The above mentioned patient presentation is one of an acute coronary syndrome.

The elevations noted in the ST-segments of multiple heart leads on ECG is diagnostic of an ST-elevation myocardial infarction.

The pulmonary artery branches to give rise to the right and left pulmonary arteries, which supply deoxygenated blood to the right and left lungs from the right ventricle.

The pulmonary veins do not form any bifurcations, and therefore do not give rise to any vessels. They travel to the left atrium from the lungs, carrying oxygenated blood.

The descending aorta continues from the aortic arch, and bifurcates to give off many branches, including the right and left common iliac arteries.

The coronary sinus is formed from the combination of four coronary veins, receiving blood supply from the great, middle, small and posterior cardiac veins, and transporting this venous blood into the right atrium.

The right and left aortic sinus give rise to the right and left coronary arteries, respectively. They branch of the ascending aorta, in the area just superior to the aortic valve.

The positive predictive value is the ratio of patients truly diagnosed as positive to all those who had positive test results. In this case, this is 60/(60+20)=75%.

The negative predictive value is the ratio of patients truly diagnosed as negative to all those who had negative test results. In this case, this is 80/(80+40)=67%.

The sensitivity is the ratio of patients with the disease who test positive i.e. true positive patients to the total number of people with the disease. In this case, this is 60/(60+40)=60%.

The specificity is the ratio of people who don’t have the disease who test negative i.e. true negatives to the total number of people without the disease. In this case, this is 80/(20+80)=80%.

70% is not the result of any screening measurements

Sevoflurane is highly fluorinated methyl isopropyl ether widely used as an inhalational anaesthetic. It is suggested that sevoflurane preconditioning occurs via the opening of mitochondrial Potassium ATP dependent channel similar to that of Ischemic Preconditioning protection.

Correctly used, antibiotic prophylaxis can reduce
the total use of antibiotics.
There is strong scientific support that antibiotic
prophylaxis reduces the development of infection after:

• Operations and endoscopic procedures in the large intestine,
  the rectum, and the stomach (including appendectomies and
  penetrating abdominal trauma), and after percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG)
• Cardiovascular surgery, and insertion of pacemakers
• Breast cancer surgery
• Hysterectomy
• Reduction of simple fractures and prosthetic limb surgery
• Complicated surgery for cancer in the ear, nose, and throat
  regions
• Transrectal biopsy and resection of the prostate (febrile urinary
  tract infection and blood poisoning).

In most cases the scientific evidence is inadequate to determine
which type of antibiotic is most effective for antibiotic prophylaxis.

The correct answer is the mean, median and mode of normally distributed data are the same value. This is as a result of the bell shaped curve which is equal on both sides.

The bell-shape indicates that values around the mean are more frequent in occurrence than the values farther away.

In a normal distribution:
1) +/- one standard deviation of the mean accounts for 68% of the data.
2) +/- two standard deviations of the mean accounts for 95% of the data.
3) +/- three standard deviations of the mean accounts for 99.7% of the data.

PaCO2 is one of the most important factors that regulate cerebral vascular tone. CO2 induces cerebral vasodilatation and as a result, it increases CBF. Between 20 mmHg (2.7 kPa) and 80 mmHg (10.7 kPa), there is a linear increase of PaCO2.

Sometimes, there are areas where auto regulation has failed locally but not globally. Similarly, local vs. systemic acidosis will have similar effects. When the PaO2 falls below 50 mmHg (6.5 kPa), the CBF progressively increases.

An increase in the cerebral metabolic rate for oxygen (CMRO2) and therefore CBF can be caused by hyperthermia.
A late feature of cerebral injury is hyperthermia secondary to hypothalamic injury. Therefore this is not the most likely cause of an increased CBF in this scenario.

Dystonia is characterised by repetitive twisting movements or abnormal postures. They are classified as either primary or secondary.

Primary dystonia is a genetic disorder that is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern.
Secondary dystonia can be caused by focal brain lesions, Parkinson’s disease, or certain medications.

The following drugs cause the most common drug-induced dystonic reactions:
Antipsychotics, antiemetics (especially prochlorperazine and metoclopramide), and antidepressants.

Following the administration of the neuroleptic prochlorperazine, 16 percent of patients experience restlessness (akathisia) and 4% experience dystonia.

Several published reports have linked the anaesthetics thiopentone, fentanyl, and propofol to opisthotonos and other abnormal neurologic sequelae. Dystonias following a general anaesthetic are uncommon. Tramadol has been linked to serotonin syndrome, while remifentanil has been linked to muscle rigidity.

The following are some of the risk factors:

Positive family history
Male
Children
An episode of acute dystonia occurred previously.
Dopamine receptor (D2) antagonists at high doses and recent cocaine use

Dystonia is treated in a variety of ways, including:

Benztropine (as a first-line therapy):

1-2 mg intravenous injection for adults
Child: 0.02 mg/kg to 1 mg maximum

Benzodiazepines are a type of benzodiazepine (second line treatment).

Midazolam:

1-2 mg intravenously, or 5-10 mg IV/PO diazepam

Antihistamines with anticholinergic activity (H1receptor antagonists):

Promethazine 25-50 mg IV/IM, or diphenhydramine 50 mg IV/IM (1 mg/kg in children) are used when benztropine is not available.

Tranylcypromine is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor that binds irreversibly to target enzyme.

Monoamine oxidase inhibitors are responsible for blocking the monoamine oxidase enzyme. The monoamine oxidase enzyme breaks down different types of neurotransmitters from the brain: norepinephrine, serotonin, dopamine, and tyramine. MAOIs inhibit the breakdown of these neurotransmitters thus, increasing their levels and allowing them to continue to influence the cells that have been affected by depression.

There are two types of monoamine oxidase, A and B. The MAO A is mostly distributed in the placenta, gut, and liver, but MAO B is present in the brain, liver, and platelets. Serotonin and noradrenaline are substrates of MAO A, but phenylethylamine, methylhistamine, and tryptamine are substrates of MAO B. Dopamine and tyramine are metabolized by both MAO A and B. Selegiline and rasagiline are irreversible and selective inhibitors of MAO type B, but safinamide is a reversible and selective MAO B inhibitor.

MAOIs prevent the breakdown of tyramine found in the body and certain foods, drinks, and other medications. Patients that take MAOIs and consume tyramine-containing foods or drinks will exhibit high serum tyramine level. A high level of tyramine can cause a sudden increase in blood pressure, called the tyramine pressor response. Even though it is rare, a high tyramine level can trigger a cerebral haemorrhage, which can even result in death.

Eating foods with high tyramine can trigger a reaction that can have serious consequences. Patients should know that tyramine can increase with the aging of food; they should be encouraged to have fresh foods instead of leftovers or food prepared hours earlier. Examples of high levels of tyramine in food are types of fish and types of meat, including sausage, turkey, liver, and salami. Also, certain fruits can contain tyramine, like overripe fruits, avocados, bananas, raisins, or figs. Further examples are cheeses, alcohol, and fava beans; all of these should be avoided even after two weeks of stopping MAOIs. Anyone taking MAOIs is at risk for an adverse hypertensive reaction, with accompanying morbidity. Patients taking reversible MAOIs have fewer dietary restrictions.

Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant, and citalopram and escitalopram are selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors.

Eye damage is the most common potential hazard associated with laser energy. Everyone in the laser treatment room has the risk of eye exposure when working with a Class 3b or Class 4 healthcare laser system, and damage to various structures in the eye depending on wavelength of the laser if they are unprotected.

Red and near-infrared light (400-1400 nm) has very high penetration power. The light causes painless burns on the retina after it is absorbed by melanin in the pigment epithelium just behind the photoreceptors.

Infrared radiation (IR), or infrared light (>1060 nm), is a type of radiant energy that’s invisible to human eyes and hence won’t elicit the protective blink.

Ultraviolet light (<400 nm) is also a form of electromagnetic radiation which is can penetrate the cornea and be absorbed by the iris or the pupil and cause burn injuries or cataract occur due to irreversible photochemical retinal damage. Safety eyewear is the best method of providing eye protection and are designed to absorb light specific to the laser being used. Laser protective eyewear (LPE) includes glasses or goggles of proper optical density (OD). The lenses should not be glass or plastic. The LPE should withstand direct and diffuse scattered laser beams. The laser protection supervisor (LPS) or LSO is an individual who is responsible for any clinical area in which lasers are used. They are expected to have a certain level of equipment and determine what control measures are appropriate, for each individual system, but their presence does not guarantee the chances of having an eye injury. Class 1 lasers are generally safe under every conceivable condition and is not likely to cause any eye damage. Class 3b or Class 4 medical laser systems are utilized in healthcare which have their own safety precautions. Polarized spectacles can make your eyes more comfortable by eliminated glare, however, they will not be able to offer any protection against wavelengths at which laser act.
Using short bursts to reduce energy is also not correct as it would still be harmful to eye.

The arterial blood gas analysis indicates presence of acute respiratory acidosis.

Central chemoreceptors are located in the ventral medulla and respond directly to presence of hydrogen ions in the CSF. When stimulated, it causes an increase in respiratory rate.

It is believed that hydrogen ions may be the only important direct stimulus for these neurons, however, CO2 is believed to stimulate these neurons secondarily by changing the hydrogen ion concentration.

Changes in O2 concentration have virtually no direct effect on the respiratory centre itself to alter respiratory drive. Although, O2 changes do have an indirect effect by acting through the peripheral chemoreceptors.

With respect to oxygen transport in cells, almost all oxygen is transported within erythrocytes. There is limited solubility and only 1% is carried as solution. Thus, the amount of oxygen transported depends upon haemoglobin concentration and its degree of saturation.

Haemoglobin is a globular protein composed of 4 subunits. Haem is made up of a protoporphyrin ring surrounding an iron atom in its ferrous state. The iron can form two additional bonds – one is with oxygen and the other with a polypeptide chain.
There are two alpha and two beta subunits to this polypeptide chain in an adult and together these form globin. Globin cannot bind oxygen but can bind to CO2 and hydrogen ions.
The beta chains are able to bind to 2,3 diphosphoglycerate. The oxygenation of haemoglobin is a reversible reaction. The molecular shape of haemoglobin is such that binding of one oxygen molecule facilitates the binding of subsequent molecules.

The oxygen dissociation curve (ODC) describes the relationship between the percentage of saturated haemoglobin and partial pressure of oxygen in the blood.
Of note, it is not affected by haemoglobin concentration.

Chronic anaemia causes 2, 3 DPG levels to increase, hence shifting the curve to the right

Haldane effect – Causes the ODC to shift to the left. For a given oxygen tension there is increased saturation of Hb with oxygen i.e. Decreased oxygen delivery to tissues.
This can be caused by:
-HbF, methaemoglobin, carboxyhaemoglobin
-low [H+] (alkali)
-low pCO2
-ow 2,3-DPG
-ow temperature

Bohr effect – causes the ODC to shifts to the right = for given oxygen tension there is reduced saturation of Hb with oxygen i.e. Enhanced oxygen delivery to tissues. This can be caused by:
– raised [H+] (acidic)
– raised pCO2
-raised 2,3-DPG
-raised temperature

Professor Mapleson classified non-rebreathing circuits based on the position of the APL valve, which controls fresh gas flow.

The Mapleson A (Magill) circuit is most effective in spontaneous breathing, requiring only 70-100 ml/kg (the patient’s minute volume) of fresh gas flow. The patient inhales fresh gas from the reservoir bag and tubing during inspiration. During expiration, the patient adds dead space gas (gas that hasn’t been exchanged) to the tubing and reservoir bag in addition to the fresh gas flow. At the patient’s end, alveolar gas is vented through the APL valve. During the expiratory pause, the fresh gas flow causes more gas to be released.

The Mapleson A is inefficient during controlled ventilation. Venting occurs during inspiration rather than during the expiratory phase, as it does during spontaneous ventilation. As a result, unless a high fresh gas flow of >20 L/minute is used, alveolar gas is rebreathed.

During spontaneous ventilation, the Mapleson D circuit is inefficient.

The oxygen concentration in a Hudson mask is insufficient to allow for adequate pre-oxygenation.

Myasthenic and cholinergic crises are two crises which are similar in their clinical presentation.

Myasthenic crisis can be caused by:
-lack of acetylcholine,
-poor compliance with medication,
-infection

Cholinergic crisis can be caused by excess cholinesterase inhibitor medication (mimicking organophosphate poisoning) causing excess acetylcholine.

Differentiation between the 2 crises is made by giving incremental doses of the short acting cholinesterase inhibitor, Edrophonium.
This increase acetylcholine levels and will make a myasthenic crisis better and a cholinergic crisis worse.

Normally, the oesophagus is lined by non-keratinized stratified squamous epithelium. This epithelium can undergo metaplasia and convert to the columnar epithelium (stomach’s lining) in long-standing GERD that leads to Barret’s oesophagus.

The liver receives blood supply from two sources.
1. Hepatic artery proper
It arises from the celiac trunk via the common hepatic artery and brings oxygenated blood to the liver.
It contributes to approximately 30% of the blood supply of the liver.
2. Hepatic portal vein – supplies the liver with partially deoxygenated blood, carrying nutrients absorbed from the small intestine. It gets tributaries from the inferior mesenteric vein, splenic vein, and superior mesenteric vein

The inferior mesenteric artery supplies the hindgut.
The superior mesenteric artery supplies the pancreas and intestine up to the proximal two-thirds of the transverse colon.
The inferior phrenic artery supplies the inferior surface of the diaphragm and oesophagus.

There are different classes of electrical equipment that can be classified in the table below:

Class 1 – provides basic protection only. It must be connected to earth and insulated from the mains supply

Class II – provides double insulation for all equipment. It does not require an earth.

Class III – uses safety extra low voltage (SELV) which does not exceed 24 V AC. There is no risk of gross electrocution but risk of microshock exists.

Type B – All of above with low leakage currents (0.5mA for Class IB, 0.1 mA for Class IIB)

Type BF – Same as with other equipment but has ‘floating circuit’ which means that the equipment applied to patient is isolated from all its other parts.

Type CF – Class I or II equipment with ‘floating circuits’ that is considered to be safe for direct connection with the heart. There are extremely low leakage currents (0.05mA for Class I CF and 0.01mA for Class II CF)

For the local anaesthetic base to be stable in solution, it is formulated as a hydrochloride salt. As such, the molecules exist in a quaternary, water-soluble state at the time of injection. However, this form will not penetrate the neuron. The time for onset of local anaesthesia is therefore predicated on the proportion of molecules that convert to the tertiary, lipid-soluble structure when exposed to physiologic pH (7.4).

The ionization constant (pKa) for the anaesthetic predicts the proportion of molecules that exists in each of these states. By definition, the pKa of a molecule represents the pH at which 50% of the molecules exist in the lipid-soluble tertiary form and 50% in the quaternary, water-soluble form. The pKa of all local anaesthetics is >7.4 (physiologic pH), and therefore a greater proportion the molecules exists in the quaternary, water-soluble form when injected into tissue having normal pH of 7.4.

Furthermore, the acidic environment associated with inflamed tissues favours the quaternary, water-soluble configuration even further. Presumably, this accounts for difficulty when attempting to anesthetize inflamed or infected tissues; fewer molecules exist as tertiary lipid-soluble forms that can penetrate nerves.

The adrenal (suprarenal) gland is composed of two main parts: the adrenal cortex, which is the largest and outer part of the gland, and the adrenal medulla. The adrenal cortex consists of three zones: 1. Zona glomerulosa (outermost layer) is responsible for the production of mineralocorticoids, mainly aldosterone, which regulates blood pressure and electrolyte balance. 2. Zona fasciculata (middle layer) is responsible for the production of glucocorticoids, predominantly cortisol, which increases blood sugar levels via gluconeogenesis, suppresses the immune system, and aids in metabolism. It also produces 11-deoxycorticosterone and corticosterone in addition to cortisol. 3. Zona reticularis (innermost layer) is responsible for the production of gonadocorticoids, mainly dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA), which serves as the starting material for many other important hormones produced by the adrenal gland, such as oestrogen, progesterone, testosterone, and cortisol. It is also responsible for administering these hormones to the reproductive regions of the body.

The adrenal medulla majorly secretes epinephrine (adrenaline), and norepinephrine in small quantity. Both hormones have similar functions and initiate the flight or fight response.

Catecholamine is mediated by cholinergic nicotinic transmission through changes in sympathetic nervous system (T5 – T11), being increased during stress and hypoglycaemia.

Blood supply to the adrenal gland is by these three arteries: superior suprarenal arteries, middle suprarenal artery and inferior suprarenal artery. Venous drainage is via the suprarenal vein to the left renal vein or directly to the inferior vena cava on the right side. There is no portal (venous) system between cortex and medulla.

This question is asking which structure would lie posterior to the rectus abdominis muscle and not the prosthetic mesh, as only peritoneum lies posterior to mesh during a total extraperitoneal (TEP) hernia repair.

The region of the repair lies below the arcuate line, meaning that the transversalis fascia and peritoneum lie posterior to the rectus abdominis.

The bucks fascia lies within the penis.

Selection bias is when randomisation is not achieved and is often a result of in efficient recruiting method.

Recall bias is specifically appropriate to the case control studies that is when ever the memories retrieved by the participants differ in accuracy.

Measurement bias can be characterized by gathering of information in a manner that is distorted.

When the participants of a research study are recruited from the hospitals rather than the general population, its called Berkson Bias.

Confounding bias is the major player here because in this case the effects of smoking can be masked behind and can be read as outcomes of lower socio economic status. This extraneous factor (Smoking), distorts the founding.

The heart has two venous drainage systems:
1. Greater venous system – it parallels the coronary arterial circulation and provides 70% venous drainage to the heart
2. Lesser venous system – includes the thebasian veins and provides up to 30% of the venous drainage to the heart

Thebasian veins (also called venae cordis minimae) are the smallest coronary veins and run in the myocardial layer of the heart. They serve to drain the myocardium and are present in all four heart chambers. They are more abundant on the right side of the heart and, more specifically, are most abundant in the right atrium. Thebesian veins drain the subendocardial myocardium either directly, via connecting intramural arteries and veins, or indirectly, via subendocardial sinusoidal spaces.

The bispectral index (BIS) is one of several systems used in anaesthesiology as of 2003 to measure the effects of specific anaesthetic drugs on the brain and to track changes in the patient’s level of sedation or hypnosis. It is a complex mathematical algorithm that allows a computer inside an anaesthesia monitor to analyse data from a patient’s electroencephalogram (EEG) during surgery. It is a dimensionless number (0-100) that is a summative measurement of time domain, frequency domain and high order spectral parameters derived from electroencephalogram (EEG) signals.

Sleep and anaesthesia have similar behavioural characteristics but are physiologically different but BIS monitors can be used to measure sleep depth. With increasing sleep depth during slow-wave sleep, BIS levels decrease. This correlates with changes in regional cerebral blood flow when measured using positron emission tomography (PET).

BIS shows a dose-response relationship with the intravenous and volatile anaesthetic agents. Opioids produce a clinical change in the depth of sedation or analgesia but fail to produce significant changes in the BIS. Ketamine increases CMRO2 and EEG activity.

BIS is unable to predict movement in response to a surgical stimulus. Some of these are spinal reflexes and not perceived by the cerebral cortex.

BIS is used during cardiopulmonary bypass to measure depth of anaesthesia and an index of cerebral perfusion. However, it cannot predict subtle or significant cerebral damage.

When the convulsion lasts for five or more than five minutes, or if there are recurrent episodes of convulsions in a 5 minute period without returning to the baseline, it is termed as Status Epilepticus.
The first priority in the patient with seizures is maintaining the airway, breathing, and circulation.

Guideline for the management of Status Epilepticus in children by Advanced Life Support Group is as follow:

Step 1 (Five minutes after the start of seizures):

If intravascular access is available start treatment with lorazepam 0.1 mg/kg IV
If no intravascular access then give buccal midazolam 0.5 mg/kg or rectal diazepam 0.5 mg/kg.

Step 2 (Ten minutes after the start of seizure):

If the convulsions continue then a second dose of benzodiazepine should be given. Senior should be called on-site and phenytoin should be prepared.
No more than two doses or benzodiazepines should be given (including any doses given before arrival at the hospital)
If still no IV access then obtain intraosseous access (IO).

Step 3 (Ten minutes after step 2)

Senior help along with anaesthetic/ICU help should be sought
Phenytoin 20 mg/kg IV over 20 minutes
If the seizure stops before the full dose of phenytoin is given then the infusion should be completed as this provides up to 24 hours of anticonvulsant effect
In children already receiving phenytoin as treatment for epilepsy then an alternative is phenobarbitone 20 mg/kg IV over five minutes
Once the phenytoin is started, senior staff may wish to give rectal paraldehyde 0.4 mg/kg although this is no longer included in the routine algorithm recommended by APLS.

Step 4 (20 minutes after step 3)

If 20 minutes after starting phenytoin the child remains in status epilepticus then rapid sequence induction of anaesthesia with thiopentone and a short acting paralysing agent is needed and the child transferred to paediatric intensive care.

The inguinal canal is a passage in the lower anterior abdominal wall just above the inguinal ligament. It transmits the following structures:
1. genital branch of genitofemoral nerve
2. ilioinguinal nerve
3. spermatic cord (males only)
4. round ligament of the uterus (females only)

The ilioinguinal is a direct branch of the first lumbar nerve. The ilioinguinal nerve enters the inguinal canal via the abdominal musculature (and not through the deep (internal) inguinal ring) and exits through the superficial (or external) inguinal ring.

The openings for the other nerves in the answer options are:
Sciatic nerve – exits the pelvis via the greater sciatic foramen
Obturator nerve – descends into pelvis via the obturator foramen
Femoral nerve – descends from the abdomen through the pelvis behind the inguinal canal

The Iliohypogastric nerve also arises from the first lumbar root with the ilioinguinal nerve but pierces the transversus abdominis muscle posteriorly, just above the iliac crest, and continues anteriorly between the transversus abdominis and the internal abdominal oblique muscles.

Ferromagnetism is the property of a substance that is magnetically attracted and can be magnetised indefinitely. A material is said to be paramagnetic if it is attracted to a magnetic field. A substance is said to be diamagnetic if it is repelled by a magnetic field.

Cobalt, iron, gadolinium, neodymium, and nickel are ferromagnetic.

Gadolinium is a ferromagnetic rare earth metal that is ferromagnetic below 20 degrees Celsius (its Curie temperature). MRI scans are enhanced with gadolinium-based contrast media.

When ferromagnetic materials are exposed to a magnetic field, they can cause a variety of issues like magnetic field interactions, heating, and image artefacts.

Titanium, lead, chromium, copper, aluminium, silver, gold, and tin are non ferromagnetic.

Resistance pulmonary arteries constrict in response to alveolar and airway hypoxia, diverting blood to better-oxygenated alveoli.

In atelectasis, pneumonia, asthma, and adult respiratory distress syndrome, hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction optimises O2 uptake. Hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction helps maintain systemic oxygenation during single-lung anaesthesia.

A redox-based O2 sensor within pulmonary artery smooth muscle cells is involved in hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction. The production of reactive oxygen species by smooth muscle cells in the pulmonary artery varies in proportion to PaO2. Hypoxic removal of these redox second messengers inhibits voltage-gated potassium channels, depolarizing smooth muscle cells in the pulmonary artery.

L-type calcium channels are activated by depolarization, which raises cytosolic calcium and causes hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction. Some anaesthetics suppress this response, increasing the risk of further deterioration in ventilation perfusion mismatch.

Agents that inhibit HPV are ether, halothane, and desflurane (>1.6 MAC).
Agents with no effect on HPV include thiopentone, fentanyl, desflurane (1MAC), isoflurane (<1.5MAC), sevoflurane(1MAC), and propofol.

Choosing an appropriate dose of local anaesthetic to reduce the chance of toxicity is the most important safety aspect in performing a caudal block.

The caudal will have to be inserted following induction of anaesthesia as performing it in an awake child is not a viable option.

The patient is placed in the lateral position and the sacral hiatus is identified. Under strict asepsis, a needle ( usually a 21-23FG needle) is advanced at an angle of approximately 55-65° to the coronal plane at the apex of the sacrococcygeal membrane. When there is loss of resistance, thats the endpoint. The needle must first be aspirated before anaesthetic agent is injected because there is a risk (1 in 2000) of perforating the dura or vascular puncture.

Alternatively, a 22-gauge plastic cannula can be used. Following perforation of the sacrococcygeal membrane, the stilette is removed and only the blunter plastic cannula is advanced. This reduces the risk of intravascular perforation.

Eliciting an appropriate end motor response at an appropriate current strength when the caudal and epidural spaces are stimulated helps in improving the efficacy and safety of neural blockade. A 22G insulated needle is advanced in the caudal canal until a pop is felt. If the needle is placed correctly, an anal sphincter contractions (S2 to S4) is seen when an electrical stimulation of 1-10 mA is applied.

The application of ultrasound guidance in identification of the caudal epidural space has been shown to prevent inadvertent dural puncture and to increase the safety and efficacy of the block in children.

The structures that pass through the foramen magnum are:

Meningeal lymphatics
Spinal cord
Spinal meninges
Sympathetic plexus of vertebral arteries
Vertebral arteries
Vertebral artery spinal branches
The spinal roots of the accessory nerve.

The jugular foramen contains the vagus nerve, the accessory nerve and glossopharyngeal nerve.

The vertebral veins does not pass into the skull.

When the loading dose of Digoxin is given, the primary thing to consider is the volume of distribution. The volume of distribution is the proportionality factor that relates the total amount of drug in the body to the concentration. LD is computed as:

LD = Volume of distribution X (desired plasma concentration/bioavailability)

Digoxin is an anti-arrhythmic drug with a large volume of distribution and high bioavailability, and only a small percentage of Digoxin is bound to plasma proteins (,20%).

In the case, since the arrhythmia is not life-threatening, there is no need for the medication to work rapidly.

Propofol infusion syndrome is a rare but extremely dangerous complication of propofol administration

Common organ systems affected by PRIS include the following:
1. cardiovascular
widening of QRS complex, Brugada syndrome-like patterns (particularly type 1), ventricular tachyarrhythmias, cardiogenic shock, and asystole

2. hepatic
Liver enzymes elevation, hepatomegaly, and steatosis

3. skeletal muscular
myopathy and overt rhabdomyolysis

4. renal
Hyperkalaemia, acute kidney injury

5. metabolic
High anion gap metabolic acidosis (due to elevation in lactic acid)