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Question 1
Correct
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A 25-year-old female patient arrives at the Emergency Department displaying clinical signs of a sexually transmitted infection.
Which of the following organisms is frequently transmitted through sexual contact?Your Answer: Human papillomavirus
Explanation:The human papillomavirus (HPV) is a viral infection that is primarily responsible for the development of genital warts. This virus is predominantly transmitted through sexual contact.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old patient with a history of exhaustion and weariness has a complete blood count scheduled. The complete blood count reveals that she has normocytic anemia.
What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?Your Answer: Lead poisoning
Correct Answer: Haemolysis
Explanation:Anaemia can be categorized based on the size of red blood cells. Microcytic anaemia, characterized by a mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of less than 80 fl, can be caused by various factors such as iron deficiency, thalassaemia, anaemia of chronic disease (which can also be normocytic), sideroblastic anaemia (which can also be normocytic), lead poisoning, and aluminium toxicity (although this is now rare and mainly affects haemodialysis patients).
On the other hand, normocytic anaemia, with an MCV ranging from 80 to 100 fl, can be attributed to conditions like haemolysis, acute haemorrhage, bone marrow failure, anaemia of chronic disease (which can also be microcytic), mixed iron and folate deficiency, pregnancy, chronic renal failure, and sickle-cell disease.
Lastly, macrocytic anaemia, characterized by an MCV greater than 100 fl, can be caused by factors such as B12 deficiency, folate deficiency, hypothyroidism, reticulocytosis, liver disease, alcohol abuse, myeloproliferative disease, myelodysplastic disease, and certain drugs like methotrexate, hydroxyurea, and azathioprine.
It is important to understand the different causes of anaemia based on red cell size as this knowledge can aid in the diagnosis and management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 3
Correct
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You have recently conducted rapid sequence induction utilizing ketamine and rocuronium and successfully inserted an endotracheal tube under the guidance of a consultant. What should have been the available reversal agent to counteract the effects of Rocuronium if necessary?
Your Answer: Sugammadex
Explanation:Sugammadex is a medication used to quickly reverse the effects of muscle relaxation caused by drugs like rocuronium bromide or vecuronium bromide. The 2020 guidelines for sedation and anesthesia outside of the operating room recommend having a complete set of emergency drugs, including specific reversal agents like naloxone, sugammadex, and flumazenil, readily accessible. Sugammadex is a modified form of gamma cyclodextrin that is effective in rapidly reversing the neuromuscular blockade caused by these specific drugs.
Further Reading:
Rapid sequence induction (RSI) is a method used to place an endotracheal tube (ETT) in the trachea while minimizing the risk of aspiration. It involves inducing loss of consciousness while applying cricoid pressure, followed by intubation without face mask ventilation. The steps of RSI can be remembered using the 7 P’s: preparation, pre-oxygenation, pre-treatment, paralysis and induction, protection and positioning, placement with proof, and post-intubation management.
Preparation involves preparing the patient, equipment, team, and anticipating any difficulties that may arise during the procedure. Pre-oxygenation is important to ensure the patient has an adequate oxygen reserve and prolongs the time before desaturation. This is typically done by breathing 100% oxygen for 3 minutes. Pre-treatment involves administering drugs to counter expected side effects of the procedure and anesthesia agents used.
Paralysis and induction involve administering a rapid-acting induction agent followed by a neuromuscular blocking agent. Commonly used induction agents include propofol, ketamine, thiopentone, and etomidate. The neuromuscular blocking agents can be depolarizing (such as suxamethonium) or non-depolarizing (such as rocuronium). Depolarizing agents bind to acetylcholine receptors and generate an action potential, while non-depolarizing agents act as competitive antagonists.
Protection and positioning involve applying cricoid pressure to prevent regurgitation of gastric contents and positioning the patient’s neck appropriately. Tube placement is confirmed by visualizing the tube passing between the vocal cords, auscultation of the chest and stomach, end-tidal CO2 measurement, and visualizing misting of the tube. Post-intubation management includes standard care such as monitoring ECG, SpO2, NIBP, capnography, and maintaining sedation and neuromuscular blockade.
Overall, RSI is a technique used to quickly and safely secure the airway in patients who may be at risk of aspiration. It involves a series of steps to ensure proper preparation, oxygenation, drug administration, and tube placement. Monitoring and post-intubation care are also important aspects of RSI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Anaesthetics
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman presents with a painful, swollen right ankle following a recent hike in the mountains. You assess her for a possible sprained ankle.
At which of the following locations do the NICE guidelines recommend that you measure the ankle circumference?Your Answer: 10 cm above the lateral malleolus
Correct Answer: 10 cm below the tibial tuberosity
Explanation:The NICE guidelines for suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT) suggest considering the possibility of DVT if typical symptoms and signs are present, particularly if the person has risk factors like previous venous thromboembolism and immobility.
Typical signs and symptoms of DVT include unilateral localized pain (often throbbing) that occurs during walking or bearing weight, as well as calf swelling (or, less commonly, swelling of the entire leg). Other signs to look out for are tenderness, skin changes such as edema, redness, and warmth, and vein distension.
To rule out other potential causes for the symptoms and signs, it is important to conduct a physical examination and review the person’s general medical history.
When assessing leg and thigh swelling, it is recommended to measure the circumference of the leg 10 cm below the tibial tuberosity and compare it with the unaffected leg. A difference of more than 3 cm between the two legs increases the likelihood of DVT.
Additionally, it is important to check for edema and dilated collateral superficial veins on the affected side.
To assess the likelihood of DVT and guide further management, the two-level DVT Wells score can be used.
For more information, you can refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on deep vein thrombosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Vascular
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department after experiencing a sudden and severe headache, which has caused confusion and drowsiness. A CT scan confirms the presence of a subarachnoid hemorrhage. Your consultant instructs you to closely observe for indications of increasing intracranial pressure, such as third cranial nerve palsy. What is the initial manifestation of third cranial nerve palsy in patients with this particular injury?
Your Answer: Down and out eye position
Correct Answer: Pupil dilatation
Explanation:The initial indication of progressive compression on the oculomotor nerve is the dilation of the pupil. In cases where the oculomotor nerve is being compressed, the outer parasympathetic fibers are typically affected before the inner motor fibers. These parasympathetic fibers are responsible for stimulating the constriction of the pupil. When they are disrupted, the sympathetic stimulation of the pupil is unopposed, leading to the dilation of the pupil (known as mydriasis or blown pupil). This symptom is usually observed before the drooping of the eyelid (lid ptosis) and the downward and outward positioning of the eye.
Further Reading:
Intracranial pressure (ICP) refers to the pressure within the craniospinal compartment, which includes neural tissue, blood, and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Normal ICP for a supine adult is 5-15 mmHg. The body maintains ICP within a narrow range through shifts in CSF production and absorption. If ICP rises, it can lead to decreased cerebral perfusion pressure, resulting in cerebral hypoperfusion, ischemia, and potentially brain herniation.
The cranium, which houses the brain, is a closed rigid box in adults and cannot expand. It is made up of 8 bones and contains three main components: brain tissue, cerebral blood, and CSF. Brain tissue accounts for about 80% of the intracranial volume, while CSF and blood each account for about 10%. The Monro-Kellie doctrine states that the sum of intracranial volumes is constant, so an increase in one component must be offset by a decrease in the others.
There are various causes of raised ICP, including hematomas, neoplasms, brain abscesses, edema, CSF circulation disorders, venous sinus obstruction, and accelerated hypertension. Symptoms of raised ICP include headache, vomiting, pupillary changes, reduced cognition and consciousness, neurological signs, abnormal fundoscopy, cranial nerve palsy, hemiparesis, bradycardia, high blood pressure, irregular breathing, focal neurological deficits, seizures, stupor, coma, and death.
Measuring ICP typically requires invasive procedures, such as inserting a sensor through the skull. Management of raised ICP involves a multi-faceted approach, including antipyretics to maintain normothermia, seizure control, positioning the patient with a 30º head up tilt, maintaining normal blood pressure, providing analgesia, using drugs to lower ICP (such as mannitol or saline), and inducing hypocapnoeic vasoconstriction through hyperventilation. If these measures are ineffective, second-line therapies like barbiturate coma, optimised hyperventilation, controlled hypothermia, or decompressive craniectomy may be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old man is prescribed a medication for a neurological condition in the 2nd-trimester of his wife's pregnancy. The baby is born with restlessness, muscle contractions, shaking, and exhibits unsteady, abrupt movements.
Which of the following medications is the most probable reason for these abnormalities?Your Answer: Carbamazepine
Correct Answer: Haloperidol
Explanation:Haloperidol, when administered during the third trimester of pregnancy, can lead to extrapyramidal symptoms in the newborn. These symptoms may include agitation, poor feeding, excessive sleepiness, and difficulty breathing. The severity of these side effects can vary, with some infants requiring intensive care and extended hospital stays. It is important to closely monitor exposed neonates for signs of extrapyramidal syndrome or withdrawal. Haloperidol should only be used during pregnancy if the benefits clearly outweigh the risks to the fetus.
Below is a list outlining commonly encountered drugs that have adverse effects during pregnancy:
ACE inhibitors (e.g. ramipril): If given during the second and third trimesters, these drugs can cause hypoperfusion, renal failure, and the oligohydramnios sequence.
Aminoglycosides (e.g. gentamicin): These drugs can cause ototoxicity and deafness in the fetus.
Aspirin: High doses of aspirin can lead to first-trimester abortions, delayed onset of labor, premature closure of the fetal ductus arteriosus, and fetal kernicterus. However, low doses (e.g. 75 mg) do not pose significant risks.
Benzodiazepines (e.g. diazepam): When administered late in pregnancy, these drugs can cause respiratory depression and a neonatal withdrawal syndrome.
Calcium-channel blockers: If given during the first trimester, these drugs can cause phalangeal abnormalities. If given during the second and third trimesters, they can result in fetal growth retardation.
Carbamazepine: This drug can lead to hemorrhagic disease of the newborn and neural tube defects.
Chloramphenicol: Administration of chloramphenicol can cause gray baby syndrome in newborns.
Corticosteroids: If given during the first trimester, corticosteroids may cause orofacial clefts in the fetus.
Danazol: When administered during the first trimester, danazol can cause masculinization of the female fetuses genitals.
Finasteride: Pregnant women should avoid handling finasteride as crushed or broken tablets can be absorbed through the skin and affect male sex organ development.
Haloperidol: If given during the first trimester, haloperidol may cause limb malformations. If given during the third trimester, there is an increased risk of extrapyramidal symptoms in the neonate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 7
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman presents with a history of chronic foul-smelling discharge from her right ear. She has undergone three rounds of antibiotic drops, but the issue persists. Additionally, she is experiencing hearing difficulties in her right ear. Her medical history includes recurrent ear infections. During the examination, a retraction pocket is observed in the attic, along with granulation tissue on the tympanic membrane and a significant amount of debris.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Cholesteatoma
Explanation:This individual is diagnosed with an acquired cholesteatoma, which is an expanding growth of the stratified keratinising epithelium in the middle ear. It develops due to dysfunction of the Eustachian tube and chronic otitis media caused by the retraction of the squamous elements of the tympanic membrane into the middle ear space.
The most important method for assessing the presence of a cholesteatoma is otoscopy. A retraction pocket observed in the attic or posterosuperior quadrant of the tympanic membrane is a characteristic sign of an acquired cholesteatoma. This is often accompanied by the presence of granulation tissue and squamous debris. The presence of a granular polyp within the ear canal also strongly suggests a cholesteatoma.
If left untreated, a cholesteatoma can lead to various complications including conductive deafness, facial nerve palsy, brain abscess, meningitis, and labyrinthitis. Therefore, it is crucial to urgently refer this individual to an ear, nose, and throat (ENT) specialist for a CT scan and surgical removal of the lesion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 8
Incorrect
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You evaluate a 45-year-old Asian man with a heart murmur. During auscultation, you observe a loud first heart sound and a mid-diastolic murmur at the apex. Upon examination, you observe that he has plum-red discoloration of his cheeks.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Aortic stenosis
Correct Answer: Mitral stenosis
Explanation:The clinical symptoms of mitral stenosis include shortness of breath, which tends to worsen during exercise and when lying flat. Tiredness, palpitations, ankle swelling, cough, and haemoptysis are also common symptoms. Chest discomfort is rarely reported.
The clinical signs of mitral stenosis can include a malar flush, an irregular pulse if atrial fibrillation is present, a tapping apex beat that can be felt as the first heart sound, and a left parasternal heave if there is pulmonary hypertension. The first heart sound is often loud, and a mid-diastolic murmur can be heard.
The mid-diastolic murmur of mitral stenosis is a rumbling sound that is best heard at the apex, in the left lateral position during expiration, using the bell of the stethoscope.
Mitral stenosis is typically caused by rheumatic heart disease, and it is more common in females, with about two-thirds of patients being female.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 45-year-old technician who works with a sterilization irradiator presents to the emergency department with concerns about potential accidental radiation exposure at work. What are the common initial symptoms that occur in cases of acute radiation sickness?
Your Answer: Nausea and vomiting
Explanation:The initial symptoms of ARS usually include feelings of nausea and the urge to vomit. During the prodromal stage, individuals may also experience a loss of appetite and, in some cases, diarrhea, which can vary depending on the amount of exposure. These symptoms can manifest within minutes to days after being exposed to ARS.
Further Reading:
Radiation exposure refers to the emission or transmission of energy in the form of waves or particles through space or a material medium. There are two types of radiation: ionizing and non-ionizing. Non-ionizing radiation, such as radio waves and visible light, has enough energy to move atoms within a molecule but not enough to remove electrons from atoms. Ionizing radiation, on the other hand, has enough energy to ionize atoms or molecules by detaching electrons from them.
There are different types of ionizing radiation, including alpha particles, beta particles, gamma rays, and X-rays. Alpha particles are positively charged and consist of 2 protons and 2 neutrons from the atom’s nucleus. They are emitted from the decay of heavy radioactive elements and do not travel far from the source atom. Beta particles are small, fast-moving particles with a negative electrical charge that are emitted from an atom’s nucleus during radioactive decay. They are more penetrating than alpha particles but less damaging to living tissue. Gamma rays and X-rays are weightless packets of energy called photons. Gamma rays are often emitted along with alpha or beta particles during radioactive decay and can easily penetrate barriers. X-rays, on the other hand, are generally lower in energy and less penetrating than gamma rays.
Exposure to ionizing radiation can damage tissue cells by dislodging orbital electrons, leading to the generation of highly reactive ion pairs. This can result in DNA damage and an increased risk of future malignant change. The extent of cell damage depends on factors such as the type of radiation, time duration of exposure, distance from the source, and extent of shielding.
The absorbed dose of radiation is directly proportional to time, so it is important to minimize the amount of time spent in the vicinity of a radioactive source. A lethal dose of radiation without medical management is 4.5 sieverts (Sv) to kill 50% of the population at 60 days. With medical management, the lethal dose is 5-6 Sv. The immediate effects of ionizing radiation can range from radiation burns to radiation sickness, which is divided into three main syndromes: hematopoietic, gastrointestinal, and neurovascular. Long-term effects can include hematopoietic cancers and solid tumor formation.
In terms of management, support is mainly supportive and includes IV fluids, antiemetics, analgesia, nutritional support, antibiotics, blood component substitution, and reduction of brain edema.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Environmental Emergencies
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Question 10
Incorrect
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You intend to utilize plain 1% lidocaine for a ring block on a finger that requires suturing. How much lidocaine hydrochloride is present in every 1 ml of plain 1% lidocaine solution?
Your Answer: 1 mg lidocaine hydrochloride
Correct Answer: 10 mg lidocaine hydrochloride
Explanation:Each milliliter of plain 1% lidocaine solution contains 10 milligrams of lidocaine hydrochloride.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pain & Sedation
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Question 11
Correct
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A 45-year-old woman experiences excessive bleeding after a minor surgical procedure. Her blood test results are as follows:
Hemoglobin (Hb): 11.6 g/dl (12-15 g/dl)
Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV): 80 fl (80-100 fl)
Platelets: 246 x 109/l (150-400 x 109/l)
Bleeding time: 9 minutes (2-7 minutes)
Prothrombin time: 12 seconds (10-14 seconds)
Thrombin time: 16 seconds (15-19 seconds)
Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (APTT): 64 seconds (35-45 seconds)
What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Von Willebrand disease
Explanation:Von Willebrand disease (vWD) is a common hereditary coagulation disorder that affects approximately 1 in 100 individuals. It occurs due to a deficiency in Von Willebrand factor (vWF), which plays a crucial role in blood clotting. vWF not only binds to factor VIII to protect it from rapid breakdown, but it is also necessary for proper platelet adhesion. When vWF is lacking, both factor VIII levels and platelet function are affected, leading to prolonged APTT and bleeding time. However, the platelet count and thrombin time remain unaffected.
While some individuals with vWD may not experience any symptoms and are diagnosed incidentally during a clotting profile check, others may present with easy bruising, nosebleeds (epistaxis), and heavy menstrual bleeding (menorrhagia). In severe cases, more significant bleeding and joint bleeding (haemarthrosis) can occur.
For mild cases of von Willebrand disease, bleeding can be managed with desmopressin. This medication works by stimulating the release of vWF stored in the Weibel-Palade bodies, which are storage granules found in the endothelial cells lining the blood vessels and heart. By increasing the patient’s own levels of vWF, desmopressin helps improve clotting. In more severe cases, replacement therapy is necessary. This involves infusing cryoprecipitate or Factor VIII concentrate to provide the missing vWF. Replacement therapy is particularly recommended for patients with severe von Willebrand’s disease who are undergoing moderate or major surgical procedures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman comes in with a painful red eye accompanied by sensitivity to light, excessive tearing, and reduced vision. The on-call ophthalmology team is consulted, and they diagnose her with anterior uveitis.
Which of the following is the SINGLE LEAST probable underlying cause?Your Answer: Trauma
Correct Answer: Lymphoma
Explanation:Anterior uveitis refers to the inflammation of the iris and is characterized by a painful and red eye. It is often accompanied by symptoms such as sensitivity to light, excessive tearing, and a decrease in visual clarity. In less than 10% of cases, the inflammation may extend to the posterior chamber. The condition can also lead to the formation of adhesions between the iris and the lens or cornea, resulting in an irregularly shaped pupil known as synechia. In severe cases, pus may accumulate in the front part of the eye, specifically the anterior chamber, causing a condition called hypopyon.
There are various factors that can cause anterior uveitis, including idiopathic cases where no specific cause can be identified. Other causes include trauma, chronic joint diseases like spondyloarthropathies and juvenile chronic arthritis, ankylosing spondylitis, inflammatory bowel disease, psoriasis, sarcoidosis, and infections such as Lyme disease, tuberculosis, leptospirosis, herpes simplex virus (HSV), and varicella-zoster virus (VZV). It is worth noting that approximately 50% of patients with anterior uveitis have a strong association with the HLA-B27 genotype.
Complications that can arise from uveitis include the development of cataracts, glaucoma, band keratopathy (a condition where calcium deposits form on the cornea), and even blindness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 68 year old female is brought into the emergency department after a fall. The patient is accompanied by her children who inform you that there have been several falls in recent weeks. These falls tend to happen in the morning when the patient gets out of bed and appear to have worsened since the GP altered the patient's usual medication. You suspect orthostatic hypotension. What is the minimum blood pressure drop upon standing that is necessary to confirm the diagnosis?
Your Answer: 30 mmHg systolic or 20 mmHg diastolic
Correct Answer: 20 mmHg systolic or 10 mmHg diastolic
Explanation:To diagnose orthostatic hypotension, there needs to be a decrease in systolic blood pressure of at least 20 mmHg (or 30 mmHg for individuals with hypertension) and/or a decrease in diastolic blood pressure of at least 10 mmHg within 3 minutes of standing. This confirms the presence of orthostatic hypotension.
Further Reading:
Blackouts, also known as syncope, are defined as a spontaneous transient loss of consciousness with complete recovery. They are most commonly caused by transient inadequate cerebral blood flow, although epileptic seizures can also result in blackouts. There are several different causes of blackouts, including neurally-mediated reflex syncope (such as vasovagal syncope or fainting), orthostatic hypotension (a drop in blood pressure upon standing), cardiovascular abnormalities, and epilepsy.
When evaluating a patient with blackouts, several key investigations should be performed. These include an electrocardiogram (ECG), heart auscultation, neurological examination, vital signs assessment, lying and standing blood pressure measurements, and blood tests such as a full blood count and glucose level. Additional investigations may be necessary depending on the suspected cause, such as ultrasound or CT scans for aortic dissection or other abdominal and thoracic pathology, chest X-ray for heart failure or pneumothorax, and CT pulmonary angiography for pulmonary embolism.
During the assessment, it is important to screen for red flags and signs of any underlying serious life-threatening condition. Red flags for blackouts include ECG abnormalities, clinical signs of heart failure, a heart murmur, blackouts occurring during exertion, a family history of sudden cardiac death at a young age, an inherited cardiac condition, new or unexplained breathlessness, and blackouts in individuals over the age of 65 without a prodrome. These red flags indicate the need for urgent assessment by an appropriate specialist.
There are several serious conditions that may be suggested by certain features. For example, myocardial infarction or ischemia may be indicated by a history of coronary artery disease, preceding chest pain, and ECG signs such as ST elevation or arrhythmia. Pulmonary embolism may be suggested by dizziness, acute shortness of breath, pleuritic chest pain, and risk factors for venous thromboembolism. Aortic dissection may be indicated by chest and back pain, abnormal ECG findings, and signs of cardiac tamponade include low systolic blood pressure, elevated jugular venous pressure, and muffled heart sounds. Other conditions that may cause blackouts include severe hypoglycemia, Addisonian crisis, and electrolyte abnormalities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Elderly Care / Frailty
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man presents with symptoms of painful urination and frequent urination. A urine dipstick test reveals the presence of blood, protein, white blood cells, and nitrites. Based on the patient's history of chronic kidney disease and an eGFR of 40 ml/minute, you diagnose him with a urinary tract infection (UTI). He reports no previous UTIs or recent antibiotic use. Which antibiotic would be the most suitable to prescribe in this scenario?
Your Answer: Nitrofurantoin
Correct Answer: Trimethoprim
Explanation:For the treatment of women with lower urinary tract infections (UTIs) who are not pregnant, it is recommended to consider either a back-up antibiotic prescription or an immediate antibiotic prescription. This decision should take into account the severity of symptoms and the risk of developing complications, which is higher in individuals with known or suspected abnormalities of the genitourinary tract or weakened immune systems. The evidence for back-up antibiotic prescriptions is limited to non-pregnant women with lower UTIs where immediate antibiotic treatment is not deemed necessary. It is also important to consider previous urine culture and susceptibility results, as well as any history of antibiotic use that may have led to the development of resistant bacteria. Ultimately, the preferences of the woman regarding antibiotic use should be taken into account.
If a urine sample has been sent for culture and susceptibility testing and an antibiotic prescription has been given, it is crucial to review the choice of antibiotic once the microbiological results are available. If the bacteria are found to be resistant and symptoms are not improving, it is recommended to switch to a narrow-spectrum antibiotic whenever possible.
The following antibiotics are recommended for non-pregnant women aged 16 years and older:
First-choice:
– Nitrofurantoin 100 mg modified-release taken orally twice daily for 3 days (if eGFR >45 ml/minute)
– Trimethoprim 200 mg taken orally twice daily for 3 days (if low risk of resistance*)Second-choice (if there is no improvement in lower UTI symptoms on first-choice treatment for at least 48 hours, or if first-choice treatment is not suitable):
– Nitrofurantoin 100 mg modified-release taken orally twice daily for 3 days (if eGFR >45 ml/minute)
– Pivmecillinam 400 mg initial dose taken orally, followed by 200 mg taken orally three times daily for 3 days
– Fosfomycin 3 g single sachet dose*The risk of resistance may be lower if the antibiotic has not been used in the past 3 months, previous urine culture suggests susceptibility (although this was not used), and in younger individuals in areas where local epidemiology data indicate low resistance rates. Conversely, the risk of resistance may be higher with recent antibiotic use and in older individuals in residential facilities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man presents with sudden onset of vision loss in his right eye over the past few hours. On fundoscopic examination, you observe that the entire retina appears pale and a cherry red spot is visible in the macular region.
What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Central retinal vein occlusion
Correct Answer: Central retinal artery occlusion
Explanation:Central retinal artery occlusion (CRAO) is characterized by sudden, painless, and unilateral loss of vision. The appearance of the retina in CRAO is distinct from that of CRVO. It shows a pale retina with narrowed blood vessels. A notable feature is the presence of a ‘cherry-red spot’ at the center of the macula, which is supplied by the underlying choroid. Additionally, examination often reveals an afferent pupillary defect.
On the other hand, branch retinal artery occlusion (BRAO) typically affects only one quadrant of the retina, leading to visual field deficits in that specific area rather than complete loss of vision.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 16
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by her roommate after intentionally overdosing on amitriptyline. You administer activated charcoal. Which other medication can be used to treat tricyclic overdose?
Your Answer: Sodium bicarbonate
Explanation:Sodium bicarbonate is recommended as a treatment for TCA overdose. Previous editions also suggested using glucagon if IV fluids and sodium bicarbonate were ineffective in treating the overdose.
Further Reading:
Tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) overdose is a common occurrence in emergency departments, with drugs like amitriptyline and dosulepin being particularly dangerous. TCAs work by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin in the central nervous system. In cases of toxicity, TCAs block various receptors, including alpha-adrenergic, histaminic, muscarinic, and serotonin receptors. This can lead to symptoms such as hypotension, altered mental state, signs of anticholinergic toxicity, and serotonin receptor effects.
TCAs primarily cause cardiac toxicity by blocking sodium and potassium channels. This can result in a slowing of the action potential, prolongation of the QRS complex, and bradycardia. However, the blockade of muscarinic receptors also leads to tachycardia in TCA overdose. QT prolongation and Torsades de Pointes can occur due to potassium channel blockade. TCAs can also have a toxic effect on the myocardium, causing decreased cardiac contractility and hypotension.
Early symptoms of TCA overdose are related to their anticholinergic properties and may include dry mouth, pyrexia, dilated pupils, agitation, sinus tachycardia, blurred vision, flushed skin, tremor, and confusion. Severe poisoning can lead to arrhythmias, seizures, metabolic acidosis, and coma. ECG changes commonly seen in TCA overdose include sinus tachycardia, widening of the QRS complex, prolongation of the QT interval, and an R/S ratio >0.7 in lead aVR.
Management of TCA overdose involves ensuring a patent airway, administering activated charcoal if ingestion occurred within 1 hour and the airway is intact, and considering gastric lavage for life-threatening cases within 1 hour of ingestion. Serial ECGs and blood gas analysis are important for monitoring. Intravenous fluids and correction of hypoxia are the first-line therapies. IV sodium bicarbonate is used to treat haemodynamic instability caused by TCA overdose, and benzodiazepines are the treatment of choice for seizure control. Other treatments that may be considered include glucagon, magnesium sulfate, and intravenous lipid emulsion.
There are certain things to avoid in TCA overdose, such as anti-arrhythmics like quinidine and flecainide, as they can prolonged depolarization.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 17
Correct
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A 35 year old male is brought into the emergency department after being found disoriented and lethargic by a family member. The family member informs you that the patient has a history of depression and that there were multiple empty bottles of aspirin at the patient's residence. Initial tests are conducted, including a salicylate level.
What is the plasma salicylate concentration threshold for initiating urinary alkalinization in adult patients?Your Answer: > 500 mg/L
Explanation:In adults, urinary alkalinisation is initiated when the salicylate level exceeds 500 mg/L (>3.6 mmol/L). For children, the threshold is set at a salicylate concentration of > 350 mg/L (2.5 mmol/L).
Further Reading:
Salicylate poisoning, particularly from aspirin overdose, is a common cause of poisoning in the UK. One important concept to understand is that salicylate overdose leads to a combination of respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis. Initially, the overdose stimulates the respiratory center, leading to hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis. However, as the effects of salicylate on lactic acid production, breakdown into acidic metabolites, and acute renal injury occur, it can result in high anion gap metabolic acidosis.
The clinical features of salicylate poisoning include hyperventilation, tinnitus, lethargy, sweating, pyrexia (fever), nausea/vomiting, hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia, seizures, and coma.
When investigating salicylate poisoning, it is important to measure salicylate levels in the blood. The sample should be taken at least 2 hours after ingestion for symptomatic patients or 4 hours for asymptomatic patients. The measurement should be repeated every 2-3 hours until the levels start to decrease. Other investigations include arterial blood gas analysis, electrolyte levels (U&Es), complete blood count (FBC), coagulation studies (raised INR/PTR), urinary pH, and blood glucose levels.
To manage salicylate poisoning, an ABC approach should be followed to ensure a patent airway and adequate ventilation. Activated charcoal can be administered if the patient presents within 1 hour of ingestion. Oral or intravenous fluids should be given to optimize intravascular volume. Hypokalemia and hypoglycemia should be corrected. Urinary alkalinization with intravenous sodium bicarbonate can enhance the elimination of aspirin in the urine. In severe cases, hemodialysis may be necessary.
Urinary alkalinization involves targeting a urinary pH of 7.5-8.5 and checking it hourly. It is important to monitor for hypokalemia as alkalinization can cause potassium to shift from plasma into cells. Potassium levels should be checked every 1-2 hours.
In cases where the salicylate concentration is high (above 500 mg/L in adults or 350 mg/L in children), sodium bicarbonate can be administered intravenously. Hemodialysis is the treatment of choice for severe poisoning and may be indicated in cases of high salicylate levels, resistant metabolic acidosis, acute kidney injury, pulmonary edema, seizures and coma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 18
Correct
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You admit a 65-year-old woman to the clinical decision unit (CDU) following a fall at her assisted living facility. You can see from her notes that she has mild-to-moderate Alzheimer’s disease. While writing up her drug chart, you note that there are some medications you are not familiar with.
Which ONE of the following drugs is NOT recommended by NICE to improve cognition in patients suffering from Alzheimer’s disease?Your Answer: Moclobemide
Explanation:According to NICE, one of the recommended treatments for mild-to-moderate Alzheimer’s disease is the use of acetylcholinesterase (AChE) inhibitors. These inhibitors include Donepezil (Aricept), Galantamine, and Rivastigmine. They work by inhibiting the enzyme that breaks down acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter involved in memory and cognitive function.
On the other hand, Memantine is a different type of medication that acts by blocking NMDA-type glutamate receptors. It is recommended for patients with moderate Alzheimer’s disease who cannot tolerate or have a contraindication to AChE inhibitors, or for those with severe Alzheimer’s disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Elderly Care / Frailty
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Question 19
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman is brought into the emergency room by an ambulance with sirens blaring after being involved in a car accident. She was hit by a truck while riding a bicycle and is suspected to have a pelvic injury. Her blood pressure is unstable, and the hospital has activated the massive transfusion protocol. You decide to also give her tranexamic acid.
What is the appropriate initial dose of tranexamic acid to administer and over what duration of time?Your Answer: 1 g IV over 10 minutes
Explanation:ATLS guidelines now suggest administering only 1 liter of crystalloid fluid during the initial assessment. If patients do not respond to the crystalloid, it is recommended to quickly transition to blood products. Studies have shown that infusing more than 1.5 liters of crystalloid fluid is associated with higher mortality rates in trauma cases. Therefore, it is advised to prioritize the early use of blood products and avoid large volumes of crystalloid fluid in trauma patients. In cases where it is necessary, massive transfusion should be considered, defined as the transfusion of more than 10 units of blood in 24 hours or more than 4 units of blood in one hour. For patients with evidence of Class III and IV hemorrhage, early resuscitation with blood and blood products in low ratios is recommended.
Based on the findings of significant trials, such as the CRASH-2 study, the use of tranexamic acid is now recommended within 3 hours. This involves administering a loading dose of 1 gram intravenously over 10 minutes, followed by an infusion of 1 gram over eight hours. In some regions, tranexamic acid is also being utilized in the prehospital setting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 20
Incorrect
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You are requested to evaluate a 45-year-old woman who has come in with an episode of dizziness. The patient mentions that she suspects she may be experiencing symptoms of Meniere's syndrome.
What would be a typical observation in a patient with Meniere's syndrome?Your Answer: Weber test should lateralise to the affected side.
Correct Answer: Associated tinnitus and low frequency hearing loss
Explanation:Meniere’s disease is characterized by recurring episodes of vertigo, tinnitus, and low frequency hearing loss that typically last for a few minutes to a few hours. A patient with Meniere’s disease would be expected to experience these symptoms. During the Weber test, the sound would be heard loudest in the unaffected (contralateral) side. The Romberg test would show a positive result, indicating impaired balance. Additionally, the Fukuda (also known as Unterberger) stepping test would also be positive, suggesting a tendency to veer or lean to one side while walking.
Further Reading:
Meniere’s disease is a disorder of the inner ear that is characterized by recurrent episodes of vertigo, tinnitus, and low frequency hearing loss. The exact cause of the disease is unknown, but it is believed to be related to excessive pressure and dilation of the endolymphatic system in the middle ear. Meniere’s disease is more common in middle-aged adults, but can occur at any age and affects both men and women equally.
The clinical features of Meniere’s disease include episodes of vertigo that can last from minutes to hours. These attacks often occur in clusters, with several episodes happening in a week. Vertigo is usually the most prominent symptom, but patients may also experience a sensation of aural fullness or pressure. Nystagmus and a positive Romberg test are common findings, and the Fukuda stepping test may also be positive. While symptoms are typically unilateral, bilateral symptoms may develop over time.
Rinne’s and Weber’s tests can be used to help diagnose Meniere’s disease. In Rinne’s test, air conduction should be better than bone conduction in both ears. In Weber’s test, the sound should be heard loudest in the unaffected (contralateral) side due to the sensorineural hearing loss.
The natural history of Meniere’s disease is that symptoms often resolve within 5-10 years, but most patients are left with some residual hearing loss. Psychological distress is common among patients with this condition.
The diagnostic criteria for Meniere’s disease include clinical features consistent with the disease, confirmed sensorineural hearing loss on audiometry, and exclusion of other possible causes.
Management of Meniere’s disease involves an ENT assessment to confirm the diagnosis and perform audiometry. Acute attacks can be treated with buccal or intramuscular prochlorperazine, and hospital admission may be necessary in some cases. Betahistine may be beneficial for prevention of symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old dairy farmer presents with a flu-like illness that has been worsening for the past two weeks. He has high fevers, a pounding headache, and muscle aches. He has now also developed a dry cough, stomach pain, and diarrhea. During the examination, there are no notable chest signs, but a liver edge can be felt 4 cm below the costal margin.
Today, his blood tests show the following results:
- Hemoglobin (Hb): 13.4 g/dl (normal range: 13-17 g/dl)
- White blood cell count (WCC): 21.5 x 109/l (normal range: 4-11 x 109/l)
- Neutrophils: 17.2 x 109/l (normal range: 2.5-7.5 x 109/l)
- Platelets: 567 x 109/l (normal range: 150-400 x 109/l)
- C-reactive protein (CRP): 187 mg/l (normal range: < 5 mg/l)
- Sodium (Na): 127 mmol/l (normal range: 133-147 mmol/l)
- Potassium (K): 4.4 mmol/l (normal range: 3.5-5.0 mmol/l)
- Creatinine (Creat): 122 micromol/l (normal range: 60-120 micromol/l)
- Urea: 7.8 mmol/l (normal range: 2.5-7.5 mmol/l)
- Aspartate aminotransferase (AST): 121 IU/l (normal range: 8-40 IU/l)
- Alkaline phosphatase (ALP): 296 IU/l (normal range: 30-200 IU/l)
- Bilirubin: 14 micromol/l (normal range: 3-17 micromol/l)
What is the SINGLE most likely causative organism?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Coxiella burnetii
Explanation:Q fever is a highly contagious infection caused by Coxiella burnetii, which can be transmitted from animals to humans. It is commonly observed as an occupational disease among individuals working in farming, slaughterhouses, and animal research. Approximately 50% of cases do not show any symptoms, while those who are affected often experience flu-like symptoms such as headache, fever, muscle pain, diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting.
In some cases, patients may develop an atypical pneumonia characterized by a dry cough and minimal chest signs. Q fever can also lead to hepatitis and enlargement of the liver (hepatomegaly), although jaundice is not commonly observed. Typical blood test results for Q fever include an elevated white cell count (30-40%), ALT/AST levels that are usually 2-3 times higher than normal, increased ALP levels (70%), reduced sodium levels (30%), and reactive thrombocytosis.
It is important to check patients for heart murmurs and signs of valve disease, as these conditions increase the risk of developing infective endocarditis. Treatment for Q fever typically involves a two-week course of doxycycline.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old girl is brought into the resus room after a car accident. She is struggling to breathe, and you cannot hear any breath sounds on the right side. Her trachea is shifted to the left, and her neck veins are swollen. Based on your clinical assessment, you diagnose her with a tension pneumothorax and decide to perform a needle thoracocentesis.
Where should you perform the needle thoracocentesis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2nd intercostal space midclavicular line
Explanation:A tension pneumothorax occurs when there is an air leak from the lung or chest wall that acts like a one-way valve. This causes air to build up in the pleural space without any way to escape. As a result, pressure in the pleural space increases and pushes the mediastinum into the opposite hemithorax. If left untreated, this can lead to cardiovascular instability, shock, and cardiac arrest.
The clinical features of tension pneumothorax include respiratory distress and cardiovascular instability. Tracheal deviation away from the side of the injury, unilateral absence of breath sounds on the affected side, and a hyper-resonant percussion note are also characteristic. Other signs include distended neck veins and cyanosis, which is a late sign. It’s important to note that both tension pneumothorax and massive haemothorax can cause decreased breath sounds on auscultation. However, percussion can help differentiate between the two conditions. Hyper-resonance suggests tension pneumothorax, while dullness suggests a massive haemothorax.
Tension pneumothorax is a clinical diagnosis and should not be delayed for radiological confirmation. Requesting a chest X-ray in this situation can delay treatment and put the patient at risk. Immediate decompression through needle thoracocentesis is the recommended treatment. Traditionally, a large-bore needle or cannula is inserted into the 2nd intercostal space in the midclavicular line of the affected hemithorax. However, studies on cadavers have shown better success in reaching the thoracic cavity when the 4th or 5th intercostal space in the midaxillary line is used in adult patients. ATLS now recommends this location for needle decompression in adults. The site for needle thoracocentesis in children remains the same, using the 2nd intercostal space in the midclavicular line. It’s important to remember that needle thoracocentesis is a temporary measure, and the insertion of a chest drain is the definitive treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 10 year old is brought into the emergency department by his parents as they are concerned he has become lethargic over the past 4-6 hours. They inform you that the patient started complaining of feeling unwell last night before going to bed and had been urinating frequently.
After conducting an assessment, you diagnose the patient with diabetic ketoacidosis and initiate fluids and an insulin infusion. 4 hours later, you are called to reassess the patient as he had been experiencing headaches and is now becoming increasingly drowsy. During the examination, you observe that the patient is grunting and has had an episode of urinary incontinence. What complication is likely to have developed?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cerebral oedema
Explanation:During the examination, the child is observed to be grunting and has had an episode of urinary incontinence. The question asks about the likely complication that has developed.
The most likely complication in this case is cerebral edema. Cerebral edema refers to the swelling of the brain due to an increase in fluid accumulation. It is a severe and potentially life-threatening complication of diabetic ketoacidosis, particularly in children. The symptoms observed, such as headaches, increasing drowsiness, grunting, and urinary incontinence, are indicative of cerebral edema.
Cerebral edema can occur due to various factors, including the rapid correction of hyperglycemia and dehydration, as well as the release of inflammatory mediators. It is crucial to recognize and manage cerebral edema promptly as it can lead to increased intracranial pressure and neurological deterioration.
Further Reading:
Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of diabetes that occurs due to a lack of insulin in the body. It is most commonly seen in individuals with type 1 diabetes but can also occur in type 2 diabetes. DKA is characterized by hyperglycemia, acidosis, and ketonaemia.
The pathophysiology of DKA involves insulin deficiency, which leads to increased glucose production and decreased glucose uptake by cells. This results in hyperglycemia and osmotic diuresis, leading to dehydration. Insulin deficiency also leads to increased lipolysis and the production of ketone bodies, which are acidic. The body attempts to buffer the pH change through metabolic and respiratory compensation, resulting in metabolic acidosis.
DKA can be precipitated by factors such as infection, physiological stress, non-compliance with insulin therapy, acute medical conditions, and certain medications. The clinical features of DKA include polydipsia, polyuria, signs of dehydration, ketotic breath smell, tachypnea, confusion, headache, nausea, vomiting, lethargy, and abdominal pain.
The diagnosis of DKA is based on the presence of ketonaemia or ketonuria, blood glucose levels above 11 mmol/L or known diabetes mellitus, and a blood pH below 7.3 or bicarbonate levels below 15 mmol/L. Initial investigations include blood gas analysis, urine dipstick for glucose and ketones, blood glucose measurement, and electrolyte levels.
Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, electrolyte correction, insulin therapy, and treatment of any underlying cause. Fluid replacement is typically done with isotonic saline, and potassium may need to be added depending on the patient’s levels. Insulin therapy is initiated with an intravenous infusion, and the rate is adjusted based on blood glucose levels. Monitoring of blood glucose, ketones, bicarbonate, and electrolytes is essential, and the insulin infusion is discontinued once ketones are below 0.3 mmol/L, pH is above 7.3, and bicarbonate is above 18 mmol/L.
Complications of DKA and its treatment include gastric stasis, thromboembolism, electrolyte disturbances, cerebral edema, hypoglycemia, acute respiratory distress syndrome, and acute kidney injury. Prompt medical intervention is crucial in managing DKA to prevent potentially fatal outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Emergencies
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Question 24
Incorrect
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After reviewing the management of a pediatric patient who recently presented to the emergency department with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), your consultant has scheduled a teaching session to assess the trainee's understanding of DKA management. You are tasked with determining the target minimum rate of blood glucose reduction in a pediatric patient receiving fluid and insulin therapy.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 3 mmol/L/hr
Explanation:Patients who are being treated with insulin infusion for diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) should expect their plasma glucose levels to decrease by at least 3 mmol/L per hour. The purpose of the insulin infusion is to correct both hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis. It is important to regularly review and check the insulin infusion to ensure it is working effectively. If any of the following are observed, the infusion rate should be adjusted accordingly: capillary ketones are not decreasing by at least 0.5 mmol/L per hour, venous bicarbonate is not increasing by at least 3 mmol/L per hour, or plasma glucose is not decreasing by at least 3 mmol/L per hour.
Further Reading:
Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of diabetes that occurs due to a lack of insulin in the body. It is most commonly seen in individuals with type 1 diabetes but can also occur in type 2 diabetes. DKA is characterized by hyperglycemia, acidosis, and ketonaemia.
The pathophysiology of DKA involves insulin deficiency, which leads to increased glucose production and decreased glucose uptake by cells. This results in hyperglycemia and osmotic diuresis, leading to dehydration. Insulin deficiency also leads to increased lipolysis and the production of ketone bodies, which are acidic. The body attempts to buffer the pH change through metabolic and respiratory compensation, resulting in metabolic acidosis.
DKA can be precipitated by factors such as infection, physiological stress, non-compliance with insulin therapy, acute medical conditions, and certain medications. The clinical features of DKA include polydipsia, polyuria, signs of dehydration, ketotic breath smell, tachypnea, confusion, headache, nausea, vomiting, lethargy, and abdominal pain.
The diagnosis of DKA is based on the presence of ketonaemia or ketonuria, blood glucose levels above 11 mmol/L or known diabetes mellitus, and a blood pH below 7.3 or bicarbonate levels below 15 mmol/L. Initial investigations include blood gas analysis, urine dipstick for glucose and ketones, blood glucose measurement, and electrolyte levels.
Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, electrolyte correction, insulin therapy, and treatment of any underlying cause. Fluid replacement is typically done with isotonic saline, and potassium may need to be added depending on the patient’s levels. Insulin therapy is initiated with an intravenous infusion, and the rate is adjusted based on blood glucose levels. Monitoring of blood glucose, ketones, bicarbonate, and electrolytes is essential, and the insulin infusion is discontinued once ketones are below 0.3 mmol/L, pH is above 7.3, and bicarbonate is above 18 mmol/L.
Complications of DKA and its treatment include gastric stasis, thromboembolism, electrolyte disturbances, cerebral edema, hypoglycemia, acute respiratory distress syndrome, and acute kidney injury. Prompt medical intervention is crucial in managing DKA to prevent potentially fatal outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Emergencies
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man has experienced a stroke affecting the blood vessels in his brain. Testing of his visual field reveals that he has a quadrantanopia in the lower left side of his vision.
Where in the visual pathway has this injury occurred?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Upper optic radiation
Explanation:Homonymous quadrantanopia occur when there are lesions in the optic radiation. The optic tract passes through the posterolateral angle of the optic chiasm, running alongside the cerebral peduncle and inside the uncus of the temporal lobe. Eventually, it reaches the lateral geniculate body (LGN) in the thalamus. Acting as a relay center, the LGN sends axons through the optic radiation to the primary visual cortex in the occipital lobe. The upper optic radiation carries fibers from the superior retinal quadrants (which corresponds to the lower half of the visual field) and travels through the parietal lobe. On the other hand, the lower optic radiation carries fibers from the inferior retinal quadrants (which corresponds to the upper half of the visual field) and travels through the temporal lobe. Consequently, lesions in the temporal lobe can lead to superior homonymous quadrantanopia, while lesions in the parietal lobe can cause inferior homonymous quadrantanopia. The diagram below provides a summary of the different visual field defects resulting from lesions at various points in the visual pathway.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman with a history of sickle-cell disease receives a blood transfusion for severe anemia. Four weeks later she arrives at the Emergency Department with a skin rash, high temperature, and diarrhea. Blood tests are ordered, revealing low levels of all blood cells and abnormal liver function.
What is the most suitable course of treatment for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No effective treatment exists
Explanation:Blood transfusion is a potentially life-saving treatment that can provide great clinical benefits. However, it also carries several risks and potential problems. These include immunological complications, administration errors, infections, immune dilution, and transfusion errors. While there have been improvements in safety procedures and efforts to minimize the use of transfusion, errors and serious adverse reactions still occur and often go unreported.
One rare complication of blood transfusion is transfusion-associated graft-vs-host disease (TA-GVHD). This condition typically presents with fever, rash, and diarrhea 1-4 weeks after the transfusion. Laboratory findings may show pancytopenia and abnormalities in liver function. Unlike GVHD after marrow transplantation, TA-GVHD leads to severe marrow aplasia with a mortality rate exceeding 90%. Unfortunately, there are currently no effective treatments available for this condition, and survival is rare, with death usually occurring within 1-3 weeks of the first symptoms.
During a blood transfusion, viable T lymphocytes from the donor are transfused into the recipient’s body. In TA-GVHD, these lymphocytes engraft and react against the recipient’s tissues. However, the recipient is unable to reject the donor lymphocytes due to factors such as immunodeficiency, severe immunosuppression, or shared HLA antigens. Supportive management is the only option for TA-GVHD.
The following summarizes the main complications and reactions that can occur during a blood transfusion:
Complication Features Management
Febrile transfusion reaction
– Presents with a 1-degree rise in temperature from baseline, along with chills and malaise.
– Most common reaction, occurring in 1 out of 8 transfusions.
– Usually caused by cytokines from leukocytes in transfused red cell or platelet components.
– Supportive management, with the use of paracetamol for symptom relief.Acute haemolytic reaction
– Symptoms include fever, chills, pain at the transfusion site, nausea, vomiting, and dark urine.
– Often accompanied by a feeling of ‘impending doom’.
– Most serious type of reaction, often due to ABO incompatibility caused by administration errors.
– Immediate action required: stop the transfusion, administer IV fluids, and consider diuretics if necessary.Delayed haemolytic reaction
– Typically occurs 4-8 days after a blood transfusion.
– Symptoms include fever, anemia and/or hyperbilirubinemia -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman presents with recurrent episodes of central chest pain that radiate to her left arm. She has a history of angina and uses a GTN spray for relief. She reports that the pains have been occurring more frequently in the past few days and have been triggered by less exertion. Currently, she is not experiencing any pain, and her ECG shows normal sinus rhythm with no abnormalities in T wave or ST-segment.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Unstable angina
Explanation:Unstable angina is characterized by the presence of one or more of the following symptoms: angina of effort occurring over a few days with increasing frequency, episodes of angina occurring recurrently and predictably without specific provocation, or an unprovoked and prolonged episode of cardiac chest pain. The electrocardiogram (ECG) may appear normal or show T-wave/ST-segment changes, and cardiac enzymes are typically within normal range.
On the other hand, stable angina is defined by central chest pain that is triggered by activities such as exercise and emotional stress. This pain may radiate to the jaw or left arm and is relieved by resting for a few minutes. It is usually brought on by a predictable amount of exertion.
Prinzmetal angina, although rare, is a variant of angina that primarily occurs at rest between midnight and early morning. The attacks can be severe and tend to happen in clusters. This type of angina is caused by coronary artery spasm, and patients may have normal coronary arteries.
Decubitus angina, on the other hand, is angina that occurs when lying down. It often develops as a result of cardiac failure due to an increased volume of blood within the blood vessels, which places additional strain on the heart.
Lastly, Ludwig’s angina is an extremely serious and potentially life-threatening cellulitis that affects the submandibular area. It most commonly arises from an infection in the floor of the mouth, which then spreads to the submandibular space.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 10-month-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her father. For the past three days, she has been experiencing severe diarrhea. She has had no wet diapers today and is lethargic and not behaving as usual. She was recently weighed by her pediatrician's nurse and was 7 kg.
What is this child's DAILY maintenance fluid requirement when in good health?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 800 ml/day
Explanation:The intravascular volume of an infant is approximately 80 ml/kg. As children get older, their intravascular volume decreases to around 70 ml/kg. Dehydration itself does not lead to death, but it can cause shock. Shock can occur when there is a loss of 20 ml/kg from the intravascular space. Clinical dehydration, on the other hand, is only noticeable after total losses greater than 25 ml/kg.
The table below summarizes the maintenance fluid requirements for well and normal children:
Bodyweight:
– First 10 kg: Daily fluid requirement of 100 ml/kg and hourly fluid requirement of 4 ml/kg
– Second 10 kg: Daily fluid requirement of 50 ml/kg and hourly fluid requirement of 2 ml/kg
– Subsequent kg: Daily fluid requirement of 20 ml/kg and hourly fluid requirement of 1 ml/kgFor a well and normal child weighing less than 10 kg, their daily maintenance fluid requirement would be 800 ml/day.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old patient with a history of schizophrenia comes in with side effects from a medication that he recently began taking for this condition. Upon examination, you observe that he is experiencing severe muscular rigidity, a decreased level of consciousness, and a body temperature of 40ºC.
Which of the following medications is most likely causing these symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chlorpromazine
Explanation:First-generation antipsychotics, also known as conventional or typical antipsychotics, are potent blockers of dopamine D2 receptors. However, these drugs also have varying effects on other receptors such as serotonin type 2 (5-HT2), alpha1, histaminic, and muscarinic receptors.
One of the major drawbacks of first-generation antipsychotics is their high incidence of extrapyramidal side effects. These include rigidity, bradykinesia, dystonias, tremor, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. Additionally, there is a rare but life-threatening reaction called neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) that can occur with these medications. NMS is characterized by fever, muscle rigidity, altered mental status, and autonomic dysfunction. It typically occurs shortly after starting or increasing the dose of a neuroleptic medication.
In contrast, second-generation antipsychotics, also known as novel or atypical antipsychotics, have a lower risk of extrapyramidal side effects and NMS compared to their first-generation counterparts. However, they are associated with higher rates of metabolic effects and weight gain.
It is important to differentiate serotonin syndrome from NMS as they share similar features. Serotonin syndrome is most commonly caused by serotonin-specific reuptake inhibitors.
Here are some commonly encountered examples of first- and second-generation antipsychotics:
First-generation:
– Chlopromazine
– Haloperidol
– Fluphenazine
– TrifluoperazineSecond-generation:
– Clozapine
– Olanzapine
– Quetiapine
– Risperidone
– Aripiprazole -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 30
Incorrect
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You evaluate a 60-year-old man with a previous diagnosis of hearing impairment.
Which tuning fork should be utilized to conduct a Rinne's test on this individual?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 512 Hz
Explanation:A 512 Hz tuning fork is commonly used for both the Rinne’s and Weber’s tests. However, a lower-pitched fork, such as a 128 Hz tuning fork, is typically used to assess vibration sense during a peripheral nervous system examination. Although a 256 Hz tuning fork can be used for either test, it is considered less reliable for both.
To perform a Rinne’s test, the 512 Hz tuning fork is first made to vibrate and then placed on the mastoid process until the sound is no longer heard. The top of the tuning fork is then positioned 2 cm away from the external auditory meatus, and the patient is asked to indicate where they hear the sound loudest.
In individuals with normal hearing, the tuning fork should still be audible outside the external auditory canal even after it is no longer appreciated on the mastoid. This is because air conduction should be greater than bone conduction.
In cases of conductive hearing loss, the patient will no longer hear the tuning fork once it is no longer appreciated on the mastoid. This suggests that their bone conduction is greater than their air conduction, indicating an obstruction in the passage of sound waves through the ear canal into the cochlea. This is considered a true negative result.
However, a Rinne’s test may yield a false negative result if the patient has a severe unilateral sensorineural deficit and senses the sound in the unaffected ear through the transmission of sound waves through the base of the skull.
In sensorineural hearing loss, the ability to perceive the tuning fork on both the mastoid and outside the external auditory canal is equally diminished compared to the opposite ear. Although the sound will still be heard outside the external auditory canal, it will disappear earlier on the mastoid process and outside the external auditory canal compared to the other ear.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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