is true.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Is increased in the maternal plasma in pregnancy
Explanation:ACTH production is stimulated through the secretion of corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) from the hypothalamic nuclei.
ACTH secretion has a circadian rhythm. A high level of cortisol in the body stops its production. ACTH is secreted maximally in the morning and concentrations are lowest at midnight.
ACTH can be expressed in the placenta, the pituitary and other tissues.
Conditions where ACTH concentrations rise include: stress, disease and pregnancy.
Glucocorticoids (not mineralocorticoids – aldosterone) switch off ACTH production through a negative feedback loop .
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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