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  • Question 1 - Which of the following molecules is closely related to the structure of Oxytocin?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following molecules is closely related to the structure of Oxytocin?

      Your Answer: ACTH

      Correct Answer: ADH

      Explanation:

      Oxytocin is structurally similar to Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH) and thus oxytocin can cause water intoxication (due to an ADH like action)

      Oxytocin is secreted by the posterior pituitary along with ADH. It increases uterine contractions – the contraction of the upper segment (fundus and body) of the uterus whereas the lower segment is relaxed facilitating the expulsion of the foetus

      Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) also called vasopressin is released from the posterior pituitary in response to hypertonicity and increases fluid reabsorption from the kidney.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      37.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - For a rapid sequence induction of anaesthesia, you are pre-oxygenating a patient using...

    Incorrect

    • For a rapid sequence induction of anaesthesia, you are pre-oxygenating a patient using 100% oxygen and a fresh gas flow equal to the patient's minute ventilation.

      Which would be the most suitable choice of anaesthetic breathing system in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mapleson A system

      Explanation:

      The Mapleson A (Magill) and coaxial version of the Mapleson A system (Lack circuit) are more efficient for spontaneous breathing than any of the other Mapleson circuits. The fresh gas flow (FGF) required to prevent rebreathing is slightly greater than the alveolar minute ventilation (4-5 litres/minute). This is delivered to the patient through the outer coaxial tube and exhaust gases are moved to the scavenging system through the inner tube. In the Lack circuit, the expiratory valve is located close to the common gas outlet away from the patient end. This is the main advantage of the Lack circuit over the Mapleson A circuit.

      The Mapleson E circuit is a modification of the Ayres T piece and the FGF required to prevent rebreathing is 1.5-2 times the patient’s minute volume.

      The Bain circuit is the coaxial version of the Mapleson D circuit.

      The FGF for spontaneous respiration to avoid rebreathing is 160-200 ml/kg/minute.

      The FGF for controlled ventilation to avoid rebreathing is 70-100 ml/kg/min.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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  • Question 3 - Which of the following would most likely explain a failed post-operative analgesia via...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following would most likely explain a failed post-operative analgesia via local anaesthesia of a neck abscess?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: pKA

      Explanation:

      For the local anaesthetic base to be stable in solution, it is formulated as a hydrochloride salt. As such, the molecules exist in a quaternary, water-soluble state at the time of injection. However, this form will not penetrate the neuron. The time for onset of local anaesthesia is therefore predicated on the proportion of molecules that convert to the tertiary, lipid-soluble structure when exposed to physiologic pH (7.4).

      The ionization constant (pKa) for the anaesthetic predicts the proportion of molecules that exists in each of these states. By definition, the pKa of a molecule represents the pH at which 50% of the molecules exist in the lipid-soluble tertiary form and 50% in the quaternary, water-soluble form. The pKa of all local anaesthetics is >7.4 (physiologic pH), and therefore a greater proportion the molecules exists in the quaternary, water-soluble form when injected into tissue having normal pH of 7.4.

      Furthermore, the acidic environment associated with inflamed tissues favours the quaternary, water-soluble configuration even further. Presumably, this accounts for difficulty when attempting to anesthetize inflamed or infected tissues; fewer molecules exist as tertiary lipid-soluble forms that can penetrate nerves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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  • Question 4 - Which of the following vertebral levels is the site where the aorta perforates...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following vertebral levels is the site where the aorta perforates the diaphragm?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: T12

      Explanation:

      The diaphragm divides the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity. Structures penetrate the diaphragm at different vertebral levels through openings in the diaphragm to communicate between the two cavities. The diaphragm has openings at three vertebral levels:

      T8: vena cava, terminal branches of the right phrenic nerve
      T10: oesophagus, vagal trunks, left anterior phrenic vessels, oesophageal branches of the left gastric vessels
      T12: descending aorta, thoracic duct, azygous and hemi-azygous vein

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
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  • Question 5 - A 25 year-old female came to the out-patient department with complaints of vaginal...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year-old female came to the out-patient department with complaints of vaginal discharge with a distinct fishy odour. She was later diagnosed with bacterial vaginosis and was prescribed to take metronidazole.

      The mechanism of action of metronidazole is?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Interferes with bacterial DNA synthesis

      Explanation:

      Metronidazole is a nitroimidazole antiprotozoal drug that is selectively absorbed by anaerobic bacteria and sensitive protozoa. Once taken up be anaerobes, it is nonenzymatically reduced by reacting with reduced ferredoxin. This reduction results in products that accumulate in and are toxic to anaerobic cells. The metabolites of metronidazole are taken up into bacterial DNA, forming unstable molecules. This action occurs only when metronidazole is partially reduced, and, because this reduction usually happens only in anaerobic cells, it has relatively little effect on human cells or aerobic bacteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 6 - A 70-year-old man collapsed at home. He was brought into the emergency department...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man collapsed at home. He was brought into the emergency department in an ambulance. His wife tells you that he complained of sudden lower back pain just before he collapsed.

      He is pale and hypotensive. You suspect a ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm.
      What vertebral level does this affected vessel terminate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: L4

      Explanation:

      The abdominal aorta begins at the level of the body of T12 near the midline, as a continuation of the thoracic aorta. It descends and bifurcates at the level of L4 into the common iliac arteries.

      An abdominal aortic aneurysm is a swelling in the abdominal aorta. It most commonly occurs in men over 65 years old of age. Smoking, diabetes, hypertension, and hypercholesterolemia are other risk factors contributing to the disease.

      The NHS screening program for abdominal aortic aneurysms involves an ultrasound test for men aged 65 or over if they have not undergone screening for a one-off screening test.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 7 - Following an acute appendicectomy, a 6-year-old child is admitted to the recovery unit.

    Your...

    Incorrect

    • Following an acute appendicectomy, a 6-year-old child is admitted to the recovery unit.

      Your consultant has requested that you prescribe maintenance fluids for the next 12 hours. The child is 21 kg in weight.

      What is the most suitable fluid volume to be prescribed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 732 ml

      Explanation:

      After a paediatric case, you’ll frequently have to calculate and prescribe maintenance fluids. The ‘4-2-1 rule’ should be used as a guideline:

      1st 10 kg – 4 ml/kg/hr
      2nd 10 kg – 2 ml/kg/hr
      Subsequent kg – 1 ml/kg/hr

      Hence

      1st 10 kg = 4 × 10 = 40 ml
      2nd 10 kg = 2 × 10 = 20 ml
      Subsequent kg = 1 × 1 = 1 ml
      Total = 61 ml/hr

      61 × 12 = 732 ml over 12 hrs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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  • Question 8 - Which of the following statement is true regarding hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction (HPV)? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statement is true regarding hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction (HPV)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 20 parts per million (ppm) of nitric oxide will reduce hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction

      Explanation:

      Hypoxic Pulmonary vasoconstriction (HPV) reflects the constriction of small pulmonary arteries in response to hypoxic alveoli (.i.e.; PO2 below 80-100mmHg or 11-13kPa).

      These blood vessels become independent of the nerve stimulus, when blood with a high PO2 flows through the lung which contains a low alveolar PO2.

      Thus a low PO2 within the alveoli has been shown to impact on hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction (HPV) more than a low PO2 within the blood.

      HPV results in the blood flow being directed away from poorly ventilated areas of the lung and helps to reduce the ventilation/perfusion mismatch (not increase).

      In animals, volatile anaesthetic agents can diminish HPV, while in adults, the evidence proves less persuading, in spite of the fact that it certainly doesn’t strengthen the effects.

      HPV response will be suppressed by 20 parts per million (ppm) of nitric oxide.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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  • Question 9 - Which of the following drugs is an enzyme inducer? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following drugs is an enzyme inducer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rifampicin

      Explanation:

      Rifampicin is a potent inducer of liver cytochrome enzymes. Other enzyme inducers are:
      Carbamazepine
      Sodium valproate
      Phenytoin
      Phenobarbitone

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 10 - Which statement best describes the bispectral index (BIS)? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement best describes the bispectral index (BIS)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It decreases during normal sleep

      Explanation:

      The bispectral index (BIS) is one of several systems used in anaesthesiology as of 2003 to measure the effects of specific anaesthetic drugs on the brain and to track changes in the patient’s level of sedation or hypnosis. It is a complex mathematical algorithm that allows a computer inside an anaesthesia monitor to analyse data from a patient’s electroencephalogram (EEG) during surgery. It is a dimensionless number (0-100) that is a summative measurement of time domain, frequency domain and high order spectral parameters derived from electroencephalogram (EEG) signals.

      Sleep and anaesthesia have similar behavioural characteristics but are physiologically different but BIS monitors can be used to measure sleep depth. With increasing sleep depth during slow-wave sleep, BIS levels decrease. This correlates with changes in regional cerebral blood flow when measured using positron emission tomography (PET).

      BIS shows a dose-response relationship with the intravenous and volatile anaesthetic agents. Opioids produce a clinical change in the depth of sedation or analgesia but fail to produce significant changes in the BIS. Ketamine increases CMRO2 and EEG activity.

      BIS is unable to predict movement in response to a surgical stimulus. Some of these are spinal reflexes and not perceived by the cerebral cortex.

      BIS is used during cardiopulmonary bypass to measure depth of anaesthesia and an index of cerebral perfusion. However, it cannot predict subtle or significant cerebral damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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  • Question 11 - When administered as an infusion, which of the following medicines causes a reflex...

    Incorrect

    • When administered as an infusion, which of the following medicines causes a reflex tachycardia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phentolamine

      Explanation:

      The ?-2 adrenoceptor has three subtypes (2a, 2b and 2c). The receptors are generally presynaptic, meaning they prevent noradrenaline from being released at nerve endings. Both the central and peripheral nerve systems are affected by the ?-2 agonists. ?-2 agonists cause drowsiness, analgesia, and euphoria centrally in the locus coeruleus (in the brainstem), lower the MAC of volatile anaesthetic drugs, and are used to treat acute withdrawal symptoms in chronic opioid addicts.

      The most common impact of ?-2 agonists on heart rate is bradycardia. The adrenoreceptors ?-1 and ?-2 are blocked by phenoxybenzamine.

      Clonidine is a selective agonist for the ? -2 receptor, having a 200:1 affinity ratio for the ?-2: ?-1 receptors, respectively.

      Tizanidine is similar to clonidine but has a few key variances. It has the same sedative, anxiolytic, and analgesic characteristics as clonidine, although for a shorter period of time and with less effect on heart rate and blood pressure.

      Dexmedetomidine, like clonidine, is a highly selective ?-2 adrenoreceptor agonist having a higher affinity for the ?-2 receptor. In the case of ?-2: ?-1 receptors, the affinity ratio is 1620:1. It has a biphasic blood pressure impact and induces a brief rise in blood pressure and reflex bradycardia (activation of ?-2b subtypes of receptors in vascular smooth muscles), followed by a reduction in sympathetic outflow from the brainstem and hypotension/bradycardia.

      A prodrug is methyldopa. It blocks the enzyme dopa-decarboxylase, which converts L-dopa to dopamine (a precursor of noradrenaline and adrenaline). It is also converted to alpha-methyl noradrenaline, a centrally active agonist of the ?-2 adrenoreceptor. These two processes contribute to its blood pressure-lowering effect. Without a rise in heart rate, cardiac output is generally maintained. The heart rate of certain patients is slowed.

      Phentolamine is a short-acting antagonist of peripheral ?-1 and ?-2 receptors that causes peripheral vascular resistance to reduce and vasodilation to increase. It’s used to treat hypertensive situations that aren’t life threatening (e.g. hypertension from phaeochromocytoma).

      A baroreceptor reflex commonly causes reflex tachycardia when systemic vascular resistance drops.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 12 - A sevoflurane vaporiser with a 2 percent setting and a 200 kPa ambient...

    Incorrect

    • A sevoflurane vaporiser with a 2 percent setting and a 200 kPa ambient pressure is used.

      At this pressure, which of the following options best represents vaporiser output?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The output is 1% because the saturated pressure of sevoflurane is unaffected by ambient pressure

      Explanation:

      Ambient pressure has no effect on a volatile agent’s saturated vapour pressure (SVP). At a temperature of 20°C, the SVP of sevoflurane is approximately 21 kPa, or 21% of atmospheric pressure (100 kPa).

      The SVP of sevoflurane remains the same when the ambient pressure is doubled to 200 kPa, but the output of the vaporiser is halved, now 21 percent of 200 kPa, equalling 10.5 percent. The vaporiser’s output has increased to 1%, but the partial pressure output has remained unchanged. The splitting ratio will not change because it is determined by temperature changes.

      Calculations can be made as follows:

      Vaporizer output % (ambient pressure) = % volatile (calibrated) x 100 kPa calibrated pressure/ambient pressure
      2% = 2% (dialled) × 100/100
      2% of 100 = 2 kPa

      Altitude, pressure 50 kPa
      4% = 2% (dialled) × 100/50
      4% of 50 = 2 kPa

      High pressure at 200 kPa
      1% = 2% (dialled) × 100/200
      1% of 200 = 2 kPa

      Sevoflurane has a boiling point of 58°C and, unlike desflurane (which has a boiling point of 22.8°C), does not need to be heated and pressurised with a Tec 6 vaporiser.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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  • Question 13 - A 71-year-old woman will undergo surgery for a fractured femur neck.

    1 mg midazolam...

    Incorrect

    • A 71-year-old woman will undergo surgery for a fractured femur neck.

      1 mg midazolam is used to induce anaesthesia, followed by 75 mg propofol.

      Which of the following options best describes how these two drugs interact pharmacologically?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Synergism

      Explanation:

      Drug interactions can be seen in the following examples:

      Additive interaction (summation).

      Additive effects are described for intravenous drug combinations such as ketamine and thiopentone or ketamine and midazolam. Different mechanisms of action are used by them. Thiopentone and midazolam are GABAA receptor agonists, whereas ketamine is an NMDA receptor antagonist. Nitrous oxide and halothane are two other examples.

      Synergism is a supra-additive interaction.

      Refers to the administration of two drugs with similar pharmacological properties and closely related sites of action, resulting in a combined effect that is greater than the sum of the contributions of each component. The construction of an isobologram can be used to interpret and understand these. The best example is the hypnotic effect of benzodiazepines and intravenous induction agents like propofol. As part of a co-induction technique, midazolam is frequently given before propofol.

      Potentiation

      In a dose-dependent manner, volatile agents enhance the effects of neuromuscular blocking agents. Electrolyte disturbance (hypomagnesaemia), Penicillin, and probenecid can all increase the effects of neuromuscular blocking agents (the latter has no similar pharmacological activity).

      Infra-additive interaction (antagonism).

      This can be subdivided into the following categories:

      -Pharmacokinetic interference occurs when one drug affects the absorption of another through the gastrointestinal tract or when hepatic microsomal enzyme induction influences metabolism.
      -Heparin and protamine, for example, or heavy metals and chelating agents, are examples of chemical antagonists.
      -Competitive reversible antagonistic antagonism of receptors, such as opioids and naloxone, and irreversible antagonistic antagonism of receptors

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 14 - A 64-year old lady has been diagnosed with hypertension. Her GP explains how...

    Incorrect

    • A 64-year old lady has been diagnosed with hypertension. Her GP explains how this occurs, and that blood pressure is determined by multiple factors which include action by the heart, nervous system and the diameter of the blood vessels. This lady's cardiac output (CO) is 4L/min. Her exam today revealed a mean arterial pressure (MAP) of 140 mmHg.
      Using these values, her systemic vascular resistance (SVR) is which of these?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 35mmHg⋅min⋅mL-1

      Explanation:

      Impaired ventricular relaxation reduces diastolic filling and therefore preload.

      Decreased blood volume decreases preload due to reduced venous return.

      Heart failure is characterized by reduced ejection fraction and therefore stroke volume.

      Cardiac output = stroke volume x heart rate

      Left ventricular ejection fraction = (stroke volume / end diastolic LV volume ) x 100%

      Stroke volume = end diastolic LV volume – end systolic LV volume

      Pulse pressure (is increased by stroke volume) = Systolic Pressure – Diastolic Pressure

      Systemic vascular resistance = mean arterial pressure / cardiac output
      Factors that increase pulse pressure include:
      -a less compliant aorta (this tends to occur with advancing age)
      -increased stroke volume
      Aortic stenosis would decrease stroke volume as end systolic volume would increase.
      This is because of an increase in afterload, an increase in resistance that the heart must pump against due to a hard stenotic valve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
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  • Question 15 - Which statement is the most accurate when describing electrical equipment and shock? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement is the most accurate when describing electrical equipment and shock?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Type CF is considered to safe for direct connection with the heart

      Explanation:

      There are different classes of electrical equipment that can be classified in the table below:

      Class 1 – provides basic protection only. It must be connected to earth and insulated from the mains supply

      Class II – provides double insulation for all equipment. It does not require an earth.

      Class III – uses safety extra low voltage (SELV) which does not exceed 24 V AC. There is no risk of gross electrocution but risk of microshock exists.

      Type B – All of above with low leakage currents (0.5mA for Class IB, 0.1 mA for Class IIB)

      Type BF – Same as with other equipment but has ‘floating circuit’ which means that the equipment applied to patient is isolated from all its other parts.

      Type CF – Class I or II equipment with ‘floating circuits’ that is considered to be safe for direct connection with the heart. There are extremely low leakage currents (0.05mA for Class I CF and 0.01mA for Class II CF)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 16 - When compared to unipolar diathermy, which of the following is more specific to...

    Incorrect

    • When compared to unipolar diathermy, which of the following is more specific to bipolar diathermy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Has a power output of up to 140 joules per second

      Explanation:

      Electrocautery, also known as diathermy, is a technique for coagulation, tissue cutting, and fulguration that uses a high-frequency current to generate heat (cell destruction from dehydration).

      The two electrodes in bipolar diathermy are the tips of forceps, and current passes between the tips rather than through the patient. Bipolar diathermy’s power output (40-140 W) is lower than unipolar diathermy’s typical output (400 W). There is no earthing in the bipolar circuit.

      A cutting electrode and a indifferent electrode in the form of a metal plate are used in unipolar diathermy. The high-frequency current completes a circuit by passing through the patient from the active electrode to the metal plate. When used correctly, the current density at the indifferent electrode is low, and the patient is unlikely to be burned. Between the patient plate and the earth is placed an isolating capacitor. This has a low impedance to a high frequency current, such as diathermy current, and is used in modern diathermy machines. The capacitor has a high impedance to current at 50 Hz, which protects the patient from electrical shock.

      High frequency currents (500 KHz – 1 MHz) are used in both unipolar and bipolar diathermy, which can cause tissue damage and interfere with pacemaker function (less so with bipolar diathermy).

      The effect of diathermy is determined by the current density and waveform employed. The current is a pulsed square wave pattern in coagulation mode and a continuous square wave pattern in cutting mode.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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  • Question 17 - The cardiac tissue type that that has the highest conduction velocity is: ...

    Incorrect

    • The cardiac tissue type that that has the highest conduction velocity is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Purkinje fibres

      Explanation:

      Potassium maintains the resting potential of cardiac myocytes, with depolarization triggered by a rapid influx of sodium ions, and repolarization due to efflux of potassium. A slow influx of calcium is responsible for the longer duration of a cardiac action potential compared with skeletal muscle.

      The cardiac action potential has several phases which have different mechanisms of action as seen below:

      Phase 0: Rapid depolarisation – caused by a rapid sodium influx.
      These channels automatically deactivate after a few ms.

      Phase 1: caused by early repolarisation and an efflux of potassium.

      Phase 2: Plateau – caused by a slow influx of calcium.

      Phase 3 – Final repolarisation – caused by an efflux of potassium.

      Phase 4 – Restoration of ionic concentrations – The resting potential is restored by Na+/K+ATPase.
      There is slow entry of Na+into the cell which decreases the potential difference until the threshold potential is reached. This then triggers a new action potential

      Of note, cardiac muscle remains contracted 10-15 times longer than skeletal muscle.

      Different sites have different conduction velocities:
      1. Atrial conduction – Spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibres at 1 m/sec

      2. AV node conduction – 0.05 m/sec

      3. Ventricular conduction – Purkinje fibres are of large diameter and achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec, the fastest conduction in the heart. This allows a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
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  • Question 18 - What separates the tunica media from the tunica adventitia in a blood vessel?...

    Incorrect

    • What separates the tunica media from the tunica adventitia in a blood vessel?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: External elastic lamina

      Explanation:

      Blood vessels (except capillaries and venules) have three distinctive layers (innermost to outermost):
      1. Tunica intima
      2. Tunica media
      3. Tunica adventitia

      The tunica media contains smooth muscle cells and is separated from the intima layer by the internal elastic lamina and the adventitia by the external elastic lamina.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 19 - The population incidence of a disease is best described by? ...

    Incorrect

    • The population incidence of a disease is best described by?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The number of new cases of a disease per population in a defined period

      Explanation:

      The incidence of a disease is the number of new cases of the disease in a population over a defined time period.

      The prevalence of a disease is the number of cases of the disease in a population over a defined time period describes. It is NOT the number of new cases.

      The number of new cases of a disease only, has no denominator (time period or population) from which to derive an incidence.

      The number of new cases of a disease seeking medical treatment is the incidence of patients seeking medical treatment NOT the incidence of the disease in a population.

      The death rate from a disease is the number of patients dying from the disease in a population.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
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  • Question 20 - Which of the following best describes why phenytoin's hepatic extraction ratio is low? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following best describes why phenytoin's hepatic extraction ratio is low?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It has a clearance that is insensitive to changes in liver blood flow

      Explanation:

      The following are the pharmacokinetic properties of drugs with a low hepatic extraction ratio:

      Changes in liver blood flow have no effect on drug clearance.
      When given orally, drug clearance is extremely sensitive to changes in protein binding, intrinsic metabolism, and excretion, and there is no first-pass metabolism.

      Warfarin and phenytoin are two drugs with low hepatic extraction ratios.

      The following are the pharmacokinetic properties of drugs with a high hepatic extraction ratio:

      When taken orally, undergo extensive first-pass metabolism; drug clearance is dependent on liver blood flow, and drug clearance is less sensitive to changes in protein binding and intrinsic metabolism.

      Morphine, lidocaine, propranolol, and etomidate are examples of drugs with high hepatic extraction ratios.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 21 - Which of the following explains the mode of action of Magnesium sulphate in...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following explains the mode of action of Magnesium sulphate in preventing eclampsia in susceptible patients?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dilatation of cerebral circulation due to calcium channel antagonism reducing cerebral vascular spasm

      Explanation:

      Magnesium is a unique calcium antagonist as it can act on most types of calcium channels in vascular smooth muscle and as such would be expected to decrease intracellular calcium. One major effect of decreased intracellular calcium would be inactivation of calmodulin-dependent myosin light chain kinase activity and decreased contraction, causing arterial relaxation that may subsequently lower peripheral and cerebral vascular resistance, relieve vasospasm, and decrease arterial blood pressure.

      The vasodilatory effect of MgSO4 has been investigated in a wide variety of vessels. For example, both in vivo and in vitro animal studies have shown that it is a vasodilator of large conduit arteries such as the aorta, as well as smaller resistance vessels including mesenteric, skeletal muscle, uterine, and cerebral arteries.

      The theory of cerebrovascular vasospasm as the aetiology of eclampsia seemed to be reinforced by transcranial Doppler (TCD) studies which suggested that MgSO4 treatment caused dilation in the cerebral circulation as well as in animal studies that used large cerebral arteries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 22 - A new volatile anaesthetic agent has been approved for use in clinical testing.

    It's...

    Incorrect

    • A new volatile anaesthetic agent has been approved for use in clinical testing.

      It's a non-irritating, sweet-smelling substance. It has a molecular weight of 170, a 0.6 blood:gas partition coefficient, and a 180 oil:gas partition coefficient. An oxidative pathway converts 2% of the substance to trifluoroacetic acid.

      Which of the following statements best describes this agent's pharmacological profile?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It has a lower molecular weight than isoflurane

      Explanation:

      Because enflurane is much less soluble in blood and has a blood: gas partition coefficient of 1.8, both wash-in and wash-out should be faster.

      Sevoflurane’s sweet-smelling, non-irritant nature, combined with a low blood: gas partition coefficient, would result in similar offset and onset characteristics.

      Isoflurane and enflurane have a molecular weight of 184.

      The oil: gas partition coefficient on a volatile agent is a measure of lipid solubility, potency, and thus MAC. Halothane has an oil: gas partition coefficient of 220 and a MAC of 0.74. One would expect the MAC to be higher with an oil gas partition coefficient of 180 (less lipid soluble).

      The conversion of halothane (20%) to trifluoroacetic acid via oxidative metabolism has been linked to the development of hepatitis.

      P450 2E1 converts sevoflurane to hexafluoroisopropanol, which results in the release of inorganic fluoride ions. It’s the only fluorinated volatile anaesthetic that doesn’t break down into trifluoracetic acid.

      Desflurane is likely to cause airway irritation, which can lead to coughing, apnoea, and laryngospasm, despite its low blood:gas partition coefficient (0.42).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 23 - The muscle that lies behind the first part of the axillary nerve is?...

    Incorrect

    • The muscle that lies behind the first part of the axillary nerve is?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Subscapularis

      Explanation:

      The axillary nerve lies behind the axillary artery initially, and in front of the subscapularis. It passes downward to the lower border of the subscapularis muscle.

      In company with the posterior humeral circumflex artery and vein, it winds backward through a quadrilateral space bounded above by the subscapularis (anterior) and teres minor (posterior), below by the teres major, medially by the long head of the triceps brachii, and laterally by the humerus (surgical neck).

      It then divides into an anterior and a posterior part. The anterior division supplies the deltoid (anterior and middle heads) while the posterior division supplies the teres minor and posterior part of deltoid
      The posterior division terminates as the superior lateral cutaneous nerve of the arm

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 24 - The following foetal anatomical features functionally closes earliest at birth? ...

    Incorrect

    • The following foetal anatomical features functionally closes earliest at birth?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Foramen ovale

      Explanation:

      Foramen ovale, ductus arteriosus (DA) and ductus venosus (DV) are the three important cardiac shunts in-utero.

      At birth the umbilical vessels constrict in response to stretch as they are clamped. Blood flow through the ductus venosus (DV) decreases but the DV closes passively in 3-10 days.

      As the pulmonary circulation is established, there is a drastic fall in pulmonary vascular resistance and an increased pulmonary blood flow. This increases flow and pressure in the Left Atrium that exceeds that of the right atrium. The difference in pressure usually leads to the IMMEDIATE closure of the foramen ovale.

      The DA is functionally closed within the first 36-hours of birth in a healthy full-term newborn. Subsequent endothelial and fibroblast proliferation leads to permanent anatomical closure within 2 – 3 weeks.

      Oxygenated blood from the placenta passes via the umbilical vein to the liver. Blood also bypasses the liver via the ductus venosus into the inferior vena cava (IVC). The Crista dividens is a tissue flap situated at the junction of the IVC and the right atrium (RA). This flap directs the oxygen-rich blood, along the posterior aspect of the IVC, through the foramen ovale into the left atrium (LA).

      The Eustachian valve also known as the valve of The IVC is a remnant of the crista dividens.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 25 - The tip of a pulmonary artery flotation catheter becomes wedged when threaded through...

    Incorrect

    • The tip of a pulmonary artery flotation catheter becomes wedged when threaded through the chambers of the heart and the pulmonary artery.

      Which of the following options best describes the sequence of pressures measured at the catheter's tip during its passage through a normal patient's pulmonary artery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0-12 mmHg, 2-25 mmHg, 12-25 mmHg and 8-12 mmHg

      Explanation:

      The tricuspid valve allows the tip of a pulmonary artery catheter to pass through the right atrium and into the right ventricle.

      The balloon will be inflated before crossing the pulmonary valve and entering the pulmonary artery, where it will eventually wedge or occlude the artery, providing an indirect measure of left atrial pressure.

      0-12 mmHg in the right atrium
      2-25 mmHg in the right ventricle
      12-25 mmHg in the pulmonary artery
      8-12 mmHg is the occlusion pressure

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
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  • Question 26 - The following is normally higher in concentration extracellularly than intracellularly ...

    Incorrect

    • The following is normally higher in concentration extracellularly than intracellularly

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sodium

      Explanation:

      The ions found in higher concentrations intracellularly than outside the cells are:

      ATP
      AMP
      Potassium
      Phosphate, and
      Magnesium Adenosine diphosphate (ADP)

      Sodium is a primarily extracellular ion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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  • Question 27 - A surgeon infiltrates the tissue layers with local anaesthetic (bupivacaine 0.125%) with 1...

    Incorrect

    • A surgeon infiltrates the tissue layers with local anaesthetic (bupivacaine 0.125%) with 1 in 120,000 adrenaline in a patient weighing 50 kg as part of an enhanced recovery programme for primary hip replacement surgery.

      What is the maximum volume of local anaesthetic that is permissible in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 100 mL

      Explanation:

      The maximum safe amount of bupivacaine is 2mg/kg. Addition of adrenaline slows down absorption of the local anaesthetic and allows a maximum dose of 2.5mg/kg to be used.

      The maximum safe dose of bupivacaine for this patient is 125 mg.

      A 0.125% solution will contain 0.125g/100mL or 125mg/100 mL.

      The maximum volume of local anaesthetic is approximately 80-100 mL.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 28 - Which one of the following pharmacokinetic models is most suitable for target-controlled infusion...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following pharmacokinetic models is most suitable for target-controlled infusion (TCI) of propofol in paediatric patients?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Kataria

      Explanation:

      Marsh (adult) model, when used with children caused over-estimation of plasma concentration. To address this issue Kataria et al developed a three-compartmental model for propofol in children. The pharmacokinetic models used by Target controlled infusion (TCI) systems are used to calculate the relative sizes of the central (vascular), vessel-rich peripheral, and vessel-poor peripheral compartments. The relative volumes of these compartments are different in young children when compared to adults.

      Kataria, therefore, is the correct option as described above.

      The Maitre model is a three-compartmental model for alfentanil TCI.

      The Marsh model describes a propofol TCI model for adults

      The Minto model applies to TCI remifentanil.

      The Schnider model is also an adult model for propofol that incorporates age and lean body mass as covariates.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 29 - Among the following options which one compares variance within the group and variance...

    Incorrect

    • Among the following options which one compares variance within the group and variance between groups?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: ANOVA

      Explanation:

      ANOVA is based upon within group variance (i.e. the variance of the mean of a sample) and between group variance (i.e. the variance between means of different samples). The test works by finding out the ratio of the two variances mentioned above. (Commonly known as F statistic).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
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  • Question 30 - A 20-year-old boy is undergoing surgery for indirect inguinal hernia repair. The deep...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old boy is undergoing surgery for indirect inguinal hernia repair. The deep inguinal ring is exposed and held with a retractor at its medial aspect during the procedure.

      What structure is most likely to lie under the retractor on the medial side?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inferior epigastric artery

      Explanation:

      The deep inguinal ring is the entrance of the inguinal canal. It is an opening in the transversalis fascia around 1 cm above the inguinal ligament. Therefore, the superolateral wall is made by the transervalis fascia.

      The inferior epigastric vessels run medially to the deep inguinal ring forming its inferomedial border.

      The inguinal canal extends obliquely from the deep inguinal ring to the superficial inguinal ring.
      An indirect inguinal hernia arises through the deep inguinal ring lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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